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Set - 24

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INSTRUCTIONS

(i) This Paper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The Maximum marks for each question is 4.

(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.

(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trignometric tables isNOT PERMITTED.

[ Time : 3.00 Hours ] [ Max. Marks : 720 ]TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 24 [NEET] 2020

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001, Website: www.goalinstitute.org

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

for

NEET - 2020

Help Line : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

GOAL I I T - J E EMEDICAL DPP - 24 [NEET] 2020 - 02B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2020 [SET - 24]

[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720

01. The torque of the force ^ ^ ^

F (2 i 3 j 4k)N acting

at the point ^ ^ ^

r (3 i 2 j 3k)m about the origin

be :

(1)^^ ^

6 i 6 j 12k (2)^^ ^

17 i 6 j 13k

(3)^^ ^

6 i 6 j 12k (4)^^ ^

17 i 6 j 13k

02. A stone is dropped from a height h.Simultaneously, another stone is thrown up fromthe ground which reaches a height 4 h. The twostones cross each other after time :

(1)h

8g (2) 8gh (3) 2gh (4)h

2g

03. A ball of mass 0.1 kg is suspended by a string. Itis displaced through an angle of 60° and left. Whenthe ball passes through the mean position, thetension in the string is :

(1) 19.6 N (2) 1.96 N

(3) 9.8 N (4) Zero

04. Two masses M and M/2 are joint together bymeans of a light inextensible string passes overa frictionless pulley as shown in figure. Whenbigger mass is released the small one will ascendwith an acceleration of :

(1) g/3 (2) 3g/2 (3) g/2 (4) g

05. A cyclist moves in a circular track of radius 100 m. Ifthe coefficient of friction is 0.2, then themaximum velocity with which the cyclist cantake the turn with leaning inwards is :

(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 1.4 m/s (3) 140 m/s(4) 14 m/s

06. When a body moves with some friction on asurface :

(1) It loses kinetic energy but momentum isconstant

(2) It loses kinetic energy but gains potentialenergy

(3) Kinetic energy and momentum both decrease

(4) mechanical energy is conserved

07. At some point the gravitational potential and alsothe gravitational field due to earth is zero. Thepoint is :

(1) On earth’s surface

(2) Below earth’s surface

(3) At a height Re from earth’s surface(Re = radius of the earth)

(4) At infinity

08. If the breaking force for a given wire is F, thenthe breaking force of two wires of same magnitudewill be :

(1) F (2) 4F (3) 8F (4) 2F

09. When a capillary tube is dipped in water it risesupto 8 cm in the tube. What happens when thetube is pushed down such that its end is only5 cm above the outside water level :

(1) The radius of the meniscus increases andtherefore water does not overflow

(2) The radius of the meniscus decreases andtherefore water does not overflow

(3) The water forms a droplet on top of the tubebut does not overflow

(4) The water start overflowing

10. A capillary tube is attached horizontally to aconstant head arrangement. If the radius of thecapillary tube is increased by 10% then the rateof flow of liquid will change nearly by :

(1) + 10% (2) + 46% (3) – 10% (4) – 40%

11. A faulty thermometer has its lower fixed pointmarked as –10°C and upper fixed point markedas 110°. If the temperature of the body shown inthis scale is 62°, the temperature shown on theCelsius scale is :

(1) 72° C (2) 82° C (3) 60° C (4)42° C


12. A gas is enclosed in a closed pot. On keeping thispot in a train moving with high speed, thetemperature of the gas :

(1) Will increase

(2) Will decrease

(3) Will remain the same

(4) Will change according to the nature of the gas

13. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure

such that its temperature 1

TV

, the value of

CP/CV of gas is :

(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.67 (4) 2.00

14. In a steady state of thermal conduction,temperatue of the ends A and B of a 20 cm longrod are 100°C and 0°C respectively. What will bethe temperature of the rod at a point at a distanceof 6 cm from the end A of the rod :

(1) –30°C (2) 70°C

(3) 5°C (4) None of the above

15. A pendulum has time period T in air. When it ismade to oscillate in water, it acquired a time

period T ' 2T . The density of the pendulum bobis equal to (density of water = 1)

(1) 2 (2) 2

(3) 2 2 (4) None of these

16. An Indian submarine and an enemy submarinemove towards each other during maneuvers insubmarine moves at 50 km/h, and the enemysubmarine at 70 km/h. The Indian sub sendsout a sonar signal (sound wave in water) at 1000Hz. Sonar waves travel at 5500 km/h. What isthe frequency detected by the Indian submarine

50 km/h 70 km/h

(1) 1.02 kHz (2) 2 kHz

(3) 2.5 kHz (4) 4.7 kHz

17. Five point charges each having magnitude ‘q’ are

placed at the corner of hexagon as shown in fig.

