De La Salle University

Gokongwei College of Engineering Electronics and Communications Engineering

In Partial Fulfilment of The Requirements in

ECE Laws, Contracts and Ethics

Compilation of FAQs

Presented To: Engr. Ann E. Dulay

Presented By: Marquez, Ian Christopher M.

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Chapter 1

Laws

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EO 546 1. What is an Executive Order?

“ an order having the force of law issued by the president to the army,

navy, or other part of executive branch of the government.”

(dictionary.com)

2. When was EO 546 implemented?

July, 23 1979

3. What is the agency of the Philippine government under the Department of

Transportation and Communications that responsible for the supervision,

adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout

the Philippines?

National Telecommunications Commission (NTC)

4. It is the government organization that is responsible for the supervision, adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout the Philippines?

National Telecommunications Commission (NTC)

5. According to Section 16 of EO 546, the commission shall be composed of? A Commissioner and two Deputy Commissioner (Preferably a lawyer and an economist)

6. What must be issued for the operation of communications utilities and services, radio communication systems, wire or wireless telephone or telegraph systems, radio and television broadcasting system?

a. Certificate of Compliance c. Certificate of Registration b. Certificate of Authenticity d. Certificate of Public Convenience

7. When the Armed Forces of the Philippines used ________ that were allowed/assigned

by the Commission; they can be considered not a subject to the provisions of EO 546. a. Bandwidth c. Frequencies b. Transmitter Power d. Transmitting Equipment

8. True or False. The NTC sub-allocate series of frequencies of bands for specific

services? True.

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9. True or False. When abolished the Board of Communications and the Telecommunications Control Bureauand their functionsare transferred to the National Telecommunications Commission?

True.

NTC Memorandum Order/ Circulars:

NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005

Subject: Guidelines for the Registration of VoIP Service Providers and Resellers

1. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, for a company to register as a VoIP service

provider, the company should pay a registration amount of:

a. PhP 10,000.00/year

b. PhP 25,000.00/year

c. PhP 50,000.00/year

d. PhP 100,000.00/year

2. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, Certificates of Registration (COR) issued to

VoIP Providers and Resellers is only valid for how many years?

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 3 years

d. 4 years

3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, each registered VoIP service

provider shall be assigned a VoIP service prefix “09xx”?

True

NTC MC NO. 10-11-2005

Subject: Guidelines on the Cablecasting of CATV Channels with “CHATROOM”

Formats

1. True or False. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, not all Cable TV (CATV)

stations cablecasting channels with “chat room” formats are required to employ the

use of Automated Filter Dictionary (AFD)?

False

2. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, the software for the Automatic Filter

Dictionary (AFD) has the capability to?

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a. Automatically mask pre-determined words or phrases not suitable for

cablecasting

b. Preview all messages prior to cablecasting

c. Provide the operator to edit or delete messages

d. ALL OF THE ABOVE

3. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, Cable TV (CATV) channels with “chat room”

formats refer to interactive channels that enable viewers to interact and send

messages via what?

a. E-mail

b. Facebook

c. SMS

d. Twitter

NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005

Subject: GUIDELINES FOR SHARING/CONSOLIDATION OF HEAD-END FACILITIES OF

CABLE TELEVISION STATIONS

1. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, the sharing of head-end facilities by two or

more CATV systems shall require the approval of?

National Telecommunications Commission (NTC).

2. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, aside from the petition, motion or application,

what else should be submitted to the Commission to officially file intent of

sharing/consolidation of head-end facilities of cable television stations?

MOA and technical feasibility report.

3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, existing CATV operator serving

adjoining/contiguous municipalities/cities is not allowed to consolidate its

individual head-end facilities into a single head-end station.

False.

NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006

Subject: PROGRAM STANDARDS FOR RADIO AND TV BROADCAST AND CABLE TV

STATIONS

1. It is the self-regulatory body for the broadcast media in the Philippines that is duly

recognized by the NTC.

Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster sa Pilipinas (KBP).

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2. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, KBP program standards are

being adopted by the NTC.

True.

3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, the members of the KBP are

allowed to include information that may identify the location of troops even if it’s a

highly sensitive issue.

False.

4. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, what branch of the KBP is duly recognized by

the NTC to consider and adjudicate all complaints against any KBP member?

KBP Standard Authority.

NTC MC NO. 14-07-2000

Subject: Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) for the Interconnection of

Authorized Public Telecommunications Entities

1. According to the NTC MO No. 14-07-2000 Section 4, it is mandatory for all duly

authorized PTEs to interconnect with one another. True or False?

True.

2. What Republic Act has effectively liberalized the telecommunications services and

has demonstrated its commitment to healthy and sustainable competition by

allowing multiple operations by local service providers in partnership with firms of

varying nationalities in most segments of the domestic and international

telecommunications markets?

Republic Act No. 7925

3. According to the NTC MC No. 14-07-2000, what network is used for the

interconnection of PTEs aside from using direct basis, provided that no additional

charges shall be passed on to end-users?

Inter-Exchange Carrier’s (IXC’s) network.

4. True or False.According to the NTC MC No. 14-07-2000, a supplier shall commit acts

constituting anti-competitive practices.

False

5. True or False. NTC has the power to set rates charged by local firms.

False

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Other Memorandum Circulars

1. MC No. 10-8-91. Can a foreigner who is living in the Philippines be qualified by the NTC

to have his or their own private radio communication network?

Applicants must be 100% Filipino or there are at least 60% Filipino

shareholders and 40% foreign shareholders in their company.

2. MC No. 2-05-88. What are needed in order to sell, manufacture, or purchase radio

communication equipment?

