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www.jntuworld.com JNTUWORLD IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING- II (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any Five Questions All Questions carry equal marks ******* 1. (a) state the objectives of site exploration and explain the importance of the depth of exploration for different structures (b) What is standard penetration number. Explain the procedure for determining it in the field. Mention the corrections to be applied to the observed values of standard penetration number. 2. (a) Derive the expression for the factor of safety of an infinite slope in cohesive soils. (b) What will be the factor of safety of a 15 0 slope of infinite extent in a cohesion- less soil whose angle of shearing resistance is 25 0 ? 3. A 10 m high wall retains dry gravel with a dry unit weight d = 22 kN/m 3 . Show that for a trial wedge with a failure plane, passing through the toe of the wall, at 20 o to the vertical the minimum force that the wall must provide is 212 kN/m, if for the gravel c= 0, = 38 o and between the gravel and the wall cw = 0, w = 32 o . 4. For the cantilever retaining wall shown in Figure, let the fallowing data be given: Wall dimensions: H = 5.4 m, x 1 = 0.45 m, x 2 = 0.75 m, x 3 = 1.20 m, x 4 = 1.80 m, x 5 = 0.85m D = 1.20 m, = 10 0 . Soil properties: 1 = 18.5 kN/m 3 , 1 ' = 34 0 , 2 = 17.8 kN/m 3 , 2 ' = 18 0 , c 2 '= 50 kPa. Calculate the factor of safety with respect to overturning, sliding and bearing capacity. Set No. 1 Code No: M0121 / R07 1of 3 www.jntuworld.com

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Page 1: Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 1itsourplace.weebly.com/uploads/8/0/6/5/8065773/is72.pdf · 1. (a) state the objectives of site exploration and explain the importance of the depth of

www.jntuworld.com

JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING- II

(Civil Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) state the objectives of site exploration and explain the importance of the depth of

exploration for different structures

(b) What is standard penetration number. Explain the procedure for determining it in

the field. Mention the corrections to be applied to the observed values of

standard penetration number.

2. (a) Derive the expression for the factor of safety of an infinite slope in cohesive soils.

(b) What will be the factor of safety of a 150 slope of infinite extent in a cohesion-

less soil whose angle of shearing resistance is 250?

3. A 10 m high wall retains dry gravel with a dry unit weight d = 22 kN/m3. Show that for a trial

wedge with a failure plane, passing through the toe of the wall, at 20o to the vertical the

minimum force that the wall must provide is 212 kN/m, if for the gravel c′ = 0, ′ = 38o and

between the gravel and the wall c′w = 0, ′w = 32o.

4. For the cantilever retaining wall shown in Figure, let the fallowing data be given:

Wall dimensions: H = 5.4 m, x1 = 0.45 m, x2 = 0.75 m, x3 = 1.20 m, x4 = 1.80 m, x5 = 0.85m

D = 1.20 m, = 100.

Soil properties: 1 = 18.5 kN/m3, 1' = 340, 2 = 17.8 kN/m3, 2' = 180, c2'= 50 kPa.

Calculate the factor of safety with respect to overturning, sliding and bearing capacity.

Set No. 1 Code No: M0121 / R07

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5. (a) What are the assumptions made in Terzaghi analysis of bearing Capacity?

(b) A strip footing 1 m wide rests on the surface of dry Cohesion-less soil having φ

= 250 and γ = 1.8 t/m

3, what is the ultimate bearing capacity? What is its value if

there as complete flooding Assume Nγ = 10; Nq =12.

6. The following are the results of a load –settlement test carried out on a 30 cm X 30 cm plate

inside a pit 3.5 m x 3.5 m x 1.2 m in sandy soil.

Load (kN) 4.0 10.0 15.0 20.0 25.0 30.0

Settlement

(mm)

1.5 3.8 5.1 7.4 11.3 14.2

Design a spread footing for a column 450 mm x 450 mm in size carrying a vertical load of

1200 kN. The allowable settlement is 25 mm.

7. (a) Describe the procedure for the estimation of settlement of a pile group by

considering only the frictional resistance of the pile group.

Set No. 1 Code No: M0121 / R07

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(b) A group of 16 piles 25 m long and 450 mm in diameter is to be arranged in a

square form in a clay soil with an average unconfined strength of 36 kN/m2.

Workout the center to center spacing of the piles for a group efficiency factor of 1.

Neglect bearing at the tip of the piles

8. (a) Discuss the IRC method for the design of Well foundations.

(b) Sketch and List out the component parts of Well foundation and discuss about its

functions.

3 of 3

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 1

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Page 4: Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 1itsourplace.weebly.com/uploads/8/0/6/5/8065773/is72.pdf · 1. (a) state the objectives of site exploration and explain the importance of the depth of

www.jntuworld.com

JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING- II

(Civil Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What is the object of exploration program and list out the phases of the exploration

program and explain in brief?

(b) Write short note on the depth of exploration and how can you fix the depth of boring in

different cases of foundations? i.e. Shallow and deep foundations.

2. A new canal is excavated to a depth of 5.5 m below ground level through a soil having c =

14.3 kN/m2, = 15

0, e = 0.8 and G = 2.80. The slope of the bank is 1:1. Calculate the factor of

safety with respect to the cohesion when the canal runs full. If it is suddenly and completely

emptied, what will be the factor of safety? The stability numbers are as fallows: Sn = 0.083 for

450 Slope and = 15

0; Sn = 0.11 for u = 10

0 and Sn = 0.138 for u = 5

0. Use linear

interpolation for the other values of u.

3. A vertical gravity retaining wall, 12 m high, is to retain a clayey soil for which cu = 25 kN/m2,

u = 15o and the bulk unit weight b = 19 kN/m3. The soil surface is horizontal and level with

the top of the wall. The water table is horizontal and level with the bottom of the wall.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the minimum force on the wall for a trial wedge

whose slip surface rises from the bottom of the wall at 70o to the horizontal. Assume that the

angle of wall friction is 10o and the wall adhesion is 15 kN/m2. Hint: You need to consider

the possibility of tension cracks.

4. A gravity retaining wall is shown in Figure. Calculate the factor of safety with respect to

overturning and sliding, given the fallowing data:

Wall dimensions: H = 6 m, x1 = 0.6 m, x2 = 2 m, x3 = 2 m, x4 = 0.5 m, x5 = 0.75 m, x6 = 0.8

m, D = 1.5 m.

Soil properties: 1 = 16.5 kN/m3, 1' = 32

0, 2 = 18 kN/m

3, 2' = 22

0, c2'= 40 kPa. Use the

Rankine active earth pressure in your calculations.

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 2

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5. (a) How would you fix the depth of the foundation? Discuss the Rankine’s formula

for the minimum depth.

(b) Using Skemption theory, compute the bearing capacity of a square footing of 2 x 2 m,

resting on the saturated clay at undrained condition at a depth of 1.5 m from the ground

level. Depth correction factor, dc = 1 + 0.2D/B, shape correction factor, sc = 1 + 0.2 B/L,

where D, B and L are the depth of foundation, width and length of the footing

respectively.

6. A soil deposit consists of 2 m of gravel overlaying an 8 m thick deposit of an over-consolidated

clay overlaying rigid permeable sandstone. The gravel has a unit weight of 22 kN/m3 when

saturated and a unit weight of 18 kN/m3 when dry. The properties of the clay are uniform

throughout the layer and indicated below: Void Ratio,e= 1.2; Specific Gravity,Gs =2.7; Pre-

consolidation pressure, 'pc=70 kPa; Compression Index,Cc = 0.1; Recompression Index, Cr

= 0.02; Consolidation coefficient,cv=0.5 m2/year. Calculate the settlement under the centre of a

square tank of side 5 m exerting an average pressure of 175 kPa constructed on the ground

surface after a long period of time and estimate the time for 75% of this settlement to occur.

Assume that initially the water table is at the surface of the gravel but that after construction it is

lowered to the surface of the clay. The clay should be divided into two equal sub-layers.

Set No. 2 Code No: M0121 / R07

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7. (a) Differentiate critically in principles in deriving the Engineering News formula

and Hiley’s formula for Pile load capacity.

(b) What are the basis on which the dynamic pile formulae are derived?. Discuss

critically the limitations of dynamic pile formulas.

(c) What will be the penetration per blow of a pile, which must be obtained in

driving with a 3t steam hammer falling through 1 m allowable load, is 25 tones?

8. (a) Discuss the method of construction of well foundation and its sinking into the

ground. What are the cares to be taken, if there is a difference in level of sinking

of well during the construction?

(b) An open well 20 m deep is of cylindrical shape with external and internal

diameters of 9 m and 6 m respectively. If the water table is 2m below the top of

the open well. Determine the minimum thickness of the seal required. Check for

perimeter shear also. Assume c = 2400 kN/m2; con = 24 kN/m

3(concrete).

Allowable perimeter shear stress = 650 kN/m2.

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 2

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING- II

(Civil Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What are the major uses of boring program in soil exploration? Explain any one method

of boring and its suitability depending on the site conditions.

(b) Distinguish between the undisturbed and disturbed samples.

2. (a) Compute the factor of safety of an infinite slope in a cohesionless soil for a steady

seepage condition when the flow is parallel to the slope.

(b) The laboratory test gave the fallowing soil parameters: c = 40 kN/m2, = 30

0. The

expected parameters of the mobilized shearing resistances are cm = 25 kN/m2 and m =

220. The average effective pressure on the failure plane is 150 kN/m

2. Find the factor of

safety with respect to the average shear strength, cohesion and angle of internal friction.

3. The figure below shows a 8 m high sea wall at a location where 4 m of sand overlie a deep clay

deposit. The water table in the soil is at the same level as the sea level on the other side of the

wall. Tests have been performed to determine the relevant soil properties. For the sand dry =

17 kN/m3, sat = 19 kN/m

3, and a series of shear box tests gave the following results at failure

Shear stress,

(kN/m2)

16 37 72

Normal stress,

(kN/m2)

20 50 100

A series of triaxial tests were performed on samples of the clayey soil (sat = 16.5 kN/m2). This

has included 3 undrained unconsolidated tests in which pore pressures were measured and one

consolidated undrained test. The stresses at failure are given below.

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 3

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Test type Cell pressure

3

(kN/m2)

Deviator

stress

1 - 3

(kN/m2)

Pore pressure

u

(kN/m2)

Unconsolidated Undrained 0 50 -34.4

Unconsolidated Undrained 50 50 15.6

Unconsolidated Undrained 100 50 65.6

Consolidated Undrained 200 90 127.2

By determining the soil strength parameters calculate, using Rankine's method, the minimum

force required to maintain the stability of the wall: (a) in the short term (b) in the long term

4. Check the stability of a cantilever concrete retaining wall having a stem thickness of 0.4 m

uniform throughout, 6.0 m height bed block thickness 0.8 m and a projection of 2.5 on the

heel side and 1.5 m on the toe side. The unit weight of the wall material is 25 kN/m3. The soil

has a unit weight of 18 kN/m3 and an angle of internal friction of 36

0. Take in to account a

uniform surcharge on the ground of 50 kN/m2. The ground level on the toe side is 1.2 m high

above the base of the wall.

Clay

Sea Water

Sand

2 m

2 m

4 m

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 3

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5. A square footing has to carry a load of 1000 kN. Find the size of the footing for a factor of

safety of 2.50. The depth of the foundation is 1.5 m. The soil has the fallowing properties: G

= 2.60, e = 0.53, S = 0.50, = 300 and C = 10 kN/m

2. What will be the safe bearing capacity

of the soil if the void ratio of the soil is 0.72 instead of 0.53. In this case find the size of the

footing and what will be the safe bearing capacity and size of the footing if the water table

rises to ground level. For = 300, Nc =30 Nq = 18.4 N = 22.4.

6. (a) Differentiate between total settlement and differential settlement. What are the harmful

effects of differential settlements on structures? What are the possible remedial measures?

(b) A rectangular footing 4 m x 2m exerts a pressure of 80 kN/m2 on a cohesive soil (Es = 5.1

X 104 kN/m

2, µ = 0.50). determine the immediate settlement at the center assuming the

footing is (a) flexible (b) rigid. For flexible Influence factors for L/B = 2 are 1.53 at center

and 0.77 at corner. For rigid 0.8.

7. (a) From the cyclic pile load test the following data is obtained. Compute Skin frictional

resistance and Base resistance.

Load

(tons)

0 1 3 5 7 8 10 15 25 35 50

Elastic

Settlement

(mm)

0 16.97 22.33 24.23

25.43

25.93 26.81 28.69 32 35.15 39.75

(b) Compute the briefly outline how the load carrying capacity of a pile is determined in the

field. What are its limitations?

8. (a) What do you understand about the grip length? What is its importance in well

foundations?

(b) Determine the outside diameter of an open well to be sunk through 40 m sand and water

to bed rock, If the allowable bearing capacity is 2000 kN/m2. The well foundation

receives a load of 50 MN from the superstructure. The mantle friction is 30 kN/m2. Test

the feasibility of sinking. Also calculate the thickness of the seal.

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 3

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING- II

(Civil Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Under what conditions the geophysical methods are used in the soil exploration? Explain

the in detail about the electrical resistivity methods and discuss about its limitations.