Net electric field at the centre ‘O’ is E

. To get

net electric field at ‘O’ be 6E

, charge placed onthe remaining sixth corner should be:

q

q

q

q

O

q

(1) 6 q (2) –6 q (3) 5 q (4) – 5 q

18. The resistance of the filament of a lamp increaseswith the increase in temperature. A lamp rated100 W, 220 V is connected across 220 V powersupply. If the voltage drops by 10% then the powerof lamp will be :

(1) 90 W

(2) 81 W

(3) Between 90 W and 100 W

(4) Between 81 W and 90 W

19. Five very long, straight wires are bound togetherto form a small cable. Currents carried by thewires are I1 = 20 A, I2 = –6 A, I3 = 12 A, I4 = –7 A,I5 = 18 A. The magnetic induction at a distanceof 10 cm from the cable is :

(1) 34 µT (2) 74 mT (3) 34 mT (4) 74 µT

20. A bar magnet of moment of inertia 9 × 10–5 kg m2

placed in a vibration magnetometerand oscillating in a uniform magnetic field16 2 × 10–5 T makes 20 oscillations in 15s. Themagnetic moment of the bar magnet is

(1) 3A m2 (2) 2A m2

(3) 5 A m2 (4) 4 A m2

21. A conducting loop having a capacitor is movingoutward from the magnetic field then which plateof the capacitor will be positive :

(1) Plate – A

(2) Plate – B

(3) Plate – A and Plate – B both

××××

××××

v

AB

(4) None

22.2.5

F

capacitor and 3000-ohm resistance are

joined in series to an ac source of 200 volt and 50sec–1 frequency. The power factor of the circuitand the power dissipated in it will respectively

(1) 0.6, 0.06 W (2) 0.06, 0.6 W

(3) 0.6, 4.8 W (4) 4.8, 0.6 W


23. If maximum velocity with which an electron canbe emitted from a photo cell is 4 × 108 cm/sec,the stopping potential is (mass of electron = 9 ×10–31 kg)

(1) 30 volt

(2) 45 volt

(3) 59 volt

(4) Information is insufficient

24. If doubly ionised lithium atom is hydrogen-likewith atomic number 3, the wavelength of radiationrequired to excite the electron in Li++ from thefirst to the third Bohr orbit and the number ofdifferent spectral lines observed in the emissionspectrum of the above excited system are :

(1) 296 Å, 6 (2) 114 Å, 3

(3) 1026 Å, 6 (4) 8208 Å, 3

25. The inputs A, B and C to be given in order to getat output Y = 1 from the following circuit are

AB

CY

(1) 0, 1, 0 (2) 1, 0, 0

(2) 1, 0, 1 (4) 0, 0, 1

26. A concave mirror and a converging lens (glasswith µ = 1.5) both have a focal length of 3 cm when

in air. When they are in water 4

3

, their new

focal lengths are :

(1) fLens = 12 cm, fMirror = 3 cm




27. Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce acombination of power + 10 D. When they are 0.25m apart, the power reduces to + 6D. The focallengths of the lenses (in m) are :

(1) 0.125 and 0.5 (2) 0.125 and 0.125

(3) 0.5 and 0.75 (4) 0.125 and 0.75

28. The intensity ratio of two coherent sources of lightis p. They are interfering in some region andproduce interference pattern. Then the fringevisibility is :

(1)1 p

2 p

(2)

2 p

1 p (3)p

1 p (4)2p

1 p

29. In Young’s double slit experiment, the 8thmaximum with wavelength 1 is at a distance d1from the central maximum and the 6th maximumwith a wavelength 2 is at a distance d2. Then(d1/d2) is equal to :

(1)2

1

4

3

(2)1

2

4

3

(3)2

1

3

4

(4)1

2

3

4

30. Light of wavelength 500 nm is used to forminterference pattern in Young’s double slitexperiment. A uniform glass plate of refractiveindex 1.5 and thickness 0.1 mm is introduced inthe path of one of the interfering beams. thenumber of fringes which will shift the cross wiredue to this is :(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400

31. The two coherent sources of equal intensityproduce maximum intensity of 100 units at apoint. If the intensity of one of the sources isreduced by 36% by reducing its width then theintensity of light at the same point will be :(1) 90 (2) 89 (3) 67 (4) 81

32. Which of the following is a scalar quantity :(1) Displacement (2) Electric field(3) Acceleration (4) Work

33. A tuning fork gives 5 beats with another tuningfork of frequency 100 Hz. When the first tuningfork is loaded with wax, then the number of beatsremains unchanged, then what will be thefrequency of the first tuning fork :(1) 95 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 105 Hz (4) 110 Hz

34. A closed pipe and an open pipe have their firstovertones identical in frequency. Their lengthsare in the ratio :(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5

35. If the ratio of coefficient of thermal conductivityof silver and copper is 10 : 9, then the ratio of thelengths upto which wax will melt in IngenHauszexperiment will be :

(1) 6 : 10 (2) 10 : 3 (3) 100 : 81 (4) 81 : 100

36. A capacitor is kept connected to the battery and adielectric slab is inserted between the plates.During this process :(1) No work is done(2) Work is done at the cost of the energy already

stored in the capacitor before the slab isinserted

(3) Work is done at the cost of the battery(4) Work is done at the cost of both the capacitor

and the battery


37. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 15µF,when the distance between its plates is 6 cm. Ifthe distance between the plates is reduced to 2cm, then the capacity of the this parallel platecondenser will be :

(1) 15µF (2) 30µF (3) 45µF (4) 60µF

38. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with nodielectric substance but with a separation of 0.4cm is 2µF. The separation is reduced to half andit is filled with a dielectric substnace of value 2.8.The final capacity of the capacitor is :

(1) 11.2 µF (2) 15.6 µF (3) 19.2 µF (4) 22.4 µF

39. Carnot cycle (reversible) of a gas represented bya Pressure-volume curve is shown in thediagram. Consider the following statements

A

D C

B

V

P

I. Area ABCD = Work done on the gas

II. Area ABCD = Net heat absorbed

III.Change in the internal energy in cycle = 0

Which of these are correct

(1) I only (2) II only

(3) II and III (4) I, II and III

40. Ratio among linear expansion coefficient (), arealexpansion coefficient () and volume expansioncoefficient () is :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1

(3) 4 : 3 : 2 (4) None of these

41. Figure shows the displacement of a particle goingalong the X-axis as a function of time. The forceacting on the particle is zero in the region

ECB

A

x

tD

(1) AB, CD (2) BC, AD (3) CD, AD (4) DE, BC

42. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallicsurface for frequencies v1 and v2 of the incidentlight rays (v1 > v2). If the maximum values ofkinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted inthe two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k, then the

threshold frequency of the metallic surface is :

(1)1 2v v

k 1

(2)

1 2kv v

k 1

(3)2 1kv v

k 1

(4)

2 1v v

k

43. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by :

(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens

(3) Cylindrical lens (4) Toric lens

44. In a compound microscope magnification will belarge, if the focal length of the eye piece is :

(1) Large

(2) Smaller

(3) Equal to that of objective

(4) Less than that of objective

45. The bob of a simple pendulum (mass m and lengthl) dropped from a horizontal position strikes ablock of the same mass elastically placed on ahorizontal frictionless table. The K.E. of the blockwill be :

(1) 2 mgl (2) mgl/2 (3) mgl (4) 0

46. Which of the following is correct decreasing rateof hydrolysis of these halides :

CH3

CH —NH—CH—Br3

(I)CH3

CH —O—CH—Br3

(II)

CH3

CH —C—C—Br3

(III)

O CH3CH —Br2

(IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I

(3) I > II > IV > III (4) III > IV > II > I

47. In the Schoottky defect :

(1) Cations are missing from the lattice sites andoccupy the interstitial sites

(2) Pair of cations and anions are missing fromthe lattice sites

(3) Anion are missing and electrons are presentin their place

(4) Equal number of extra cations and electronsare present in the interstitial sites


48. Value of IE of Na (Z = 11) would be :

(1) Greater than the IE of Ne

(2) Below the IE of Ne but above the IE of oxygen

(3) Lesser than the IE of Li

(4) Between the IE of N and O.

49. The product formed in the reaction —

O

O

N—H1. Br , KOH, heat2

2. H O2 is :

(1)

NH2

NH2

(2)

CONH2

CONH2

(3)

O

O

N—Br (4)

COOH

NH2

50. The oxidation number of carbon in C12H22O11 is:(1) 0 (2) –6 (3) +6 (4) +2

51. Which of the following statements is false ?(1) Increase of pressure of a gas causes the

amount of adsorption to increase(2) Increase of temperature may increase or

decrease the amount of adsorption(3) The adsorption may be monolayer of multilayer(4) Particle size of the adsorbent does not affect

the amount of adsorption52. The correct order of basicities of the following

compounds is :

NHCH —C3

NH2(i)

CH CH NH3 2 2

(ii)

(CH ) NH3 2(iii)

CH —C—NH3 2(iv)

O

(1) ii > i > iii > iv (2) i > iii > ii > iv

(3) iii > i > ii > iv (4) i > ii > iii > iv

53. The reaction,

2K2MnO4 + Cl2 2KMnO4 + 2KCl

is an example of :

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction

(3) Redox (4) Chlorination

54. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 300k the vapour pressure of a solution of1 mole of A and x moles of B is 550 mm. If thevapour pressures of pure A and B are 400 mmand 600 mm respectively, then x is :

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

55. The compound which gives negative iodoform testis :

(1)CH —C—CH —C—CH3 2 3

O O

(2)CH—CH3

OH

(3) C6H5COCH3

(4)

O

NH—C—CH3

56. Fluorine does not produce polyhalides but otherhalogens can produce polyhalides. Because,

(1) It has maximum ionic character.

(2) It has low value of F-F bond dissociationenergies.

(3) It does not have any d electrons in the valenceshell.

(4) Fluorine is highest electronegative element

57.

Me

H DH Br

CH3

C H O2 5–

C H OH2 5?, Major product is :

(1) C== CCH3

H

H

H C3(2) C== C

CH3

HH

H C3

(3) C== CCH3

DH

H C3(4) C== C

H

CH3D

H C3


58. Compounds (a) and (b) are :

Cl2

Cold and dilute NaOH

Hot and conc. NaOH

(A) + NaCl + H O2

(B) + NaCl + H O2

(1) NaClO3, NaClO (2) NaOCl2, NaOCl

(3) NaClO4, NaClO3 (4) NaOCl, NaClO359. The energy difference between two electronic

states is 46.12 kcal/mole. what will be thefrequency of the light emitted when an electrondrops from the higher to the lower energy state?