(b) Discuss in detail about Handling, Labeling and Sealing and transportation of both

undisturbed and disturbed Samples.

2. (a) Derive the equation for factor of safety of a finite slope by Bishop’s simplified method of

analysis.

(b) A canal is 3 m deep runs through a soil having Cu = 10 kPa. u = 100, e = 0.8, G = 2.72.

The angle of slope of the bank is 450. Determine Factor of Safety with respect of cohesion

when the canal is full up to the top of the bank. What will be the Factor of Safety in case

of sudden drawdown?

3. (a) Derive the equation for maximum passive earth pressure using the Mohr’s envelop.

(b) Calculate the total active earth pressure on a retaining wall of 9 m height. The retaining

soil has a 120 surcharge angle, a unit weight of 19 kN/m

3, an angle of internal friction of

240 and a cohesion of 10 kN/m

2. Also calculate the height of the line of action of the total

pressure from the bottom of the wall. Neglect negative pressure when the calculating the

total pressure.

4. For the cantilever retaining wall shown in Fig. 1, let the fallowing data be given:

Wall dimensions: H = 6.5 m, x1 = 0.45 m, x2 = 1.0 m, x3 = 1.50 m, x4 = 2.0 m, x5 = 1.0 m

D = 1.50 m, = 100.

Soil properties: 1 = 18.5 kN/m3, 1' = 36

0, 2 = 17.0 kN/m

3, 2' = 10

0, c2'= 65 kPa.

Calculate the factor of safety with respect to overturning, sliding and bearing capacity.

Code No: M0121 / R07 Set No. 4

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5. A foundation 2.0 m square is installed 1.2 m below the surface of uniform sandy gravel

having a density of 19.2 kN/m2 above the water table and a submerged density of 10.1

kN/m3. The effective strength parameters are c1 = 0 kN/m2 and φ1 = 300. Find the gross

ultimate bearing capacity for the conditions of water table well below the base (with rupture

zone above the water table) Water table rising to the level of the base of the foundation and

the water table raises to the ground level. Use Meyerhof theory. The bearing capacity factors

are, φ = 300, Nq = 18.4 and Nr = 15.7. Shape factors: Sq = Sr = 1+ 0.1 kp

L

B and dq =dr = 1 +

0.1 B

Dk p , where kp = tan

2(45+φ/2).

6. A square footing has to carry a load of 1000 kN. Find the size of the footing for a factor of

safety of 2.50. The depth of the foundation is 1.5 m in a dense sand deposit. The recorded

SPT value at the foundation level is 20. The soil has the fallowing properties: G = 2.68, e =

0.53, S = 0.10. The permissible settlement is 40 mm. Use IS code method.

Code No: M0121 Set No. 4

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7. (a) Write short note on on the

(b) A group of 9 piles with 3 piles in a row were drive

ground level to a great depth. The diameter and the

10 m respectively. The unconfined compressive stren

piles were placed at 90 cm center to center, comput

group on the basis of shear failure criteria for a

8. (a) What do you understand tilts and shifts in well foundations

control them.

(b) Discuss about the Terzaghi method of design of

Code No: M0121 / R07

Write short note on on the settlement of pile group.

A group of 9 piles with 3 piles in a row were driven into soft clay extending from

ground level to a great depth. The diameter and the length of the piles were 30 cm and

10 m respectively. The unconfined compressive strength of the clay is 70 kPa. If the

piles were placed at 90 cm center to center, compute the allowable load on the pile

group on the basis of shear failure criteria for a factor of safety of 2.

you understand tilts and shifts in well foundations? Explain the measures to

(b) Discuss about the Terzaghi method of design of well foundation.

3 of 3

clay extending from

length of the piles were 30 cm and

gth of the clay is 70 kPa. If the

e the allowable load on the pile

factor of safety of 2.5.

? Explain the measures to

well foundation.

Set No. 4

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES

(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1 a) A single-phase fully controlled thyristor converter is supplying a

separately excited DC Motor. Draw the relevant waveforms and

explain various operating modes of the drive both in motoring and

regenerative braking.

[8]

b) A 220 V, 970 rpm, 120 A dc separately excited motor has an armature

resistance of 0.05ohms. It is braked by plugging from an initial speed

of 1000rpm. Calculate resistance to be placed in armature circuit to

limit braking current to twice the full load value and Braking torque.

[8]

2 a) Explain the operation of 3- six pulse converter feeding DC series

motor with neat diagram and relevant waveforms.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1440rpm, 120A separately excited DC motor with armature

resistance of 0.7 is fed from 3-, fully controlled converter with an

ac source line voltage 440V, 50 Hz supply. A star connected

transformer is used to feed the armature so that motor terminal voltage

equals rated voltage when converter firing angle is zero. Calculate the

value of firing angle when motor is running at 1200 rpm at rated

torque.

[8]

3 a) Discuss plugging and regenerative braking employed for Dc Motors.

With neat diagram and relevant waveforms.

[8]

b) A 220V, 200A, 800rpm DC separately excited motor has an armature

resistance of 0.06. The motor armature is fed from a variable voltage

source with an internal resistance of 0.04 . Calculate internal voltage

of the variable voltage source when the motor is operating in

regenerative braking at 80% of the rated motor torque and 600rpm.

[8]

Code No: M0221 / R07 Set No. 1

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4 a) Explain the operation of two quadrant chopper feeding to a separately

excited DC motor and also draw the current and voltage wave forms

for continuous current operation.

[8]

b) Draw the block diagram and explain the operation of closed loop

speed control scheme of DC Motor for speeds below the base speed.

[8]

5 a) Explain briefly why stator voltage control is an inefficient method for

speed control of Induction Motor.

[6]

b) Briefly discuss the speed torque characteristics of 3- Induction

Motor obtained by stator voltage variation.

[10]

6 a) Explain why in an Induction Motor V/f ratio is maintained constant

when the motor is operated below the base speed.

[8]

b) Explain the principle of varying the speed of an Induction motor by

variable frequency control of stator voltage. Draw the speed torque

characteristics for motoring and braking modes.

[8]

7 a) Briefly discuss the speed control techniques exclusively used for

Wound Rotor Induction Motor drives.

[8]

b) A 440V, 50Hz, 1050rpm, 6-pole, Star connected, 3phase wound rotor

induction motor has following parameters referred to the stator: Rs =

0.2 , R’r = 0.05 , Xs =0.3 and X

’r = 0.5, the stator to rotor turns

ratio is 2. Motor speed is controlled by static Scherbius drive. Drive is

designed for a speed range of 25% below the synchronous speed.

Maximum value of firing angle is 160o. Calculate transformer turns

ratio and torque for a speed of 750 rpm at firing angle is 140o.

[8]

8 a) Describe the operation of self-controlled Synchronous Motor drives

in detail.

[8]

b) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of VSI and CSI fed cyclo

converter drives.

[8]

Set No. 1 Code No: M0221 / R07

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES

(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1 a) Explain the concept of Electric Drives. Illustrate your answer with

example.

[8]

b) A 220 V, 1200 rpm, 120 A separately excited DC motor is fed from

1-, fully controlled converter with an ac source 230V, 50 HZ supply.

The thyristor is triggered continuously by a DC signal. The resistance

of armature circuit is 0.07 . Find the firing angle of the converter for

rated motor torque and 700 rpm.

[8]

2 a) Draw the block diagram and explain the operation of closed loop

speed control of DC Motor with inner current loop and field

weakening.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1200rpm, 60A separately excited DC motor with armature

resistance of 0.6, is fed from 3-, fully controlled converter with an

ac source line voltage 415V, 50 Hz supply. A star connected

transformer is used to feed the armature so that motor terminal voltage

equals rated voltage when converter firing angle is zero. Calculate

transformer turns ratio.

[8]

3 a) Explain briefly the following methods of braking of a D.C Motor

(i) Dynamic braking

(ii) Plugging.

[8]

b) A 400V, 750 rpm, 70A dc shunt motor has an armature resistance of

0.3 . When running under rated conditions, the motor is to be braked

by plugging with armature current limited to 90A. What external

[8]

Code No: M0221 / R07 Set No. 2

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resistance should be connected in series with the armature? Calculate

the initial braking torque and its value when the speed has fallen to

300rpm.

4 a) Explain the principle of speed control of a DC Motor and show how it

can be achieved by a chopper.

[8]

b) Draw and discuss in detail of motoring and regenerative braking

operation of chopper control of separately excited DC motor.

[8]

5 a) Draw and explain the circuit diagrams of AC Voltage Controller for

delta connected Controller. How it is possible to change the direction

of rotation of 3- Induction motor by using AC Voltage Controllers.

[8]

b) Briefly discuss the speed control techniques employed for Induction

motors fed from stator side.

[8]

6 a) Explain why in an Induction Motor, the terminal voltage is maintained

constant, when the drive is operated above base speed. Draw relevant

speed torque characteristics.

[8]

b) Discuss in detail the role of Cyclo-converters for speed control of

Induction motor. Draw neat circuit diagram for speed control of 3-

Induction motor using Cyclo-converters. Mention the merits and

limitations of the above scheme.

[8]

7 a) Draw the circuit diagram and explain the operation of rotor- resistance

control of Induction motor. Mention the advantages and disadvantages

of the above method of control.

[8]

b) A 3-, 400V, 6-pole, 50Hz, delta-connected, slip-ring induction

motor has rotor resistance of 0.2 ohms and leakage reactance of 0.9

ohms per phase referred to stator. When driving a fan load it runs at

full load with 5% slip. What resistance must be inserted in the rotor

circuit to obtain a speed of 850 rpm. Neglect stator impedance and

magnetizing branch. Stator to rotor turns ratio is 2.

[8]

8 a) Explain the operation of Load commutated CSI fed Synchronous

motor drive.

[8]

b) List out advantage and disadvantage of synchronous motor drive fed

from VSI and CSI.

[8]

Code No: M0221 / R07 Set No. 2

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES

(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1 a) Explain Speed-torque characteristics of a 1- fully controlled converter

connected to separately excited D.C motor with continuous current operation.

Draw the relevant waveforms.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1200rpm, 120A separately excited DC motor is fed from 1-, fully

controlled converter with an ac source 230V, 50 HZ supply. The thyristor is

triggered continuously by a dc signal. The resistance of armature circuit is

0.07 . Find the firing angle for rated motor torque and (-700) rpm.

[8]

2 a) Explain the speed-torque characteristic of 3- fully controlled converter

feeding DC series motors with relevant waveforms.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1500rpm, 120A separately excited DC motor with armature

resistance of 0.7, is fed from 3-, fully controlled converter with an ac

source line voltage 440V, 50 Hz supply. A star connected transformer is used

to feed the armature so that motor terminal voltage equals rated voltage when

converter firing angle is zero. Calculate the value of firing angle when motor

is running at 800 rpm at twice rated torque.

[8]

3 a) Explain the operation of closed loop speed control of separately excited DC

motor with block diagram.

[8]

b) A 220 V, 190 A dc series motor has armature and field resistances of 0.03

and 0.02 respectively. Running on no load as a generator with field

winding connected to a separate source gave following magnetization

characteristic at 500rpm. Motor is controlled by a chopper in dynamic

braking with a braking resistance of 2.

Armature

Current

(Amps)

40 80 120 160 200

Terminal

Voltage

(volts)

52 108 148 176 189

Calculate motor speed for a duty ratio of 0.6 and motor current of 160A.

[8]

Set No.3 Code No: M0221 / R07

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4 a) Briefly discuss the advantages offered by dc chopper drives over line-

commutated converter controlled dc drives.

[8]

b) Explain the operation of four quadrant chopper fed to the D.C series motor

and also draw the current and voltage wave forms for continuous current

operation.

[8]

5 a) Discuss the relative merits and demerits of stator voltage control employed

for Induction Motor drives.

[8]

b) A 3.2 kW, 415V, 50Hz, 4 pole, 1440 rpm, delta connected squirrel-cage

Induction Motor has following parameters referred to the stator: Rs = 2,

R’r = 5, Xs = X

’r = 5 and Xm = 75. Motor speed is controlled by stator

voltage control. When driving a fan load it runs at rated speed at rated

voltage. Calculate motor terminal voltage, current and torque at 1200 rpm.

[8]

6 a) Briefly explain the conventional methods of controlling the speed of an

Induction Motor.

[8]

b) Compare the merits and demerits of VSI and CSI fed Induction Motor drives.

[8]

7 a) Define Slip power and its significance. Discuss various methods used for slip

power recovery in Induction Motors.

[8]

b) Explain the operation of static scherbius drive employed for Wound Rotor

Induction Motor drive.

[8]

8 a) In variable frequency control of a synchronous motor why (V/f) ratio is

maintained constant up to base speed and V constant above the base speed.

Explain briefly with necessary waveforms.

[8]

b) Discuss the important features and applications of load commutated

synchronous Motor drive.

[8]

2 of 2

Code No: M0221 / R07 Set No.3

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES

(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1 a) Define an Electric drive and its significance in practical applications.

List out the essential parameters of an Electrical Drive.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1050 rpm, 120A separately excited DC motor is fed from

1-, fully controlled converter with an ac source 230V, 50 HZ supply.

The thyristor is triggered continuously by a DC signal. The resistance

of armature circuit is 0.07. Find the motor speed for firing angle

160o

and rated torque.

[8]

2 a) Explain the operation of 3- half-controlled rectifier feeding DC

separately excited motor. Draw its speed-torque curve.

[8]

b) A 220V, 1440rpm, 120A separately excited DC motor with armature

resistance of 0.7 , is fed from 3-, fully controlled converter with an

ac source line voltage 440V, 50 Hz supply. A star connected

transformer is used to feed the armature so that motor terminal voltage

equals rated voltage when converter firing angle is zero. Calculate the

value of firing angle when motor is running at (-900) rpm at rated

torque.

[8]

3 a) Discuss in detail counter current and dynamic braking operations of

D.C shunt motors.

[8]

b) The speed of a separately excited dc motor is controlled by means of a

3- semi-converter from a 3- 415V 50Hz supply. The motor

constants are inductance 10mH, resistance 0.9 and armature constant

1.5v/rad/sec. Calculate speed of the motor at a torque of 50 N-m when

the converter is fired at 450. Neglect losses in the converter.

[8]

4 a) Explain the principle of speed control of a DC Motor and show how it

can be achieved by a chopper.

[8]

b) Draw the block diagram and explain the operation of closed loop

speed control scheme of DC Motor for speeds below the base speed.

[8]

Set No. 4 Code No: M0221 / R07

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5 a) Explain why stator voltage control is suitable for speed control of

Induction motors in fan and pump drives.

[8]

b) A 3.2 kW, 415V, 50Hz, 4 pole, 1440 rpm, delta connected squirrel-

cage induction motor has following parameters referred to the stator:

Rs = 2, R’r = 5, Xs = X

’r = 5 and Xm = 75. Motor speed is

controlled by stator voltage control. When driving a fan load it runs at

rated speed at rated voltage. Calculate motor speed, current and torque

for the terminal voltage of 330V.

[8]

6 a) Discuss in detail the role of voltage source inverter for speed control

of Induction motor. Explain the operation of speed control of 3 phase

Induction motor using voltage source inverter. Mention the merits and

limitations of the scheme.

[10]

b) Explain why in an Induction Motor V/f ratio is maintained constant

when the motor is operated below the base speed.

[6]

7 a) Draw and explain the equivalent circuit of a wound rotor induction

motor when voltage is injected in the rotor circuit.

[8]

b) Explain static Scherbius drive control for speed control of induction

motor. Draw speed -torque characteristics.

[8]

8 a) Discuss in detail self-controlled synchronous motor drive employing

load commutated thyristor inverter.

[8]

b) State and explain the role of a damper winding in a synchronous

motor.

[8]

Set No. 4 Code No: M0221 / R07

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

(Mechanical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. A manufacturer produces 3 products A, B and C. Each product can be produced on either

one of the two machines, 1 and 2. The time required to produce one unit of each product

on a machine is given in the table below:

PRODUCT

TIME TO PRODUCE 1 UNIT (hours)

MACHINE 1 MACHINE 2

A 0.5 0.6

B 0.7 0.8

C 0.9 1.05

There are 85 hours available on each machine. The operating cost is Rs 5 per hour for

machine 1 and Rs 4 per hour for machine 2 and the product requirements are at least 90

units of A, atleast 80 units of B, and atleast 60 units of C. The manufacturing wishes to

meet the requirements at minimum cost. Solve the problem by Simplex method.

2. (a) Four gasoline dealers A,B,C and D require 50, 40,60 and 40 KL of gasoline

respectively. It is possible to supply these from location 1,2 and 3 which have 80,100

and 50 KL respectively. The cost (in Rs) for shipping every KL is shown in the table

below.

A B C D

LOCATIONS

1 7 6 6 6

2 5 7 6 7

3 8 5 8 6

Determine the most economical supply pattern.

Set No. 1 Code No: M0321 / R07

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(b) Why is not the Simplex method used for solving transportation problems?

3 Solve the following (2 x 3) game graphically:

Y1 Y2 Y3

I II III

XI I 1 3 11

1- X1 II 8 5 2

4. A manufacturer wants to know what is the optimum stock level of a certain part which is

used in filling orders which acquires at a relative constant rate, but not of constant size.

The delivery of these parts is made to him immediately. He regularly places X orders for

the parts at the beginning of each month. The probabilities of demands of these parts are

given below. The cost of holding a unit in stock per month is Re 1.00 and shortage cost is

Rs 20 per month;

No of parts

required(r)

0 1 2 3 4 5 6

Probability of

requirements p(r)

0.1 0.20 0.2 0.3 0.1 0.1 0.00

Determine the optimum quantity of the part.

5. A company is considering to replace a grinder X presently of worth Rs 10000 by a new

grinder Y of Rs 20000 but will be economic in running expenditures. The expected life

of the grinder X is 5 years with running expenditures of Rs 4000 in first year and then

additional increase of Rs 400 per year for the next 4 years. For the new grinder Y, the

annual running cost is Rs 1000 per year and a scrap value of Rs 2000. As an advisor to

the company, find

a) The present value of the cost of the old and new grinders considering 12% normal

rate of interest.

b) Suggest whether the old grinder can be replaced by the new grinder, assuming the

life of the new grinder to be 5 years.

Code No: M0321 / R07 Set No. 1

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6. An overhead crane moves jobs from one machine to another and must be used every time

a machine requires loading or unloading. The demand for service is random, data taken

by recording the elapsed time between service calls followed as exponential distribution

having a mean of call every 30 minutes. In a similar manner, the actual service time of

loading or unloading took an average of ten min. If the machine time is valued at Rs 8.50

per hour, how much does the downtime costs per day (assume 1 day= 8 working hours)?

7. (a) Describe the recursive equation approach to solve the dynamic programming problems.

(b) State Bellman’s principle of optimality. Explain the forward and backward recursion

method.

8. A firm has single channel service station with following arrival and service time

probability distributions:

Arrivals Probability Service Time(min) Probability(min)

1.0 0.35 1.0 0.20

2.0 0.25 1.5 0.35

3.0 0.20 2.0 0.25

4.0 0.12 2.5 0.15

5.0 0.08 3.0 0.05

The customer’s arrival at the service station is a random phenomenon and the time between

the arrival varies from one minute to five minutes. The service time varies from one minute

to three minutes. The queuing process begins at 10.00 a.m. and proceeds for nearly 2 hours.

An arrival goes to the service facility immediately, if it is free. Otherwise it will wait in a

queue. The queue discipline is first-come first-served. If the attendant’s wages are Rs 8 per

hour and the customer’s waiting time costs Rs 9 per hour, then would it be an economical

proposition to engage a second attendant? Answer on the basis of Monte Carlo simulation

technique.

Code No: M0321 / R07 Set No. 1

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

(Mechanical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

******* 1. A factory is engaged in manufacturing 3 products A, B and C which involve lathe work,

grinding and assembling. The cutting, grinding and assembling time required for one unit of

A are 2, 1 and 1 hour respectively. Similarly they are 3,2 and 3 hours for one unit of B and

1,3 and 1 hour for one unit of C. The profits on A,B and C are Rs 2,Rs 2 an Rs 4 for unit,

respectively. Assuming that there are available 300 hours of lathe time, 300 hours of grinder

time and 240 hours of assembly time; how many units of each product should be produced to

maximize profit? Work the problem using the Simplex method.

2. (a) A company has 3 plants of cement which has to be transported to 4 distribution centers.

With identical costs of production at the three plants the only variable costs involved are

transportation costs. The monthly demand at the four distribution centers and the distance

from the plants to the distribution centers (in Kms) are given below.

PLANT

Distribution centers Monthly

production

(in TONS) W X Y Z

A 500 1000 150 800 10000

B 200 700 500 100 12000

C 600 400 100 900 8000

Monthly demand

(in TONS) 9000 9000 10000 4000

The transport charges are Rs 10 per ton per km. Suggest the optimum transportation

schedule to indicate the total minimum transportation cost. If , for certain reasons, route

from plant C to distribution centre X is closed down, will the transportation scheme change?

If so, suggest the new schedule and effect on total cost.

(b) What are the assumptions involved in Johnson’s algorithm for sequencing of jobs?

Set No. 2 Code No: M0321 / R07

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3. The probability distribution of a certain item is as follows:

Sales 0 1 2 3 4 5

Probability 0.05 0.35 0.08 0.15 0.20 0.17

The cost per unit is Rs 60 and it sells for Rs 100. If the product is not sold it is completely

worthless. What optimum policy could you recommend?

4. ( a) Game theory provides a systematic quantitative approach for analyzing competitive

situations in which the competitors make use of logical processes and techniques in

order to determine the optimal strategy for winning: Comment.

(b) Explain the following:

i. Value of Game,

` ii. Payoff matrix,

iii. Pure and mixed strategies and

iv. Saddle point

5. XYZ organization manufacturing plastic moulding is considering the replacement of 2

moulding machines. Capital for machine X initially is Rs 1.8 lakhs and for machine Y is

Rs 2 lakhs. For a six years period the estimated maintenance costs were established and are

presented in the following table.

MOULDING X

YEAR 1 2 3 4 5 6

Maintenance cost (Rs) 12000 14000 19000 22000 50000 60000

MOULDING Y

The department concerned with the replacement has stated that it would be advisable, regarding

the cost, to replace machine X after 4 years and the machine Y after 3 years. Assuming the

interest rate of 10%, use a present worth value as a basis for cost comparison and components

on the policy suggested by the department responsible for the machine replacement. Suggest

optimal policy.

YEAR 1 2 3 4 5 6

Maintenance cost (Rs) 2600 4200 9000 12000 25000 35000

Code No: M0321 / R07 Set No. 2

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6. A repair man has to be hired to repair machines which break down at an average rate of 3 per

hour. Breakdowns are distributed in time in a manner that may be regarded as Poisson. Non

productive time on any one machine is considered to cost the company Rs 5 per hour. The

company has narrowed the choice down to 2 repair man one slow and cheap the other fast but

expensive. The slow cheap repairman demands Rs 3 per hour, in return he will service the broken

down machines exponentially at an average rate of 4 per hour. The fast expensive repair man

demands Rs 5 an hour and he will repair a machine at an average rate of 6 per hour. Which repair

man should be hired?

7. Minimize z =

Subjected to a+b+c 15; a,b,c 0 by forward recursion.

8. (a) What is meant by Montocarlo simulation? Discuss its scope.

(b) Suggest any two probability distributions applied to discrete random variables. Give

expressions for their probability density functions.

Set No. 2 Code No: M0321 / R07

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

(Mechanical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

******* 1. A television company has 3 major departments for manufacturing of its models A and B.

Monthly capacities are given as follows:

DEPARTMENT per unit time requirement (hrs) Hrs. available this

month Model A Model B

1 4.0 2.0 1600

2 2.5 1.0 1200

3 4.5 1.5 1600

The marginal profit of Model A is Rs 400 each and that of Model B is Rs 100 each. Assuming

that the company can sell any quantity of either product due to favorable market condition;

Determine the optimum output for both the models, the highest possible profit for this month

and the slack time in the 3 departments .

2. A cement company has 3 factories which manufactures cement which is then transported to 4

distribution centres. The quantity of monthly production each factory, the demand of the each

distribution centre and the associated transportation cost per quintal are given below.

FACTORY

Distribution centres Monthly

production

(in quintals) W X Y Z

A 10 8 5 4 7000

B 7 9 15 8 8000

C 6 10 14 8 10000

Monthly demand (in

quintals) 6000 6000 8000 5000 250000

a) Suggest the optimum transportation schedule

b) Is there any other transportation schedule which is equally attractive? If so, write that.

c) If the company wants that at least 5000 quintals of cement are transported from factory C

to distribution centre Y, Will the transportation schedule be any different? If so, what will

be the new optimum schedule and the effect on cost?

Set No. 3 Code No: M0321 / R07

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3. Solve the following (2 X 4) game:

A

B

I II III IV

I 2 2 3 -1

II 4 3 2 6

4. The probability distribution of the demand for a product has been estimated to be:

Sales 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

Probability 0.05 0.15 0.30 0.35 0.10 0.05 0.00

Each units sell for Rs 100, and the total cost per unit is Rs 60. If the product is not sold, it is

completely worthless.

a) Assuming no re-ordering is possible, how many units should be purchased?

b) If the customer will is estimated to be Rs 65 for every unit for which there is unfilled

demand, how many units should be ordered?

5. A company has the option to buy one of the mini computers: MINI COMP and

CHIPCOMP. Mini comp costs Rs 5 lakhs and running and maintenance costs Rs 60000 for

each of the first 5 years increasing by Rs 20000 per in the sixth and subsequent years. Chip

comp has the same capacity as the Mini comp, but costs only Rs 2.5 lakhs. However, its

running and maintenance costs are Rs 1.2 lakhs per year in the first 5 years and increasing by

Rs 20000 per year thereafter. If the money is worth 10 % per year, which computer should

be purchased? What are the optimal replacement periods for each one of the computers?

Assume that there is no salvage value for either computer. Explain your analysis.