(Planck’ constant = 9.52 × 10–14 kcal sec mole–1)

(1) 4.84 × 1015 cycles sec–1

(2) 4.84 × 10–5 cycles sec–1

(3) 4.84 × 10–12 cycles sec–1

(4) 4.84 × 1014 cycles sec–1

60. In the reaction

CH3CH2CHBrCH3 + (CH3)3COK the main

product is :

(1)

OC(CH )3 3

CH CH CHCH3 2 3 (2)

OH

CH CH CHCH3 2 3

(3) 3 2 2CH CH CH CH (4) 3 3CH CH CHCH

61. Calculate the temperature at which

G = –5.2 kJ mol–1 H = 145.6 kJ mol–1 and

S = 216 JK–1 mol–1 for a chemical reaction :

(1) 698°C (2) 425°C

(3) 650 K (4) 650°C

62. Consider the following reaction sequence.

aq. H SO PCl2 4 53 HgSO heat4

CH C CH A B

The product (a) and (b) are, respectively –

(1) CH3COCH3 and CH3CCl2CH3(2) CH3CH2CHO and CH3CH2CHCl2(3) CH3CHOHCH3 and CH3CHClCH3(4) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2Cl

63. The bond orders in BN, BO and CO respectivelyare :

(1) 2, 3, 5/2 (2) 2, 5/2, 2

(3) 2, 5/2, 3 (4) 5/2, 2, 3

64. Which one of the following reactions of Xenoncompounds is not feasible ?

(1) 3 XeF4 + 6 H2O 2Xe + XeO3 + 12 HF + 1.5 O2(2) 2 XeF2 + 2 H2O 2 Xe + 4 HF + O2(3) XeF6 + RbF Rb [XeF7]

(4) XeO3 + 6 HF XeF6 + 3 H2O

65. Consider the following reaction.

CH3HO H + PCl5

CH CH2 3

The product formed is :

(1)Cl

CH3 HCH CH2 3

(2) ClCH3

HCH CH2 3

(3)

CH3 H

H CH3

(4)CH3

CH CH3 2C== O

66. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronictransition is inversely related to :

(1) The number of electrons undergoing thetransition

(2) The nuclear charge of the atom

(3) The difference in the energy of the energylevels involved in the transition

(4) The velocity of the electron undergoing thetransition

67. Poling process is used :

(1) For the removal of Cu2O from Cu

(2) For the removal of Al2O3 from Al

(3) For the removal of Fe2O3 from Fe

(4) For the removal of oxygen from Na2O

68. In Quick Vinegar Process, the aerial oxidation ofethyl alcohol to acetic acid is brought about by :

(1) Acetic (2) Maltase

(3) Invertase (4) Mycodermaaceti

69. Lattice energy of BeCO3 (I), MgCO3 (II) and CaCO3(III) are in the order :

(1) I > II > III (2) I < II < III

(3) I < III < II (4) II < I < III


70. In the precipitation of sulphides of second groupbasic radicals. H2S is passed into acidifiedsolution with dilute HCl. If the solution is notacidified, then which of the following is/arecorrect ?(1) Only the sulphides of second group get

precipitated(2) Only the sulphides of fourth group get

precipitated(3) Neither of the sulphides of second and fourth

groups get precipitated(4) Sulphides of both the groups II & IV get

precipitated71. A sample of impure cuprite, Cu2O, contains 66.6%

copper. What is the percentage of pure Cu2O inthe sample :(1) 75% (2) 25% (3) 60% (4) 80%

72. The melting point of graphite layer is extremelyhigher because :(1) It is a crystalline substance(2) It is an allotrope of diamond(3) It is soft solid used as lubricant(4) In graphite the C-atoms are arranged in large

plates of hexagonal rings of strongly boundedcarbon atoms

73. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is :(1) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV)

chloride(2) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV)

chloride(3) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV)

chloride(4) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV)

chloride

74.Cl2

6 5 3 FeC H CCl X

In the above reaction X is :

(1)

CCl3

Cl

(2)

CCl3

Cl

(3)

CCl3

Cl(4) None of these

75. 4 ml of HCl solution of pH = 2 is mixed with 6 ml ofNaOH solution of pH = 12. What would be the finalpH of solution ? log 2 = 0.3

(1) 10.3 (2) 11.3

(3) 11 (4) 4.3

76.NH OH H OTsCl2 2NH Cl4

Pentan-2-one [A] product

The final product (s) formed in the above reactionis :

(1) N-propylethanamide

(2) N-methylpropanamide

(3) Both

(4) None

77. Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40% metalM respectively. If the formula of the first oxide isMO2, the formula of the second oxide will be :

(1) MO2 (2) MO3(3) M2O (4) M2O5

78. Na2O2 –

(1) Is diamagnetic in nature

(2) Is salt of dibasic acid H2O2

(3) Oxidizes Cr3+ (green) to 24CrO (yellow)

(4) All are correct properties of Na2O2

79. Li CuI BEtBr [A] 2-Methylbutane

The incorrect option is :

(1) A is Et2CuLi

(2) B is iso-propyl chloride

(3) B is EtBr

(4) The reaction is Corey House synthesis

80. An open ended Hg manometer is used to measurethe pressure exerted by a trapped gas as shownin the figure. Atmospheric pressure is 749 m.m.of Hg. What is the pressure of the trapped gas :

292 m.m.