6. At a railway station only one train is handled at a time. The railway yard is sufficient only for

the trains to wait while other is given signal to leave the station. Trains arrive at the station at

an average rate of 6 per hour and the railway station can handle them on an average of 12%

per hour. Assuming Poisson arrivals render exponential service distribution; find the steady

state probabilities for the various number of the trains in the system. Also find the average

rating time of a new train coming into the yard.

7. Maximize z= ,

Subjected to constraints a+b+c 6 , abc 6, where a,b,c are positive integers.

8. (a) Explain with an example how you simulate an inventory system for the optimal quantity.

(b)Discuss advantages and disadvantages of Simulation.

Code No: M0321 / R07 Set No. 3

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

(Mechanical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

******* 1. A firm manufactures three products which are processed on 3 different machines. The

relevant data are as follows:

Time per unit ( hrs)

Machine Product 1 Product 2 Product 3

M1 2 3 2

M2 4 - 3

M3 2 5 -

The machine capacities for M1, M2 and M3 are respectively 440, 470 and 430 hrs while the

unit profits for Products P1, P2 and P3 are Rs 400, Rs 300 and Rs 600 respectively. Assume

that all the products are sold.

a) Formulate the problem as an LPP

b) Find the optimal quantities of each product.

2. (a) A firm manufacturing a single product has 3 plans. They have produced 60, 35 and 40

units respectively during this month. The firm had made a commitment to sell 22 units to

customer A, 45 units to customer B, 20 units to customer C, 18 units to customer D and 30

units to customer E. Find the minimum possible transportation cost of shifting the

manufacturer product to the 5 customers. The net unit cost (in Rs) of transporting from the

three plants to the five customers is given below.

CUSTOMERS

PLANTS A B C D

1 4 1 3 4

2 2 3 2 3

3 3 5 2 2

(b) What are the limitations of Johnson’s algorithm used for sequencing of jobs?

Code No: M0321 / R07 Set No. 4

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3. Two firms are competing for business under the conditions so that one firm’s gain is another

firm’s loss. Firm A’s pay-off matrix is given below:

FIRM A

FIRM B

No advertising Medium

advertising

Heavy

advertising

No advertising 10 5 -2

Medium

advertising 13 12 15

Heavy

advertising 16 14 10

Suggest optimum strategies for the two firms and the net outcome therof.

4. A certain item has an annual demand of 2000 units. The cost of placing an order is Rs 400

and the annual carrying cost is Rs10 per unit. The cost of stock out is estimated to be Rs 10

on average. The demand during lead time tends to be randomly distributed throughout the

year, so that a Poisson distribution may be assumed. There are 250 working days for an year

and the lead time is 5 working days.

Demand during the

lead time 70 75 80 85 90 95 100

Probability 0.02 0.14 0.23 0.24 0.21 0.12 0.04

Determine the optimal order quantity and re-order level.

5. A machine shop has a press which is to be replaced as it wears out. A new press is to be

installed now and an optimum replacement is to be determined for the next seven years after

which the press is no longer required. Following data are available:

Years 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Cost of new machine 500 525 550 600 650 725 800

Salvage value 250 125 75 50 40 25 0

Operating cost 150 200 250 300 375 450 575

Find an optimum replacement policy.

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6. An oil company is constructing a service station on a highway. Traffic analysis indicates that

customers’ arrivals over most of the day would approximate a Poisson distribution with a

mean of 10 automobiles per hour with the service time distribution approximating the

negative exponential. If four pumps are installed,

a) What is the probability that an arrival would have to meet in a line?

b) Find out the average waiting time, average time spent in the system and the average

number of automobiles in the system?

c) For what percentage of time would a pump be idle on an average?

7. Solve the following problem using dynamic programming.

Maximize

Subject to abc 4 where a, b, c are positive integers.

8. (a) How do you simulate a Queuing system. Explain it with an example.

(b) Discuss the languages of Simulation.

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical

Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Differentiate between system call and Library function. What are the steps

involved in executing system calls?

(b) List the essential properties of the following types of operating systems:

i) Real Time

ii) Handheld [8+8]

2. (a) What is the difference between user level threads and kernel level threads?

List out the advantages and disadvantages of each.

(b) Consider the following set of processes with their arrival times and burst times

Process Arrival time Burst time

A 0 10

B 2 6

C 10 4

D 12 8

E 15 5

The system uses dual core processor and at most two processes can be in running

state at any time. Draw Gantt chart using FCFS scheduling. What is the CPU

utilization and average turnaround time? [8+8]

3. Four threads T1, T2, T3 and T4 are accessing a global variable count. T1 and T2 are

incrementing count and T3 and T4 are decrementing count. What are the possible

outcomes and their execution sequences? Incrementing/Decrementing a variable involves

3 machine instructions: loading variable value to register R, increment the contents of R,

storing the contents of R in to location for count. Assume initial value of count is 20.

How do you always get the count value as 20 after completion of 4 threads? [16]

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4. (a) What is thrashing? What are its causes and effects? How do you reduce thrashing?

(b) A process contains six virtual pages on disk and is assigned a fixed allocation of 4

frames in main memory. The following page trace occurs:

1,0,2,2,1,6,5,6,0,3,2,4,0,3,1,5,5,4,6,0,2,6,1

Show the successive pages residing in the four frames using LRU replacement

strategy. Compute hit ratio in the main memory. Assume the frames are initially

empty [8+8]

5. (a) What is a hard disk? Explain the characteristics of a hard disk.

(b) What is disk interleaving? Explain briefly with an example. [6+10]

6. (a) Explain the concept of virtual file system. What are its advantages to end user?

(b) Explain the directory organization in Windows Operating System. [8+8]

7. Explain different levels of RAID along with reliability and efficiency considerations

of each. [16]

8. (a) Differentiate between protection and security.

(b) What constitutes an intrusion? Discuss briefly about different intrusion detection

methods. [6+10]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical

Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What is a Virtual Machine? What are its advantages?

i) to operating-system designer and

ii) to user

(b) Operating system is a resource manager. What are the resources it manages

and in what way? [8+8]

2. (a) What is Process? How it different from:

i) Program

ii) Thread

iii) Processor

(b) Consider the following set of processes, with CPU burst time given in

milliseconds Process Burst Time Priority

A 6 4 B 8 2 C 12 1 D 4 3 All Process are assumed to have arrived in the order A,B,C,D all at time 0 and lower

value in priority have higher priority. What is turnaround time and waiting time of

each process for non-primitive priority scheduling and Round Robin scheduling (time

slice-1ms).What is the average turnaround time and the average waiting time?

[8+8]

3. What are the services that are provided by the kernel related to I/O? Write about

the kernel I/O subsystem in detail. [6+10]

4. (a) Explain how the remote _le sharing can be done in RFS.

(b) Explain how _le sharing is done in Distributed Information Systems. [8+8]

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5. (a) List and briefly explain kernel services to I/O.

(b) A system has 6 devices D1, D2, D3, D4,D5 and D6 and four processes P1,P2 , P3

and P4. P1 is holding D1 and D2 and waiting for D3. P2 is holding D4 and

waiting for D5. P3 is holding D6 and D3 and waiting for D5. P4 is holding D5

and waiting for D1. Draw resource allocation graph and wait-for graph. Is the

system in deadlock state or not? [8+8]

6. (a) Discuss various file allocation strategies along with their merits and demerits.

(b) What is i-node in UNIX? What are its contents? [8+8]

7. What is meant by authentication? Why simple password protection is the most

common authentication scheme in use today? Discuss the weakness inherent in

the Password protection scheme. [16]

8. (a) Explain how domains are organized in MULTICS operating system.

(b) Some of the earlier operating systems used divide the memory into various

artitions and used to allocate different partitions to operating system and various

user jobs. Memory protection is done by the instruction in one partition can not

modify the other partitions. What are advantages and difficulties of such

protection mechanism? [10+6]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical

Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Explain the different views of operating system with respect to system [8+8]

programmer, application programmer, system administrator and novice user.

(b) List the major features of the following operating systems:

i) client-server

ii) Real time

2. (a) What is the difference between user level threads and kernel level threads? List

out the advantages and disadvantages of each.

(b) Consider the following set of processes with their arrival times and burst times

Process Arrival time Burst time

A 0 10

B 2 6

C 10 4

D 12 8

E 15 5

The system uses dual core processor and at most two processes can be in running

state at any time. Draw Gantt chart using FCFS scheduling. What is the CPU

utilization and average turnaround time? [8+8]

3. A barbershop consists of a waiting room with n chairs and the barber room containing

the barber chair. If there are no customers to be served, the barber goes to sleep. If

customer enters the barber shop and all chairs are occupied, then the customer leaves

the shop. If the barber is busy but chairs are available, then the customer sits in one of

free chairs. If barber is asleep, the customer wakes up the barber. Write a program to

coordinate the barber and customer. [16]

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4. (a) List and explain briefly the most common techniques for structuring page tables.

(b) Given memory partitions of 600KB,300KB, 100KB,800KB and 200KB(in order),

how could each of first-fit, best-fit, worst-fit algorithms place processes of 1

50KB, 350KB, 80KB,450KB,350KB(in order)? Which algorithm makes most

efficient use of memory? [8+8]

5. Describe the ways of process-interaction based on the degree of awareness? [16]

6. (a) Discuss various strategies for free space management on disk along with their

merits and demerits.

(b) Explain the contents of super block in UNIX file system. [8+8]

7. (a) List out various times associated with Disk access. Which time is considered by

disk scheduling algorithms? Why?

(b) What is a stable storage? Give a method to implement stable storage. [8+8]

8. (a) Differentiate between protection and security. [8+8]

(b) What constitutes an intru?

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical

Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What are advantages of the layered approach to system design? What are its

disadvantages? Explain the various layers in any of known operating system.

(b) What is meant by booting? List the sequence of operations performed during

booting time. [8+8]

2. Explain dining philosopher’s problem. Write solution to dining philosophers

problem using semaphores. What are the problems associated with your solution?

Suggest remedies to overcome these problems. [16]

3. (a) List and explain design issues associated with thread implementation.

(b) Consider the following set of processes with CPU burst time and arrival time:

Process Arrival Time Burst time

A 0 4

B 2 2

C 4 5

D 6 3

What is the average turnaround time and average waiting time for these processes

with

i) FCFS and

ii) SJF scheduling?

Draw corresponding Gantt charts. [8+8]

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4. (a) What is meant by memory fragmentation? Differentiate between external and

internal fragmentations. Which memory allocation strategies create external

fragmentation and which creates internal fragmentation?

(b) A process references five pages 1,2,3,4 and 5 in the following order:

1,2,3,4,1,2,5,1,2,3,4,5

Assume that the replacement algorithm is first-in and first-out and find the

number of page faults during this sequence of references starting empty main

memory with three page frames. [8+8]

5. Write a bounded-buffer monitor in which the buffer are embedded within the

Monitor itself . [16]

6. (a) Discuss various file allocation strategies along with their merits and demerits.

(b) What is i-node in UNIX? What are its contents? [8+8]

7. (a) What is a swap space? How Swap space is managed in UNIX? [8+8]

(b) Suppose that a disk drive has 2000 cylinders, numbered 0 to 1999. The drive is

currently serving a request at cylinder 150 and previous request was at cylinder

200. The queue of pending requests in FIFO order is

80,1500,900,1800,1000,1200,200,1700

Starting from the current head position, What is the total distance that satisfy all

the pending requests for each of following disk scheduling algorithms?

i) SSTF

ii) ii) LOOK

8. (a) What are the main differences between capability lists and access lists?

(b) Write short notes about password authentication and its threats [8+8]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

MICRO CONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) How does 8051 differentiate between the external and internal program memory? And

how do you program internal interrupts in 8051.

(b) Write a program to find out the number of even and odd numbers from a given series

of 16-bit hexadecimal numbers.

2. Give flag settings of the following instructions

i. ADDC

ii. RRC

iii. SETBC

iv. POP

3. (a) Explain the interrupt handling structure of an MCU.

(b) Briefly explain how to determine the interrupt source by polling.

4. Write about the programmable timers in MCU’s

5. (a) Describe the interfacing to high power measuring instruments?

(b) Write about prototype MCU based measuring instruments

6. Explain briefly about the software development tools for microcontrollers?

7. (a) what are the interrupt sources for synchronous serial transmission and reception in

80196?

(b) What are the instruments of 16 bit microcontrollers? Explain them

8. (a). Write about ARM architecture and organization

(b). Explain the various modes of ARM.

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

MICRO CONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Differentiate between synchronous and asynchronous serial communication

interrupts.

(b) Explain the timer modes of operation of 8051 in detail.

2. Give flag settings of the following instructions

i) XCH

ii) CLR

iii) ORL

iv) ANL

v)

3. (a) List out the interrupt system specifications.

(b) Of the interrupt and polling methods, which one avoids tying down the

microcontroller?

4. (a) What are density constraints? Explain them.

(b) what is interrupt interval? Discuss various MCU based measuring instruments in

detail.

5. (a) Explain with a neat sketch how push button and LED can be connected to 8051.

(b) Discuss about analog output interfacing in high power devices?

6. (a) What is RTX51 or RTOS of keil?

(b) What are the various mutex management functions call in RTOS.

7. (a) what are IOCO and IOSO register for timer 1in 80196.

(b) What are the instructions of 16 bit micro controllers/ explain the timing diagram?

8. (a) What are different development tools? Briefly explain them.

(b). Explain about 16/32 bit processors?

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

MICRO CONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Enlist the salient features of 8051 family of microcontrollers.

(b) Write a program for the addition of a series of 8-bit numbers. The series contains

100(numbers)

2. Write short notes on the following:

i. DIRECTIVES

ii. Conditional calls

iii. ROM address space for 8051

3. Discuss about the following terms

i. Vector interrupt table and look up table

ii. Interrupt service routines and subroutines

4. Explain about various timers and counter sin 8051.

5. (a) Describe IEEE488 bus signals and timings.

(b) Discuss about analog input interfacing in high power devices?

6. What is the use of RTOS in design of software developments tools for

microcontrollers? Also give their applications.

7. (a) Write the hardware components of 16 bit microcontrollers.

(b) Write about memory map in Intel 80196 family MCU system?

8. (a)How can we change the PSR contents through instructions in ARM? Explain

different PSR instructions in ARM.

(b). What is a Thumb state?

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

MICRO CONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS

(Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Bio-Medical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Explain the internal architecture of 8051 with a block diagram.

(b) Give any two advantages of microcontroller based system over microprocessor based

systems.

2. (a) Explain the data transfer instructions of 8051 with examples.

(b) Write in detail about the instruction SJMP.

3. Discuss about the following terms

a) Interrupt latency and interrupt dead line

b) Multi sources of interrupts.

4. Write short notes on

a) Free running counter and

b) Real time control.

5. (a) Discuss keyboard cum display controller with a neat sketch.

(b) Explain the interfacing with the flash memory?

6. Write about Real Time operating system?

7. (a) Write about I.O ports of 16 bit microcontrollers with a suitable diagram?

(b) Write about programmable timers and high speed outputs and input captures.

8. (a) How does ARM code is differ from thumb code?

(b) Write about thumb instruction set architecture?

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TELEVISION ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Draw the block diagram of TV system and explain clearly working of the system. [8]

(b) Define [4×2=8]

i) Aspect Ratio

ii) Kell Factor

iii) Resolution

iv) Persistance of Vision

2. (a) Discuss clearly positive & negative modulation

(b) Write in brief about VSB transmission. [8+8]

3. With neat sketch write in detail about VIDICON. [16]

4. (a) Give picture tube characteristics and specifications in detail. [10]

(b) What are the standards of TV and write also about American TV standards and [6]

compare.

5. (a) Draw the block diagram of RF tuner and explain its working. [8+8]

(b) Write about sound section.

6. Write in detail about AGC with relevant circuit diagrams [16]

7. Write in brief about [4x4=16]

(a) PAL-D decoder

(b) Colour burst signal

(c) Seperation of U&V signals

(d) Colour killer circuit

8. Write short notes on the following. [2x8=16]

(a) Sync Seperation.

(b) Digital Satellite TV

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TELEVISION ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. Draw the neat sketch of composite video signal for two alternate black& white lines and

explain each and every part of signal. [16]

2. Draw the block diagram of the two TV transmitting system and explain the concept

clearly. [16]

3. With neat sketch explain the concept , merits and demerits of the camera tube image

Orthicon in detail. [16]

4. (a) Explain Electrostatic focusing. [6]

(b) Write in detail about Monochrome Tube. [10]

5. With neat sketch of the TV receiver explain in detail about its functioning. [16]

6. (a) Write about FM Detector and typical applications. [8+8]

(b) Write about VHF& UHF tuners

7. Write in detail about any two deflection oscillators. [16]

8. Write a short note on [6+6+4]

a) NTSC Colour system

b) Colour signal mixing.

c) Digital TV

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TELEVISION ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1 (a) Define

(a) persistence of vision [4×2=8]

(b) aspect ratio

(c) kell factor

(d) resolution

(b)Write in brief about composite video signal. [8]

2 Write about TV transmitter & transmitting antenna [16]

3 (a) With neat sketch explain the working with merits & demerits of

camera tube (CD image sensor ).

(b) Write about silicon diode array videcon. [8+8]

4 (a) Give details of 525 –line monochrome system

(b) Give working principle of PAL color system. [8+8]

5 Write in detail about IF Sub system video amplifier related to TV receiver [16]

6 (a) Explain any 2 digital tuning technologies. [8]

(b) Write about remote control of receiver functions. [8]

7 Write about the following [4x4=16]

(a) Color burst signal

(b) Color killer circuit

(c) Frequency interleaving

(d) Color mixing

8 Write short notes on the following

(a) PAL encoder [6]

(b) TV standard [6]

(c) Noise in sync pulses [4]

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TELEVISION ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any Five Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. Give all details of composite video signal drawn for a single horizontal black

signal. [16]

2. Write in detail about different TV transmitters [16]

3. Write abut duplexer, diplexer and transmitting antennas. [6+6+4]

4. Discuss in detail about deflection circuits. [16]

5. Write about the following [4×4=16]

i) RF tuner

ii) electron tuner

iii) IF subsystem

iv) sub carrier generator

6. (a) write about VHF and UHF tuners [8]

(b) Frequency interleaving & color burst signal. [8]

7. Draw the neat sketch of PAL –D coder & Decoder & explain their

operation in detail [16]

8. Write a short note on

a) TV receiving antennas. [5]

b) Separation of U &V color phasors [5]

c) Silicon diode array vidicon [6]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. Write a servlet that generates HTML page and explain the process of generation of

HTML page. [16]

2. (a) Explain why JavaScript is called as an object-based programming

language. Also give the advantages of the Object concept in JavaScript. [8+8]

(b) Write a script which simulates the String method indexOf and use it in a script.

3. (a) Explain the basic structure of an XML document and highlight the advantages of

XML over HTML. [8+8]

(b) Explain the usage of the following XSL elements:

(i) apply-templates (ii) attribute

(iii) eval (iv) template

(v) value-of (vi) choose.

4. Take the TickTock Bean available in BDK, build an application which controls the

Colors Bean. Develop the necessary code to exhibit the bound properties of java beans

with the above mentioned beans. [16]

5. Discuss the following.

(a) Tomcat web server (b) Servlet

(c) Cookies (d) Session tracking. [16]

6. (a) What is a web container? How a JSP page is converted to a servlet?

(b) Discuss the following in short

i) JSP ii) JSP elements iii) JSTL [8+8]

7. (a) Discuss debugging of JSP application.

(b) Explain installation of JSP page in Tomcat. [8+8]

8. (a) Explain the characteristics of javabeans.

(b) Write about the DataSource interface. [8+8]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Describe the scoping rules for the JavaScript with examples.

(b) Discuss the advantages of CSS. [8+8]

2. (a) Define Dynamic HTML. Elaborate in what way is Dynamic HTML different

from HTML.

(b) Write a JavaScript that reads an integer and determines and displays

whether it is an odd or even number. [8+8]

3. Briefly explain DOM and SAX XML Parsers with neat examples. [16]

4. (a) Explain the following given interfaces and their usage:

i. AppletInitializer

ii. BeanInfo

iii. Customizer

iv. DesignMode.

(b) Explain the highlighting features of java bean. [8+8]

5. (a) What is BeanInfo Interface? Explain the importance of a BeanInfor

Interface.

(b) Create a simple code which utilizes the BeanInfo interface

effectively. [8+8]

6. (a) Discuss the two phases of JSP processing with suitable diagram.

(b) Explain the following JSP elements.

(i) Directive elements

(ii) Standard action elements

(iii) Scripting elements. [8+8]

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7. (a) Discuss Expression language syntax errors.

(b) Explain the following with example.

(i) Expression element.

(ii) Declaration element. [8+8]

8. (a) Write a note on Custom-tag libraries.

(b) Discuss about usage of JavaBean Component in JSP. [8+8]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Define Dynamic HTML. Elaborate in what way is Dynamic HTML

different from HTML.

(b) Write a javascript which must have a paragraph of at least 10 lines of text that

describes your college. The paragraph must be centered on the page and have only

20 characters per line. A light gray image of your college must be superimposed

over the center of the text as a nested element. [8+8]

2. (a) Create a form for the super market bill which includes controls like checkboxes,

radio buttons, border, submit button and reset button.

(b) What is CSS? Explain with an example to clearly illustrate the creation of CSS

rule for a given text. [8+8]

3. (a) Explain the following terms related to XML:

(i) XML parsing

(ii) XML browsers

(iii) XML editors

(b) Show how SAX is an alternative method for parsing XML

documents. Also give the advantages of SAX. [8+8]

4. (a) What is a BeanBox? Write the about BeanBox.

(b) Demonstrate with a suitable example the connecting of beans with

events in the BeanBox. [8+8]

5. (a) List and describe the interfaces provided in javax.servlet package.

(b) List and describe the classes provided in javax.servlet.http package. [8+8]

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6. What is Tomcat server? How to install the Tomcat server? How it is

started and stopped? How the application can be installed for Tomcat? [16]

7. (a) Explain page, request, session and application scopes with example.

(b) How to keep the memory requirement under control in JSP applications? [8+8]

8. (a) What is a database driver? Explain Type 3 driver in detail.

(b) Explain how to deploy java beans in JSP page. [8+8]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. Write a servlet that generates HTML page and explain the process of generation of

HTML page. [16]

2. (a) Describe the primitive data types that JavaScript uses.

(b) Write a script that reads an integer and determines and displays whether it is an

odd or even number. [8+8]

3. Design an XML schema for hospital information management. Include every feature

available with schema. [16]

4. (a) What is BeanInfo Interface? Explain the importance of a BeanInfor Interface.

(b) Create a simple code which utilizes the BeanInfo interface effectively. [8+8]

5. Discuss the use of cookie. Develop and explain a servlet that illustrate the use of

cookies. [16]

6. (a) What is MVC model? Why to use this model with JSP?

(b) Explain about JSP page translation and processing phases. [8+8]

7. (a) What is the purpose of prefix in element name?

(b) What are the operators provided in Expression language?

(c) What are Implicit JSP objects? [5+5+6]

8. What is struts framework? Explain the collection of java libraries provided by Struts

framework. [16]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TRANSPORT PHENOMENA

(Chemical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) What is transport phenomena? Write the Newton’s law of viscosity, Fourier’s law of

heat conduction and Ficks law of diusivity and explain why these three laws can be

considered analogous [8]

(b) Discuss Briefly the Viscosity and the Mechanism of Momentum transfer [8]

2. A furnace wall made up of steel plate 1 cm thick is lined inside with silica brick 15 cm

thick and on the outside with magnesite brick 15 cm thick. The temperature on inside edge

of the wall is 700 0C and on the outside is 15

0C. Find the quantity of heat passed in kcal

per hour per m2 and the temperature at the interface of the steel wall and the magnesite

brick. It is required to reduce the heat flow to 1000 kcal/hr-m2 by means of air gap between

steel plate and magnesite brick. Estimate the width of this air gap. Thermal conductivities

in kcal/ hr-m-0C are 14.5, 1.4, 4.5 and 0.029 respectively for steel, silica brick, magnesite

brick and air [16]

3. Prove the following relations

(a) )(*

BAAAA NNxNJ +−=

(b) )()(*vvxvvxvv BBAA −+−=− [8+8]

4. Derive the Expression for Maximum velocity vz,max and Average velocity <vz> for flow of

a falling film case ( flow of a viscous isothermal liquid film under the influence of gravity

with no rippling) using shell momentum balance. End effects can be neglected and Assume

any if necessary [16]

5. Two vertical plates are spaced 6mm apart. One is maintained at 1000C and the other at

200C. Air is flowing between plates at a pressure of 1atmosphere and you may assume that

the volumetric flow of upward moving stream is same as that of downward moving stream.

Evaluate average velocity of air if = 2 × 10-6

poise. [16]

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6. A dimerization reaction 2A A2 is being carried in a catalytic reactor. Assume that a

diffusional resistance lies in the stagnant gas film of thickness and surrounding the catalyst

surface. Derive an expression for the local rate of conversion of A to A2 where the reaction

is instantaneous. [16]

7. A solid material occupying the space from y=0 to y= is initially at temperature T0. At

time t=0, the surface at y=0 is suddenly raised to temperature T1 and maintained at

that temperature for t>0. Find the time-dependent temperature profiles T(y, t). [16]

8. (a) Briefly Explain the energy equation for non-isothermal systems

(b) Write the equation of Continuity for Multi component mixtures? Explain the

importance of Equation of Continuity briefly [8+8]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TRANSPORT PHENOMENA

(Chemical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) What do you understand by Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluids. Give a

broad classification of Non-Newtonian fluids

(b) What is transport phenomena? Write the Newton’s law of viscosity, Fouriers law of

heat conduction and Ficks law of diusivity and explain why these three laws can be

considered analogous. [8+8]

2. (a) What is the order of magnitude of the thermal conductivity for gases, liquids, and

solids at room temperature and 1 atm pressure? Why it vary? Explain

(b) How is thermal diffusivity defined? What are its units? Explain the theory of thermal

conductivity of liquids

(c) Would you expect wood to have the same thermal conductivity in all three directions?