(1) 292 m.m. Hg (2) 457 m.m. Hg

(3) 749 m.m. Hg (4) 1041 m.m. Hg


81. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI,ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl

(2) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate onadding potassium ferrocyanide solution

(3) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and

3HCO ions we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2

(4) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead testin the reducing flame

82. Benzene on reaction with ‘A’ forms

O

with on reaction with ‘B’ forms

‘A’ and ‘B’ are :

(1) Zn (Hg) + conc. HCl, O

Cl

(2)O

Cl, LiAlH4

(3)O

Cl, NaBH4

(4)O

Cl, Zn(Hg) + conc. HCl

83. The net heat change in a chemical reaction issame whether it is brought about in two or moredifferent ways in one or several steps. It is knownas :

(1) Hess’s law

(2) Law of conversion of energy

(3) Henry’s law

(4) Joule’s principle

84. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Conductivity of a solution decreases withdilution, whereas molar conductivityincreases with dilution

(2) Conductivity of a solution increases withdilution, whereas molar conductivitydecreases with dilution

(3) Both conductivity and molar conductivitydecrease with dilution

(4) Both conductivity and molar conductivityincrease with dilution

85. For the reaction : 2 3(g) (g) 2(g)N O NO NO ; totalpressure = P, degree of dissociation = 50%. ThenKp would be :

(1) 3P (2) 2P

(3)P

3(4)

P

2

86. Which of the following species is most stable ?

(1) 2 6 4 2p O N C H CH

(2) 6 5 2C H CH

(3) 6 4 2p Cl C H CH

(4) 3 6 4 2p CH O C H CH

87. A substance undergoes first order decomposition.The decomposition follows two parallel first orderreactions as :

AB

C

k1

k2

k = 1.26 × 10 s and1–4 –1

k = 3.8 × 10 s2–5 –2

The percentage distributions of B and C are :

(1) 80% B and 20%

(2) 76.83% B and 23.17% C

(3) 90% B and 10% C

(4) 60% B and 40% C

88. What is the equivalent weight of HNO3 in thefollowing reaction ?

HNO3 + H2S H2O + NO + S.

(1)Mol wt

2(2)

Mol wt

3

(3)Mol wt

6(4) Mol wt


89. The major product in the reaction :

MeIAlCl3

P EtBrAlCl3 RHNO3H SO2 4

S

S is :

(1)

Me

Et

NO2

(2)

Me

Et

NO2

(3)

Me

Et

NO2(4)

Me

Et

NO2

90. A temperature at which rms speed of SO2molecules is half of that of helium molecules at300 K :

(1) 1200 K (2) 600 K (3) 800 K (4) 900 K

91. The solid linear cytoskeleton elements having adiameter of 6nm and made up of a single type ofmonomer are known as :

(1) Microfilaments

(2) Intermediate filaments

(3) Lamins

(4) Microtubules

92. Enzymes involved in transfer of electrons belongsto :

(1) Hydrolase (2) Desmolase

(3) Transaminase (4) Dehydrogenase

93. Water potential of pure water and its solution are:

(1) 0 and 1 (2) 0 and 0

(3) 0 and more than 1 (4) 0 and less than 0

94. Which helps in absorption of phosphorus from soilby plants :

(1) Glomus (2) Frankia

(3) Anabaena (4) Rhizobium

95. Select the incorrect pair :

(1) Photolysis of H2O – Mn, Cl

(2) Phloem transport – B, Ca

(3) Chlorophyll synthesis – Mg, Fe

(4) Cation – anion balance – K, Cl

96. In C4 plants, malic acid formed in :

(1) Mesophyll cell (2) Bundle sheath

(3) Phloem (4) Epidermis

97. In photosynthesis light independent reaction takeplace in :

(1) Thylakoid Lumen (2) PSI

(3) Stroma matrix (4) Stroma lamella

98. R.Q. of sprounting potato is :

(1) Zero (2) > 1 (3) 1 (4) < 1

99. Coconut milk contains :

(1) ABA (2) Auxin

(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin

100. Match the columns :

Column I Column II

(a) Monoecious (i) Cladophora

(b) Dioecious (ii) Fucus

(c) Isogametes (iii) Coconut

(d) Heterogametes (iv)Papaya

(1) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-i); (d-ii)

(2) (a-iii); (b-iv); (c-i); (d-ii)

(3) (a-i); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-iv)

(4) (a-iii); (b-iv); (c-ii); (d-i)