Explain [4+8+4]

3. (a) Describe the diffusion phenomenon with an example. Define the terms mass

concentration, molar concentration, mass fraction and mole fraction with symbols.

(b) A gas mixture contains 50% of H2 and 50% of O2 by volume. The absolute velocity of

the species is -10 m/s and 12 m/s, respectively. What is the mass average velocity if

total concentration of gas is 0.6 kmol/m3. [8+8]

4. Derive the Expression for Maximum velocity vz,max and Average velocity <vz> for flow in

a Cylindrical tube case ( the laminar flow of fluids in Circular tubes) using shell

momentum balance. End effects can be neglected and Assume necessary if any. [16]

5. A circular fin of thickness B is fitted on a circular pipe of radius R0. The wall temperature

of the pipe is T0 and that of ambient is Ta. The radius of the circular fin is R1. Neglecting

the heat loss from the edge, obtain a differential equation to predict temperature profile T

(r) in the fin. Use shell energy balance. Assume necessary if any.

[16]

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6. Obtain an expression for concentration profile in a simple system of diffusion (gas-liquid)

with homogeneous chemical reaction. [16]

7. (a) Derive the equation of continuity considering spherical co-ordinates. [8]

(b) Reduce the equation for incompressible fluids. [8]

8. Explain the following theories:

(a) Bonssinesq’s eddy viscosity

(b) Prandtl’s Mixing length

(c) Von Karman’s similarity Hypothesis. [6+6+4]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TRANSPORT PHENOMENA

(Chemical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) What is transport phenomena? Write the Newton’s law of viscosity, Fouriers law of

heat conduction and Ficks law of diffusivity and explain why these three laws can be

considered analogous.

(b) A flat plate 15 m long has an edge facing the flow direction. Air is flowing over the

plate at 1000 cm/s. The air properties are = 1.32 gm/lit. and = 0.018 cp. Calculate

the boundary layer thickness at 125 cm from the leading edge. [8+8]

2. A furnace wall made up of steel plate 1 cm thick is lined on inside with silica brick 15 cm

thick and on the outside with magnesite brick 15 cm thick. The temperature on inside edge of

the wall is 700 0C and on the outside is 15

0C. Find the quantity of heat passed in kcal per

hour per m2 and the temperature at the interface of the steel wall and the magnesite brick. It is

required to reduce the heat flow to 1000 kcal/hr-m2 by means of air gap between steel plate

and magnesite brick. Estimate the width of this air gap. Thermal conductivities in kcal/ hr-m-0C are 14.5, 1.4, 4.5 and 0.029 respectively for steel, silica brick, magnesite brick and air

[16]

3. (a) How are the fluxes *

iJ and Ni related in an n-component system

(b) Show that sum of the fluxes *

iJ is zero [8+8]

4. Derive Buckingham-Reiner Equation for flow of a Bingham fluid in a Circular tube using

shell momentum balance. End effects can be neglected. Assume any if necessary [16]

5. An oil acts as lubricant between two cylindrical surfaces. The outer cylinder has a radius of

0.05m and rotates at 9000rpm.The clearance between the two cylinders is 0.025cm. Find

out the maximum temperature in the oil bath if the both wall temperatures are kept at 700

C.

The properties of oil may be taken as follows. =0.95poise,K=0.023 J/s-cm0C,

=1220Kg/m3. [16]

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6. Obtain an expression for concentration profile in a simple system of diffusion (gas-liquid)

with homogeneous chemical reaction. [16]

7. Consider an isothermal incompressible fluid flowing radially between two concentric

spherical shells. Assume steady state laminar flow. Velocity is a function of the radius of

the sphere only. Note that the velocity is not zero at the solid surfaces.

(a) Obtain a dirential equation using the equation of motion.

(b) Solve the above equation and find the radial pressure distribution along the radius of

the pipe [8+8]

8. Explain the following theories:

(a) Bonssinesq’s eddy viscosity

(b) Prandtl’s Mixing length

(c) Von Karman’s similarity Hypothesis. [6+4+6]

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

TRANSPORT PHENOMENA

(Chemical Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

1. What are the various representative models used to express the steady state relation

between yxτ anddy

dvx ? Write the equations and define the terms used? [16]

2. Write the equations for the prediction of thermal conductivity of a monoatomic gas,

mixture of gases and liquids and explain in detail. [8+8]

3. Prove the following relations

(a) )(*

B

B

A

AAAA nM

MnxnJ +−=

(b) )()( ***vvvvvv BBAA −+−=− ωω [8+8]

4. Derive Expression for temperature profiles for heat conduction with a Nuclear heat source

case (Fig-1) where a nuclear fuel element of spherical from (a fissionable material with

radius )(FR ). Surrounded by a spherical shell of Aluminium “cladding” with outer

radius )(CR . The volume source of thermal energy resulting from nuclear fission will be

+=

2

)(0n .1SFn

R

rbS cal / cm

3 sec [16]

Fig-1

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5. Two vertical plates are spaced 6mm apart. One is maintained at 1000C and the other at

200C. Air is flowing between plates at a pressure of 1atmosphere and you may assume that

the volumetric flow of upward moving stream is same as that of downward moving stream.

Evaluate average velocity of air if = 2 × 10−6

poise. [16]

6. Using a shell balance technique derive an expression for mass transfer when a liquid

is evaporating into stagnant gas film at steady state. [16]

7. A liquid of constant density and viscosity is in a cylindrical container of radius R. The

container is caused to rotate about its own axis at an angular velocity . The cylinder axis

is vertical. Find the shape of the free surface when steady state has been established. [16]

8. Derive Equation of Energy for Non isothermal system [16]

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Code No: N1022/R07 Set No. 1

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010POWER PLANT INSTRUMENTATION

( Common to ICE/EIE)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Explain the importance of instrumentation in hydroelectric power plant. [16]

2. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Two wattmeter method of measuring three phase power.

(b) Sources of error in electrodynamometer wattmeter. [16]

3. Explain in detail how driving pressure calculation is made in a down comer risersystem. [16]

4. Compare & contrast various types of boilers used in power plants? [16]

5. Explain the different types of pulverizers used in power plants? Discuss its meritsand demerits? [16]

6. Discuss in detail the principle of Gland steam exhaust pressure control with neatsketches. [16]

7. Write in detail about Hydrogen purity meter with its function and applications inpower plants? [16]

8. Discuss in detail the method of monitoring SO2 and CO present in flue gases withneat sketches? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: N1022/R07 Set No. 2

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010POWER PLANT INSTRUMENTATION

( Common to ICE/EIE)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Explain the differences between conventional sources and Non-conventional sourcesof energy. [16]

2. With a neat diagram explain the principle of operation of a single phase electro-dynamometer type of Power factor meter. Sketch the phasor diagram, mention itsadvantages. [16]

3. Explain in detail how steam pressure is measured in power plant. What are thesources of error and how compensation can be provided? [16]

4. Why drum pressure is to be monitored? Explain the methods of drum pressuremeasurement in detail. What factors govern the choice of pressure sensor? [16]

5. Describe with a neat sketch, the principle and constructional details of B.F.P re-circulation control? [16]

6. Explain in detail the role of Lubricating oil temperature control in turbine moni-toring? [16]

7. Write short notes on:

(a) Thermal conductivity Analyzers

(b) Magnetic wind type oxygen Analyzer. [8+8]

8. Discuss in detail the method of monitoring Hydro carbons and Oxidants present influe gases with neat sketches? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: N1022/R07 Set No. 3

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010POWER PLANT INSTRUMENTATION

( Common to ICE/EIE)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. What is the basic principle involved in Solar power generation? Explain in detail.[16]

2. Explain briefly

(a) Wien bridge circuit for the measurement of frequency.

(b) Principle of operation of electrical resonance type frequency meter. [16]

3. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Flow of feed water measurement.

(b) Smoke Density Meter. [16]

4. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Super Heaters

(b) Re-heaters

(c) Dustinction between Super Heaters & Re-heaters. [16]

5. How is Gas recirculation controls used in power plants? Explain in detail? [16]

6. Write a short account of the measuring devices used for turbine supervisory control,and Explain how the turbine is protected against over speed? [16]

7. Write in detail about Hydrogen purity meter with its function and applications inpower plants? [16]

8. Describe the principle of liquid chromatography? Explain with schematic diagram?[16]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: N1022/R07 Set No. 4

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010POWER PLANT INSTRUMENTATION

( Common to ICE/EIE)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Explain the importance of instrumentation in a geothermal power plant. [16]

2. Convert a galvanometer of 1ma full scale deflection into a voltmeter of range 10V.The internal impedance of the meter Rm=100Ω. [16]

3. What are the non electrical parameters that are to be monitored in power plantsand briefly explain any two of them? [16]

4. With the help of neat sketch explain the working of fire tube boiler. [16]

5. Explain in detail with neat sketches Hotwell and Deaerator level column controlsystems used in power plants? [16]

6. What is the importance of instrumentation in turbine plant. Explain? [16]

7. Differentiate and explain in detail the thermal conductive oxygen analyzer withthat of paramagnetic oxygen analyzer? [16]

8. What is the basic principle behind the construction of a pH meter and explain theworking of it, in detail with relevant diagrams? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL SYSTEMS

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What is information retrieval system? Explain about various types of information

retrieval systems

(b) Explain about Digital libraries and data warehouses

2. (a) Discuss about:

(i) Natural language queries (ii) Multimedia Queries

(b) Explain about Thesaurus? Explain detail various Thesaururs

3. (a) What is a precoordination? How it is different from linkages?

(b) Explain difference between the precoordination and postcoordination?

4. Write a short note on

(a) Porter Algorithm

(b) N-Gram Architecture

(c) Signature File Structure

5. (a) Explain the data flow in an information processing system.

(b) Explain about the Probabilistic Weighting with an example.

6. List out the various techniques in Automatic Term Clustering. Explain them.

7. Write short notes on

(a) Weighted Searches of Boolean Systems

(b) Similarity measures

(c) Ranking Algorithms

8. List out differences between Boyer-Moore Algorithm and Knuth-Pratt Algorithm.

Explain.

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL SYSTEMS

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. Write a short notes on following

(a) Image Retrieval information systems

(b) Private index file

(c) Selective Dissemination of Information

(d) Precision and Recall

2. What is a Browse capability? Explain about various Browse capabilities.

3. (a) What is information extraction? Explain its concepts.

(b) Explain about the prec oordination and postcoordinaton?

4. (a) Explain about the Inverted File Structure

(b) Explain about the PAT Data Structure

5. (a) Briefly explain the Baysean Model

(b) Describe the problems with Weighting Schemes and Vector Model

6. Explain difference between the Manual Clustering and Automatic Clustering with

suitable example.

7. (a) Describe the need for Information Visualization.

(b) What are the main aspects of human visualization process? Explain

8. Write a short notes on

(a) Precision

(b) TURR

(c) GESCAN Text Array Processor

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL SYSTEMS

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What are the main objectives of the information retrieval systems

(b) Explain about index database search and Document database search

2. Write a short notes on

(a) Ranking (b) Thesaururs

(c) Fuzzy Searches (d) Proximity

3. (a) Write different types indexing process? Discuss about different mechanisms

used in the process of Multimedia Indexing.

(b) Explain the concept of catalogs.

4. (a) Define S1 string. Explain it with an example.

(b) Hyper Text Structure and XML

5. (a) Explain about the Classes of Automatic Indexing

(b) Explain about the Simple Term Frequency Algorithm

6. Explain the following

(a) Item Clustering

(b) Hierarchy of Clusters

7. List out Information Visualization Technologies. Explain each one, with examples

8. Explain following algorithms with suitable examples

(a) Boyer-Moore Algorithm

(b) Knuth-Pratt Algorithm

(c) Aho-Corasick Algorithm

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL SYSTEMS

(Computer Science & Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Explain how the Information Retrieval System is related to Database

Management system.

(b) Explain major functional processes of the information retrieval systems

2. (a) Explain Searching capabilities? Explain about various Search capabilities

(b) Explain the following Browsing capabilities

(i) Vocabulary

(ii) Ranking

(iii) Canned Query

(iv) Multimedia

3. Write short notes on

(a) Multimedia Indexing

(b) Indexing by concept

(c) Indexing by Term

4. (a) Explain about the Stemming Process.

(b) Discuss deference between the Dictionary Look-up Stemmers and Successor

Stemmers

5. Write short notes on

(a) Index Phrase Generation

(b) Natural Language Processing

(c) Signal weighting

(d) Inverse Document Frequency

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6. (a) Explain Clustering using Existing Clusters with suitable example

(b) Discuss about the Item Clustering

7. Explain about the Selective Dissemination of Information Search, with examples.

8. Explain about the Software Text Search Algorithms and Hardware Text Search System.

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION SECURITY

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) List out the components of an Information Security System. Explain about the same.

(b) How is packet blocking and route table modification is done as part of TCP session

hijacking?

2. (a) What is the difference between link and end-to-end encryption?

(b) Differentiate MAC and Hash function. Discuss the basic uses of hash function.

3. (a) What requirements are not satisfied by version 2 of X.509. How version 3 address

all these?