101. Seed formation without fertilization in floweringplants involves the process of :

(1) Budding

(2) Stomatic hybridisation

(3) Apomixis

(4) Amphimixis

102. Advantage of cleistogamy is :

(1) Higher genetic variability

(2) More vigorous offspring

(3) No dependence on pollinator

(4) Vivipary

103. The allele which express itself in both homozygousand heterozygous condition is called :

(1) Dominant allele

(2) Recessive allele

(3) Incomplete dominant allele

(4) Split allele

104. In cross between yellow round (YYRR) and purebreeding pea plants having green wrinkled (yyrr),find out the total seeds (plants) having yellowcolour in F2 generation :

(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 14 (4) 9

105. Choose the incorrect pair with respect to sexdetermination in different organisms :

(1) Grasshopper — XO - type

(2) Birds — ZZ — ZW type

(3) Drosophila — XX — XO type

(4) Human — XX — XY type

106. Occasionally a single gene many control morethan one phenotypes. This phenomenon is called:

(1) Multiple allelism (2) Mosaicism

(3) Pleiotropy (4) Polygeny

107. Rust is caused by :

(1) Puccinia — Ascomycetes

(2) Puccinia — Basidiomycetes

(3) Ustilago — Ascomycetes

(4) Puccinia — Phycomyceles

108. Which one produces carageenin :

(1) Green algae (2) BGA

(3) Red algae (4) Brown algae

109. Which are heterosporous :

(1) Dryopteris (2) Adiantum

(3) Salvinia (4) Equisetum

110. Which of the following will prevent the backfolowfrom small intestine into stomach :

(1) IIeo-caecal valve (2) Sphinder of Boyden

(3) Sphincter of Oddi (4) Pyloric sphincter

111. O2 is mainly transported as A while CO2 is mainlytransported as B. When CO2 combines withhemoglobin, it forms C. when hemoglobincombines with CO, D is formed. Select theincorrect one :

(1) D — Carboxyhaemoglobin

(2) C — Carbaminohemoglobin

(3) A — Oxyhemoglobin

(4) B — CaCO3112. Green glands are formed in :

(1) Cockroaches

(2) Prawns

(3) Cephalochordates

(4) Some annelids and rotifers

113. Chromosome carrying centromenes at one endis :

(1) Metacentric (2) Submetacentric

(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric

114. Which one does not differ in E.coli andChlamydomonas :

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane

(3) Ribosomes

(4) Chromosomal organisation

115. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentrationat :

(1) 1 max4 V (2) Vmax (3) 2 Vmax (4)1

max2 V

116. Identify the stage when homologous chromosomesseparates but sister chromatids remainsassociated :

(1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase I

(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase II

117. Osmotic concentration of a cell kept in water ischiefly regulated by :

(1) Vacuoles (2) Plastids

(3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria

118. Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Lichens are symbiotic association

(2) Lichens are very good pollution indicator

(3) Lichens do not grow in unpolluted urea

(4) Algal component of lichen is known asphycobiont

119. Edaphic factors refers to :

(1) Water (2) Soil

(3) Relativity humidity (4) Attitude

120. Climax community is in a state of :

(1) Non-equilibrium (2) Equilibrium

(3) Disorder (4) Constant change

121. tRNA is attached to mRNA by its :

(1) I Loop (2) II Loop (3) III Loop (4) IV Loop

122. VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referredto as :

(1) Microsatellite DNA (2) Minisatellite DNA

(3) Macrosatellite DNA (4) Repetitive DNA

123. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi wastransferred from a wild species and resulted innew variety of A esculentus called :

(1) Golden kranti (2) Sonalika

(3) IR-8 (4) Parbhani – Kranti

124. Select the option that correctly identifies thegiven blood cells :

A B C D

(1) B — RBC (2) C — Neutrophil

(3) A — Platelets (4) D — Monocyte



Column I Column II

(a) Wheat (i) Pusa Sadabahar

(b) Cauliflower (ii) Pusa Komal

(c) Cow pea (iii) Pusal Shubhra

(d) Chilli (iv)Himagiri

(1) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-i)

(2) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-i); (d-iv)

(3) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(4) (a-i); (b-iv); (c-iii); (d-ii)

126. Read the following and choose the incorrectstatement :

(1) Most biofertilisers are obtained from microbes

(2) VAM is the example of biofertiliser

(3) SCP is used as source of biofertiliser

(4) None of the above

127. The restriction enzyme responsible for thecleavage of following sequence is :

G – T – C – G – A – C

C – A – G – C – T – G

5'

3'

3'

5'

(1) Alu I (2) Bam HI (3) Pvu II (4) ECoRI

128. Periplaneta americana is the common cockroachin India. Select the incorrect information aboutit.

(1) Heart – Neurogenic, 13-chambered, muscularand elongated.

(2) Malpighian tubules – 100-150 in number andopen at the junction of midgut and hindgut.

(3) Thorax – It possess three pairs of jointed legsand two pairs of wings.

(4) Reproductive system – Ejaculatory duct openin seminal vesicles in male Cockroach.

129. In cockroach, fertilized eggs are encased inOotheca which is _______ in length.

(1) 1-2 mm (2) 7-8 mm (3) 1-2 cm (4) 7-8 cm

130. Abdomen of female frog swells in breeding seasonbecause :

(1) Nuptial pads develop in abdomen

(2) It has to store many unfertilized eggs

(3) More fat is deposited below skin and abdomen

(4) Frequent accumulation of urine in urinarybladder.

131. Protein encoding gene which is expressed inheterologous host is :

(1) Foreign protein

(2) Heterologous protein

(3) Recombinant protein

(4) Alien protein

132. Observe the diagram, and choose the incorrectstatement.

A D

B E

(1) A and B are result of same adaptive radiation.

(2) D and E are result of same adaptive radiation.

(3) B and D are show convergent evolution.

(4) A and E have evolved from different adaptiveradiations.

133. Consider the following statements :

I. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from – thebacteria

II. Genetic engineering works only on animalsand has not yet been successfully used onplants producing bioinsecticidal plants

III.Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis are used inProducing bionsecticidal plants

Which of the above statements are correct :

(1) I and II (2) I and III

(3) II and III (4) I, II and III

134. Regulators are also called :

(1) Endotherms (2) Exotherms

(3) Ectotherms (4) Either (2) or (3)

135. Individuals alive at the beginning of one year totwo years age interval is 800. During the interval200 individual die. Then find out the death rate :

(1) 200 (2) 800 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.25

136. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction ‘–’sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neturalinteraction, then the population interactionrepresented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to :

(1) Mutualism (2) Ammensalism

(3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism

137. The total amount of nutrients like carbon,phosphorus, caclium etc., present in soil at anytime is called :

(1) Standing crop (2) Standing state

(3) Nutrient crops (4) Sediment

138. Taxon is the unit of :

(1) Species (2) Genus

(3) Order (4) Taxonomy


139. In five kingdom classification single celledeukaryotes are included in :

(1) Fungi (2) Protista (3) Monera (4) Archae

140. The three domain system in a biologicalclassfication was introduced by :

(1) R.H. Whittaker (2) Carl Woese

(3) Huxley (4) Linneaus

141. Among the following where do you think theprocess of decomposition would be fastest :

(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Antarctica

(3) Dry arid region (4) Alpine region

142. Euro II norms were stipulated to control :

(1) Carbon content (2) Sulphur content

(3) Nitrogen content (4) Phosphorus content

143. Choose the incorrect statement :

(1) Montreal protocol is associated with the controlof emission of ozone depleting substances

(2) Methane and CO2 are greenhouse gases

(3) Dobson units are used to measure oxygencontent

(4) use of incinerators is crucial to disposal ofhospital wastes

144. Carnivora is the family for :

(1) Panthera (2) Felis

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None

145. Incorrect about Sea horse is :

(1) Eucoelomate (2) Soft bodied

(3) Organ system level (4) Foot is absent

146. Few characteristic features of a phylum of Animalkingdom are given below. Identify the membersof phylum indicated [Triploblastic, eucoelomate,closed type circulatory system, metamerism].

(1) Earthworm (2) Pork tapeworm

(3) Cockroach (4) Wuchereia

147. How many are dioecious among the givenanimals:

[Earthworm, Hydra, Neries, Leech, Delphinus,Ascaris]

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

148. Psudocoelomate members are found in phylum:

(1) Aschelminthes (2) Platyhelminthes

(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda

149. Which difference is not correctly applicable ?Non-

chordatesChordates

(1) CNS Ventral Dorsal

(2) Heart Dorsal Ventral

(3) Notochord Absent Pre sent

(4) PharynxGi ll sli ts

pre sent

Pe rforated by

gi ll sli ts

150. Which information about hemichordata isincorrect ?

(1) Body divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk

(2) Circulatory system is open type

(3) All are marine

(4) Monoecious

151. The Western ghats have greater amphibiandiversity than the Eastern ghats. It is an exampleof :

(1) Species diversity

(2) Genetic diversity

(3) Ecosystem diversity

(4) Biome diversity

152. If log A = 4, Z = 0.3 and log C = 0.8 find the value oflog ‘S’ ?

(1) 3.76 (2) 100 (3) 4.24 (4) 2

153. Where will you find pitcher plant :

(1) Rain forest of North-East India

(2) Sunderbans

(3) Thar desert

(4) Western ghats

154. Which set of animals belong to class Aves ?

(1) Columba and Eryx

(2) Neophron and Rhea

(3) Aptenodytes and Cavia

(4) Desmodus and Corvus

155. Select the incorrect match :

(1) DCT – Lined by simple columnar Epithelium

(2) Tendon – Dense regular connective tissue

(3) Intestinal wall – Unstripped muscles

(4) Adipose tissue – Loose connective tissue

156. In reproductive system of male cockroach,mushroom glands open in :

(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Phallic gland

(3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Bidder’s canal

157. How many of the given enzymes are not releasedin lumen of duodenum ?

[Trypsinogen, Pepsinogen, Rennin, Lactase,Amylopsin, Carboxypeptidase]

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

158. Read the following statements :

I. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasm intosarcoplasmic reticulum results in musclecontraction.