(b) Explain how a signature is signed and verified in Digital Signature Algorithm(DSA)?

4. (a) Write the steps in creating a signed data MIME entity. Give an example

(b) Explain with an example about “Multipart/alternative subtype” of MIME.

5. (a) How does anti replay window determine whether an inbound AH or ESP packet is a

replay or not?

(b) What is a Security Association? What are the different approaches in bundling SA’s?

6. What are the business requirements for SET? What actions are performed after the

merchant receives the purchase request message? Explain with a diagram.

7. (a) Explain how proxy accommodates devices that do not implement SNMP?

(b) Discuss SNMPV1 administrative concepts.

8. (a) List and briefly define four techniques used to avoid guessable passwords

(b) Explain how the behavior of an intruder can be found? In to what categories are

intruders classified into?

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION SECURITY

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What is cryptography? Discuss the authentication models used in cryptography.

(b) What are stack based buffer overflows? How does the attacker exploit stack

overflow?

2. (a) How is key distribution done? Explain briefly.

(b) Explain the various steps involved in the HMAC algorithm

3. (a) Illustrate with an example the process involved in RSA algorithm

(b) Describe the properties of Digital Signatures.

4. (a) Explain how PGP message generation is done with a neat diagram?

(b) In PGP scheme, how many types of keys are used? What are they? How are they

stored?

5. (a) Distinguish between the two modes of IPSec.

(b) Define ESP and explain the security services it provides.

6. What is a session? What are the steps followed by communication peers in a session?

Describe the messages realized by the above steps in SSL Handshake Protocol.

7. (a) Give the architecture of Network Management protocol. Illustrate the protocol context

of SNMP.

(b) What is a proxy? Give the protocol architecture of a proxy.

8. (a) Explain about packet filtering router. Mention some packet filtering rules that are

based on information contained in the network packet.

(b) List the weakness of packet filtering router.

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION SECURITY

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) List out the different Attacks caused in the security. Explain any 6.

(b) What are the tools available for session hijacking? Explain briefly how they work?

2. (a) Describe HMAC algorithm with neat diagram. What are its benefits over other hash

algorithms?

(b) State the job of key Distribution Centre in Public Key Cryptography

3. Describe the authentication dialogue used by Kerberos for obtaining required services.

Compare and contrast Kerberos version3

4. (a) What is S/MIME? Explain the different header fields included in S/MIME.

(b) How does the recipient know which of its public key was used to encrypt session key?

5. (a) List the different fields of Authentication Header. Describe the scope of

authentication in Tunnel mode and transport mode.

(b) Write about the features of ISAKMP.

6. (a) What is a dual signature and what is its purpose? How is it constructed?

(b) List and give the purpose of four protocols in SSL.

7. (a) Describe the SNMP operations GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetRequest with

Indices with examples.

(b) Discuss the functional enhancements that have been made in SNMP v2.

8. (a)What is a firewall? List the characteristics of a good firewall implementation.

(b) What is the use of audit record in intrusion detection?

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

INFORMATION SECURITY

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) What is repudiation? How can it be prevented in real life?

(b) Describe about execute payload for preventing stack dumping.

2. (a) What are the approaches to message authentications? Describe briefly about the same.

(b) Explain cipher Block chaining mode with a diagram.

3. (a) Using RSA scheme, let p=809, q=751 and d=23. Calculate the public key e.

(b) List the security services provided by a digital signature. Compare and contrast a

conventional signature and a digital signature.

4. (a) Illustrate with a neat diagram the steps in extracting the information at the receiver

site in PGP.

(b) What is meant by transfer encoding? Explain MIME transfer Encodings.

5. (a) List the ISAKMP payload types and the purpose of each type.

(b) Give the architecture of IPSec. Write the applications of IPSec.

6. What are the features of SET? Show diagrammatically how the customer makes a

purchase request to the merchant.

7. What are the key elements of SNMP model? What is the relationship among the different

versions of SNMP? Mention a few drawbacks of SNMP protocols with respect to

network security.

8. (a) What are two default policies that can be taken in a packet filter if there is no match

to any rule? Which is more conservative? Explain with example rule sets both the

policies?

b) What are false negatives and false positives?

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Take any real world software as example and explain the following terms on that

software. Time to learn, Speed of performance, Rate of errors by users, Retention

over time and subjective satisfaction?

(b) Explain the need to balance automation and human factors. Explain about the

computer’s ability to interface with humans. [8+8]

2. (a) Briefly describe about advantages and disadvantages of graphical user interface.

Explain the design goals in creating a user interface.

(b) What are the principles established those become foundation for graphical

interfaces. [8+8]

3. (a) Explain about design commandments that remain foremost in the development

process.

(b) Give OAI model explanation of direct manipulation? [8+8]

4. (a) Explain about the properties that provide a visually or aesthetically pleasing

composition possessing.

(b) Explain briefly about guidelines in design of webpage controls. [8+8]

5. (a) Explain in detail about the contents of menus. From the user’s perspective, what

are the functions that can be performed by menus?

(b) List and explain about structuring of menus in detail. [8+8]

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6. (a) In presentation styles what is the role of error messages? Explain about readability

guidelines for messages.

(b) What is meant by color? Give characteristics. Discuss and elaborate the issues to

be considered in choosing colors for web pages. [8+8]

7. (a) Explain about the specification methods of software tools.

(b) Describe the factors in choosing any user interface building tools? [8+8]

8. (a) What are the indirect control pointing devices? Compare pointing devices?

(b) Explain in detail different types of pointing devices. Explain its operation. [8+8]

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Define user interface? What is the importance of good design? Mention the

benefits of good design.

(b) Explain about the history of screen design with the help of figures. [8+8]

2. (a) List and explain the characteristics of direct manipulation systems.

(b) Is it feasible that direct manipulation of all screen objects and actions in practice?

If not possible what are the reasons behind that? If possible mention the reasons.

[8+8]

3. (a) Discuss in detail about Common Usability Problems

(b) Give guidelines for designing conceptual models. [8+8]

4. (a)Explain in detail about Web User Interaction Styles.

(b) Explain uses and components of statistical Graphs. [8+8]

5. (a) Explain about website navigation. What are the problems encountered in website

navigation.

(b) Explain different kinds of links in detail. [8+8]

6. (a) Explain about Message Box Controls

(b) Explain physiology of human eye. [8+8]

7. (a) Describe the factors in choosing any user interface building tools.

(b) Explain about the specification methods of software tools. [8+8]

8. (a) Explain important types of display devices and also the features of VDU.

(b) Discuss in detail about key board and functional keys. [8+8]

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Define the user interface in detail. State the importance of good design.

(b) What is the importance of user interface? What are the characteristics of good

Graphical user interface? [8+8]

2. (a) Compare and contrast GUI Vs web design. Explain how expert reviews help in

designing and developing?

(b) Explain about the characteristics of graphical user interface.Explain the role of

usability testing in user interface design? [8+8]

3. (a) Elaborate the indirect methods that can be used for capturing the information for

determining requirements.

(b) Discuss about the User’s Psychological Characteristics briefly. [8+8]

4. (a) Explain about Organization and Structure Guidelines in designing screens.

(b) Briefly give guidelines for data entry and also for data display. [8+8]

5. (a) Discuss about Components of a Web Navigation System

(b) Explain Microsoft window types and also their components. What is the

coordination by tightly coupled windows. [8+8]

6. (a) Describe in detail different kinds of messages

(b) Write in detail about presenting and Writing Text. [8+8]

7. (a) What is use of interface building tools and explain their features?

(b) Explain about evaluation and critiquing tools in detail. [8+8]

8. Explain speech recognition, Digitization and generation in detail. [16]

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JNTUWORLD

IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

HUMAN COMPUTER INTERACTION

(Information Technology)

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Explain about the impact of inefficient Screen Design on Processing Time

(b) Explain about the computer’s ability to interface with humans. [8+8]

2. (a) Explain about characteristics of an Intranet versus the Internet

(b) Explain advantages and disadvantages of different interactive styles. [8+8]

3. (a) Explain in detail about understanding business junctions.

(b) Explain briefly about the human considerations in the design of business systems.

[8+8]

4. (a) Explain different Types of Statistical Graphics.

(b) Explain briefly about guidelines in design of webpage controls. [8+8]

5. (a) Define menu. Discuss in detail different structures of menus in detail.

(b) Explain about the way in which links aggravate the user. [8+8]

6. (a) Purpose the guidelines for choosing proper words, sentences, messages to present

on the screen.

(b) Briefly explain Microsoft recommendations for message box. [8+8]

7. (a) Explain about evaluation and critiquing tools in detail.

(b) Describe the factors in choosing any user interface building tools. [8+8]

8. (a) What is Fitt’s Law and also explain its significance.

(b) What are novel pointing devices? Explain in detail. [8+8]

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Code No: M1922/R07 Set No. 1

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010AUTOMATA AND COMPILER DESIGN

(Electronics & Computer Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) What are the closure properties of Regular sets? Explain.

(b) Briefly explain the logical phases of a compiler model. [8+8]

2. (a) Draw the parse tree for the production grammar: S → (S) |S ⊃ S| ∼ S |i| j,generating the symbolic formula ( ∼ ∼ i ⊃ (i ⊃ ∼ ∼ j)).

(b) Find the language generated by the following grammar:

i. S → aS |bA

ii. A → d |ccA. [8+8]

3. (a) What is meant by a parser generator? Illustrate with examples using YACC.

(b) How are ambiguities resolved in YACC? [10+6]

4. Translate the executable statements of the following ‘C’ program into a three-address code by assuming each element of an array ‘a’ takes 4 bytes. [16]void main()

int i = 1, a[10];while(i++ < = 10)a[i] = 0;

5. Explain the following:

(a) Type System

(b) Static and Dynamic Checking of types

(c) Over loading of Operators & Functions. [4+6+6]

6. Write and Explain about algorithm for construction of equivalence trees? [16]

7. Explain about Iterative solution of Data-Flow Equations. [16]

8. Explain briefly about:

(a) Register descriptor

(b) Address descriptor

(c) Function getreg. [5+5+6]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: M1922/R07 Set No. 2

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010AUTOMATA AND COMPILER DESIGN

(Electronics & Computer Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) What are the closure properties of Regular sets? Explain.

(b) Briefly explain the logical phases of a compiler model. [8+8]

2. (a) What is a recursive grammar? Explain.

(b) Consider the following recursive grammar:

i. S → Aa |b

ii. A → Ac |SdWhat is an equivalent grammar when the left recursion is removed? [6+10]

3. Consider the following grammar:E → E + T |TT → T ∗ F |FF → (E) |a

(a) Construct the SLR parse table.

(b) Find the moves made by the parser on the input string: a + a * a. [10+6]

4. Translate the executable statements of the following ‘C’ program into a three-address code by assuming each element of an array ‘a’ takes 4 bytes. [16]void main()

int i = 1, a[10];while(i++ < = 10)a[i] = 0;

5. (a) Discuss about the overloading of functions and operators with an example?

(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Name equivalence? Explainwith examples? [8+8]

6. Write and Explain about Symbol Table Organization? [16]

7. (a) Write and explain about Data-Flow Analysis of Structured Programs.

(b) Write about Conservative Estimation of Data-Flow Information. [8+8]

8. Explain briefly about:

(a) Register descriptor

(b) Address descriptor

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Code No: M1922/R07 Set No. 2

(c) Function getreg. [5+5+6]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: M1922/R07 Set No. 3

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010AUTOMATA AND COMPILER DESIGN

(Electronics & Computer Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) Design a DFA that accepts the language over the alphabet, Σ = 0, 1, 2where the decimal equivalent of the language is divisible by 3.

(b) Compare compiler and an interpreter with the help of suitable examples. [8+8]

2. (a) What is the time complexity of a parser to parse a string of ‘n’ tokens?

(b) Consider the Grammar: G = (S, A, a, b, S → aAa |bAb| |A, A → SS, S)Find the leftmost derivation, rightmost derivation, and parse tree for thestring: baabbb. [6+10]

3. (a) What are Kernel and Non-kernel items? Explain.

(b) Obtain the Kernel items of the LR(0) parser for the following grammar:A → A′

A′ → aA′ |b . [6+10]

4. Consider the expression: a := b *- c + b * - cConstruct Postfix Form, Abstract Syntax Tree, Quadruples and Triples. [16]

5. (a) what is type Checker? How does it work?

(b) Write short notes on Dynamic and Static type checking? [8+8]

6. (a) What are the contents of a symbol table? Explain in detail?

(b) What is data structure used to implement a symbol table in an efficient way?Give reasons? [8+8]

7. (a) What are du and ud- chains? Explain briefly?

(b) Discuss global optimization techniques? [8+8]

8. Generate code for the following C statements.X = f(a) + f(a) + f(a)X = f(a) / g(b,c)X = f(f(a))X = ++f(a). [4×4]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: M1922/R07 Set No. 4

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010AUTOMATA AND COMPILER DESIGN

(Electronics & Computer Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) Design a DFA that accepts the language over the alphabet, Σ = 0, 1, 2where the decimal equivalent of the language is divisible by 3.

(b) Compare compiler and an interpreter with the help of suitable examples. [8+8]

2. (a) Give the CFG generating the set of palindromes over an alphabet,Σ = a, b.