II. White fibres are rich in sarcoplasmicreticulum.

III.Glenoid cavity and acromain, both are foundin scapula.

How many statements are correct ?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) All



Column A Column B

(a) Leydig cells (i) Progesterone in firsttrimester

(b) Sertoli cells (ii) Testosterone

(c) Corpus luteum (iii) Inhibin

(d) Placenta (iv)HCG

(1) (a-ii); (b-iii); (c-iv); (d-i)

(2) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-i)

(3) (a-ii); (b-iii); (c-i); (d-iv)

(4) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-i); (d-iv)

160. If stroke volume is 80 ml and cardiac output is6.4 litres. Calculate the heart rate :

(1) 72/min (2) 80/min (3) 90/min (4) 98/min

161. Human has started agriculture :

(1) 25,000 years ago



(4) 1,50,000 years ago

162. In 1938, live coelocanth fish which was thoughtbe extinct, was caught from coast of :

(1) Asia (2) South Africa

(3) Australia (4) South America

163. Select the set of correct statements :

P. Nicotine increases blood pressure.

Q. Morphine reduces pain without sedation.

R. Fine needle aspiration and cytology (FNAC) ishelpful in detecting cancer.

S. Steroids control allergy.

(1) P and S (2) P, Q and S

(3) Q, R and S (4) P, R and S

164. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus is :

(1) 600 cc (2) 900 cc (3) 1100 cc (4) 1450 cc

165. Causative agent for filariasis belongs to phylum:

(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Nemathelminthes

(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda

166. Identify the given structure A in the diagram.

A

(1) Renal capsule

(2) Medullary pyramid

(3) Renal calyx

(4) Renal columns of Bertini

167. Some of the dinosaurs went back into waterdevelop into fish like animals :

(1) T. rex (2) Ichthyosaurus

(3) Coelocanth (4) Brontosaurus

168. Due to continental drift, when South Americajoined North America :

(1) Mammals of South America were overriddenby North American fauna.

(2) Angiosperms of north America have replacedgymnosperms of South America.

(3) Flora of South America was overridden by floraof North America.

(4) All mammals of South America have movedto North America

169. A contraceptive measure is shown in the diagram.Select the correct option regarding it.

Contraceptive Type

Measure

(1) Cervical Cap Barrier

(2) Implant IUD

(3) Copper T IUD

(4) Copper T Barrier

170. Which set of annelids possess protonephridia ?

(1) Most of annelids and rotifers

(2) Cephalochordates and crustaceans

(3) Some annelids and cephalochordates

(4) Some annelids and most of insects.

171. What are columns of Bertini in kidney :

(1) Cortical columns in medulla

(2) Medullary columns in cortex

(3) Ducts formed by fusion of collecting ducts

(4) Ducts formed by fusion of DCTs.

172. The membranous structure which partially coversthe vagina is :

(1) Hymen (2) Clitoris

(3) Mons pubis (4) Forchette

173. Neanderthal man lived near east and central Asia.What is correct about the cranial capacity ofneanderthal man ?

(1) It is equal to Cro-magnon man

(2) It is greater than Cro-magnon man

(3) It is less than modern man

(4) It is greater than Peking man


174. Diagram of four members of plant kingdom areshown below. Select the option which givescorrect information regarding them.

A

Air blader

FrondMidbrid

Holdfast

Sporophyte

Gametophyte

Antheridialbranch

Branches

Archegonialbranch

B

C D(1) A is a green algae and its cell wall possess

cellulose, but lacks algin.

(2) B is brown algae and its stored material isfloridean starch.

(3) C is a pteridophyte and is having protonemastage in its life cycle.

(4) D is moss and the plant body is dioecious

175. A and B are two types of root systems. Select theoption with correct information :

Main root

Laterals

Fibrous rootsA

B

(1) A – Tap root system, found in Maize

(2) A – Adventitious root system, found in Mustard

(3) B – Fibrous root system, found in cereals

(4) B – Adventitious root system, found in grass.

176. Statement A : Low Ca2+ in blood leads to musclespasms.

Statemnt B : Atlanto-axial joint is a synovial joint.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Both statements A and B are correct

(4) Neither of the statements are correct.

177. Excess of mineralocorticoids lead to all of thefollowing except one :

(1) Hypernatrimia (2) Natriuria

(3) Kaliuria (4) Hypokalemia

178. For treatment of infertility, which technique willbe suitable for a female who is having suitableenvironment for implantation but cannot producegametes ?

(1) GIFT (2) IVF-ET (3) ICSI (4) AI

179. Select the set of incorrect statements :

P. Oestrous cycle occurs in rat and deer both.

Q. Sponges asexually reproduce by binary fission.

R. Papaya and Date palm are heterothallic.

S. Bony fishes and frogs produce a large numberof offsprings.

(1) Only R (2) P and Q (3) Only Q (4) R and S

180. Secondary ovarian follicles are lacking :

(1) Primary oocyte (2) First polar body

(3) Antrum (4) Both (2) and (3)


GOALI I T - J E E

MEDICAL

DPP FOR NEET- 2020 [SET - 24]

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