(b) Consider the following recursive grammar: S → Sa | Sb | a |bObtain an equivalent grammar with NO left recursion. [8+8]

3. Describe the entire bottom up parsing techniques. [16]

4. Generate the three-address code for the following ?C? program fragment:switch(a + b). [16]

case 2: x = y; break;case 5: switch(x)

case 0: a = b + 1; break;case 1: a = b + 3; break;default: a = 2; break;

break;

case 9: x = y - 1; break;default: a = 2; break;

5. Write and explain about equivalence of Type Expressions. [16]

6. (a) Explain how the symbol table space can be reused? Explain through an ex-ample?

(b) Discuss various Symbol table organization techniques? [8+8]

7. Write and Explain about Global common sub expression elimination. [16]

8. Explain all the data structures used for designing the macro pre-processor? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

VIBRATIONS AND STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS

(Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Define the following terms [4]

(i) Degrees of freedom (ii) Resonance

(b) Name the four common types of damping mechanisms used to model vibratory

systems. Explain them briefly. [12]

2. (a) A mass of 2 kg is supported on an isolator having a spring scale of 2940 N/m and

viscous damping. If the amplitude of free vibration of the mass falls to one half its

original value in 1.5 seconds, determine the damping coefficient. [8]

(b) The support of a spring mass is vibrating with an amplitude of 6mm and a

frequency of 1150 cycles/min. If the mass is 0.9 kg and the spring has stiffness

of 2000N/m, determine the amplitude of vibration of the mass. What will be the

amplitude if a damping factor of 0.2 is included in the system? [8]

3. Determine the steady state response of the two masses m1 and m2 shown in Fig. 1. [16]

4. Obtain differential equation of motion for the longitudinal vibration of uniform bars and

find its general solution. [16]

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 1

m1

m2

k3

k2

k1

Fig. 1

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5. A disc of mass 4 Kg is mounted midway between bearings which may be assumed to be

simple supported. The bearing span is 50 cm. The steel shaft which is horizontal is 10mm

in diameter. The C.G. of the disc is displaced 3mm from the geometric centre. The

equivalent viscous damping at the centre of the disc-shaft may be taken as 50 N-sec/m. If

the shaft rotates at 800 r.p.m, find the maximum stress in the shaft. [16]

6. Use the Rayleigh – Ritz method to approximate the two lowest natural frequencies of the

system shown in Fig. 2. [16]

7. For the undamped two degrees of freedom shown in Fig. 3, determine the principal

co-ordinates using modal matrix. x1 and x2 are the general coordinates. [16]

8. (a) Obtain steady state response of a linear undamped single degree of freedom system to

an alternating square wave excitation.

(b) Use the Duhamel’s integral to determine the response of an undamped one degee of

freedom system to the excitation shown in Fig. 4. [8+8]

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 1

2r

L

r

Fig. 2

k k x1 x2

m m

Fig. 3

Fig. 4

to

Fo

2 of 2

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

VIBRATIONS AND STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS

(Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Explain various mechanisms of damping. [10]

(b) Explain the following:

i) Newton’s II law of motion ii) D’Alembert’s principle. [6]

2. (a) A periodic torque having a maximum value of 0.6 N-m at a frequency corresponding

to 4 rad/sec is impressed upon a flywheel suspended from a wire. The wheel has

a moment of inertia of 0.12 Kg-m2 and the wire has a stiffness of 1.2 N-m/rad. A

viscous dashpot applies damping couple of 0.4 N-m at an angular velocity of

1 rad/sec. calculate

i) the maximum angular displacement from the rest position.

ii) the maximum couple applied to dashpot.

iii) the angle by which the angular displacement lags the torque.

(b) Describe the construction and working of a vibrometer. [10+6]

3. A double pendulum of lengths L1 and L2 and masses m1 and m2 is shown in Fig. 1. Use

Lagrange’s equation to derive the equations of motion.

4. Obtain the frequency equation of a beam with one end fixed and other end free and

having transverse vibration. [16]

5. (a) What are different types of unbalance in rotating shaft? Explain? [6]

(b) Define whirling of a rotating shaft. [3]

1 of 2

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 2

1

2

L1

L2 m1

m2

Fig. 1

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(c) A rotor having a mass of 5Kg is mounted midway on a 1cm diameter shaft supported

at the ends by two bearings. The bearing span is 40 cm. The C.G. of the disc is

0.02mm away the geometric centre of the rotor. If the system rotates at 2500 r.p.m,

find the amplitude of steady state vibrations and dynamic force transmitted to the

bearings. Take E = 2x1011

N/m2. Neglect damping. [7]

6. Use Rayleigh – Ritz method to approximate the two lowest natural frequencies of a uniform

fixed-fixed beam. Take as mass density of the beam material; L as length of the beam and

A as cross section area of the beam. [16]

7. A string is stretched with a large tension T between two points and has three point masses

fixed along its length as shown in Fig. 2. The masses can vibrate freely in the lateral

direction.

(a) Determine the flexibility matrix.

(b) Obtain the stiffness matrix using influence coefficients. [8+8]

8. (a) Use Duhamel’s integral to determine the response of an undamped one degree of

freedom system to the triangular pulse shown in Fig. 3

(b) Determine the Fourier representation for the excitation shown in Fig.4 [8+8]

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 2

2 of 2

m m m

a a a a

Fig. 2

to

2

O to

Fo

Fig. 3

t

Fo

to

3

2to

3

to

4to

3 5to

3

2to

Fig. 4

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

VIBRATIONS AND STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS

(Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Differentiate between damped and undamped oscillations. [6]

(b) Write short notes on viscous damping. [5]

(c) Find the amplitude of the sum of the two harmonic motions [5]

x1 = 3cos (2t+1) x2 = 4cos (2t+1.5)

2. (a) Find the natural frequency of oscillations for the system shown in Fig.1. Assume that the

bell crank lever to be light and stiff and the mass ‘m’ to be concentrated. [8]

(b) Calculate the steady state and transient response of the mass shown in Fig. 2 if an

excitation force of 10Sin 15t is acting on the mass. [8]

3. Two equal masses m1 and m2 are attached to a wire with high initial tension as shown in

Fig.3. Determine the principal coordinates of the system. [16]

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 3

b

a m

Fig. 1

kk

m

c

Fig. 2

L L L

m2 m1

y1 y2

Fig. 3

Fig. 4

2m

4m

1 of 2

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4. Use matrix iteration method to determine the natural frequencies and mode shapes for the

system shown in Fig. 4 [16]

5. (a) Explain how dynamic unbalance is corrected for rotating shafts. [6]

(b) A 40 Kg rotor has an eccentricity of 1.2 cm. It is mounted on a shaft and bearing system

whose stiffness is 3x105 N/m and has a damping ratio of 0.07. What is the amplitude of

whirling when the rotor operaters at 1200 r.p.m? [10]

6. Use Rayliegh – Ritz method to approximate the lowest natural frequency of a uniform

simply supported beam. Take as mass density of the beam material; L as length of the

beam and A as cross- section area of the beam. [16]

7. For the damped two degree of freedom system shown in Fig. 5, determine the vibrartory

response of the masses for the initial conditions:

x1 = 1 and x2 = 2 at time t = 0 and 1x = 2x = 0 at time t = 0. Use modal analysis with

proportional damping. [16]

8. (a) Obtain steady state response of a linear undamped single degree of freedom system to an

alternating square wave excitation.

(b) Determine the fourier representation for the excitation shown in Fig. 6. [8+8]

2 of 2

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 3

k k

m c

c

Fig. 5

m

t

Fo

to

3

2to

3

to

4to

3 5to

3

2to

Fig. 6

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IV B.Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010

VIBRATIONS AND STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS

(Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*******

1. (a) Write about coulomb damping. [6]

(b) Consider the following two harmonic motions

x1 = 0.5 t2

cosπ

, x2 = tSinπ

Find whether the Sum (x1+ x2) is a periodic motion. If so what is its time period? [6]

(c) What is meant of degrees of freedom? [4]

2. (a) The rigid weightless rod is restrained to oscillate in a vertical plane as shown

in Fig. 1. Determine the natural frequency of the mass ‘m’. [8]

(b) A Vibrometer, whose damping is negligible, is employed to find the magnitude of

vibration of a machine structure. It gives a reading of the relative displacement of

0.05mm. The natural frequency of vibrometer is 300 c.p.m and the machine is running

at 100 r.p.m. Find the displacement and acceleration of the vibrating machine. [8]

3. A reciprocating engine has a mass of 40kg and runs at a constant speed of 3000 r.p.m.

After it was installed it vibrated with large amplitude at the operating speed. What

dynamic vibration absorber should be coupled to the system if the nearest frequency of the

combined system has to be at least 20% away from the operating speed? Under these

conditions, what will be the amplitude of the absorber? [16]

4. Find the natural frequencies and mode shapes for the slender rod shown in Fig. 2. [16]

1 of 2

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 4

Fig. 1

3L/4

m

L/4

k

3L/4 L/4

Fig. 2

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5. A rotor of mass 12 Kg is mounted on a shaft of stiffness 5000 N/m at the rotor. The

equivalent damping coefficient of the system is 200 N-sec/m. When the shaft rotates at 600

r.p.m, the power dissipated in damping is 8 watts. Determine the eccentricity of rotor.[16]

6. Find the lowest frequency of lateral vibration of a tapered bar fixed at its base as shown in

Fig. 3. Take the width of this bar as unity. Use Rayleigh – Ritz method. [16]

7. A string is stretched with a large tension T between two points and has three point masses

fixed along its length as shown in Fig. 4. The mass can vibrate freely in the lateral direction.

(a) Determine the flexibility matrix.

(b) Obtain the stiffness matrix using influence coefficients. [8+8]

8. (a) Use Duhamel’s integral to determine the response of an undamped one degree of

freedom system to the triangular pulse shown in Fig. 5.

b) Use the Duhamel’s integral to determine the response of an undamped one degree of

freedom system to the excitation shown in Fig. 6. [8+8]

Code No: M2121 /R07 Set No. 4

T

L Fig. 3

m m m

a a a a

Fig. 4

to

2

O to

Fo

Fig. 5 Fig. 6

to

Fo

2 of 2

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Code No: M2321/R07 Set No. 1

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010BIO-INFORMATICS

(Bio-Technology)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Why Bioinformatics become very popular in modern biology. [16]

2. Describe the Richard Owen’s Contribution to Evolutionary Theory? [16]

3. (a) What are the goals of sequence analysis.

(b) Importance of C-DNA libraries. [8+8]

4. What is sequence alignment? Describe the significance of sequence alignment indetail? [16]

5. Discuss about the molecular modeling databases and their applications in bioinfor-matics. [16]

6. How secondary databases in bioinformatics are different from primary databases inorganization. Discuss. [16]

7. Describe the search parameter criteria in BRENDA. [16]

8. Explain briefly the method of Neighbor Joining in construction of a PhylogeneticTree. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

1 of 1

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Code No: M2321/R07 Set No. 2

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010BIO-INFORMATICS

(Bio-Technology)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Why Bioinformatics become very popular in modern biology. [16]

2. Describe the Richard Owen’s Contribution to Evolutionary Theory? [16]

3. (a) What are the goals of sequence analysis.

(b) Importance of C-DNA libraries. [8+8]

4. Describe the following:

(a) Importance of GAPs and GAP penalties in sequence alignment

(b) Edit distance of two strings. [8+8]

5. Describe in brief about Protein databases available on Internet. [16]

6. How a secondary database is organized? Discuss about the major secondary data-bases and their applications? [16]

7. Describe in brief about the tools available in ERGO. [16]

8. What is multiple sequence alignment. Briefly Explain. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

1 of 1

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Code No: M2321/R07 Set No. 3

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010BIO-INFORMATICS

(Bio-Technology)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. Why Bioinformatics become very popular in modern biology. [16]

2. Describe the Richard Owen’s Contribution to Evolutionary Theory? [16]

3. (a) What are the goals of sequence analysis.

(b) Importance of C-DNA libraries. [8+8]

4. What is sequence alignment? Describe the significance of sequence alignment indetail? [16]

5. Discuss in briefly about EMBL and discuss its importance in biological research.[16]

6. What are secondary databases in bioinformatics? State their advantages and ap-plications. [16]

7. Describe in brief about BRENDA and how it is useful in biology research. Explainwith one example. [16]

8. What is multiple sequence alignment. Briefly Explain. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: M2321/R07 Set No. 4

IV B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2010BIO-INFORMATICS

(Bio-Technology)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. What is Bioinformatics? Describe its scope in modern biology? [16]

2. Describe the Charles Darwin Contribution to Evolutionary Theory? [16]

3. Describe the following:

(a) Physical mapping of DNA

(b) Genetic mapping of DNA. [8+8]

4. Describe the FAST algorithm? [16]

5. Explain in brief about the biological databases with their URL (website) addresses?[16]

6. Discuss the search criteria in the tools of Swissprot with suitable examples. [16]

7. Describe in brief about BRENDA and state its applications in bioinformatics. [16]

8. How you would construct a Tree by using distance data. Explain. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

1 of 1

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