People who want to engage in the sales of radio communication equipment must

get certain permits issued by the NTC.

3. MC No. 01-03-2010. How much frequency band is allocated by the NTC for 3G?

10Mhz paired frequency band is allocated by NTC for 3G.

4. MC No. 09-04-94A. Who shall be authorized to be responsible in endorsing the approval

of renewing the amateur licenses?

A Class “A” licensed amateur radio operator or an Amateur Radio Club,

recommended by the Chairman of ARCP to the Commission, shall be responsible

to endorse the approval of the renewal of amateur licenses.

5. MC No. 09-04-94A. An Amateur Radio Consultative Panel (ARCP) is created under

Memorandum Circular No. 06-02-1994 for Amateur Radio Service. How should ARCP be

composed?

ARCP shall have 5 members

o 2 representatives from the Commission

o 2 class A amateurs (recommended by PARA – Philippine Amateur Radio

Association)

o 1 class A amateur with unquestionable reputation

6. MC No. 01-03-88. Yes or No. Can an Amateur Radio Enthusiast purchase a radio

transceiver from abroad?

Yes, provided that the person has been granted a Permit to Purchase from NTC.

If purchasing locally, the other party should have a Permit to Sell from NTC and

the equipment has been legally acquired (registered with the Commission).

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Divisions of NTC:

1. This division of the NTC is responsible for the development, formulation and

implementation of policies programs and operational standards relating to the

regulation and authorization of domestic and international telecommunications

carriers.

Common Carrier Authorization Department

2. This department of the NTC is responsible for planning, programming and project

development as well as the radio frequency spectrum management program; also

responsible for the standardization of telecommunications equipment and facilities.

Telecommunications Planning and Development Department

3. This department under the NTC undertakes functions relative to the registration of

radio transmitter / transceiver equipment, licensing of all radio stations, issuance of

Safety Radiotelegraphy / Radiotelephony Certificates for ships, recognition of radio

training schools.

Radio Regulations Licensing Department

4. Originally a part of RRLD, the _______ of the NTC has been elevated to Division status,

per DBM approval in 1988. It undertakes functions relating to the issuance of

Certificates of Public Convenience and Licenses for Radio and Television

Broadcasting Stations.

Broadcast Division

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D0 88 AND D0 11 FAQs for DO 88

1. When submitting an application for a radio station construction permit to the Radio

Control Office, What materials/requirements shall be supported when passing the permit?

- Engineering plan and design with corresponding specifications of the radio stations

2. Which types of telecommunication stations are exempted from the provisions of DO 88?

Amateur stations

Citizens Band Radio Stations

Land mobile or portable stations operating in the VHF/UHF microwave bands

Aircraft stations in the non-commercial service

Ship low power radio-telephone stations

Stations not utilized for commercial purposes

Stations operating on a non-multiplex basis with coverage area not to exceed 5 km

radius.

3. Who should supervise the installation or construction of a radio station, radio

communications system and broadcasting network?

- Registered ECE

4. Who is required to supervise the installation or construction of a radio communications

system comprised of less than 5 of any type of land radio stations?

- No One

5. What is the carrier power of a standard AM broadcast station that is exempted from the

provisions?

- Not exceeding 1 kW

6. What is the radiated power of a standard FM broadcast station that is exempted that is

from this provisions?

- Not exceeding 3 kW

7. What is The RF carrier power of a TV translator that is exempted from these provisions?

- Not exceeding 1 kW

8. What is the radiated power of TV RF power boosters that is exempted from the

provisions?

- Not exceeding 3 kW

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9. True or False. When modifying the frequency of an existing radio station a permit shall

not be granted unless the applicant applies another application.

- True

10. What Republic Act penalizes those who violates or not comply with any provision of

this order?

- Act No. 3846 and/or RA No. 5734

FAQS for DO11

1. It is a person, firm, company, association or corporation holding a certificate or written

authority issued by the National Telecommunications Commission to possess, own,

transfer, construct, manufacture, purchase or sell radio transmitters or transceivers or to

construct a radio station.

- Permittee

2. A person, firm, company, association or corporation legitimately engaged in the business

of buying and selling of radio transmitters and transceivers duly registered with the

National Telecommunications Commission.

- Dealer

3. What does this person need (Ans. to #2) in order to legitimately be engaged in buying or

selling of radio transmitter and transceivers?

- Dealer’s permit

4. Is a certificate or written authority issued by the National Telecommunications

Commission the construction or installation of a radio transmitter or transceiver or a

radio station as required by the these regulations.

- Construction permit

5. This is a certificate or written authority issued by the National Telecommunications

Commission to a person, firm, company, association or corporation, authorizing the

holder thereof to operate a radio station during the period specified in said instruments

or authorization.

- Radio station license

6. A radio communication service of transmission to be received by the general public. This

service may include transmissions of sounds or transmissions by television, facsimile or

other means.

- Broadcasting service

7. A station intended to be used while in motion or during halts at unspecified points.

- Mobile station

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8. A radio installation consisting of a separate radio transmitting apparatus or radio

receiving apparatus or a combination of radio transmitting and/or radio receiving

equipment including the accessory equipment for carrying on a definite radio

communication service.

- Radio station

9. A person, firm, company, association or corporation CAN possess or own radio

transmitters or transceivers without registering the same with the National

Telecommunications Commission. TRUE or FALSE.

- False

10. NO person, firm, company, association or corporation CAN construct or manufacture,

or purchase radio transmitters or transceivers without a permit issued by the

National Telecommunications Commission. TRUE or FALSE.

- True

11. What are the information that must be furnished upon registering radio

transmitters and transceivers in the National Telecommunications Commission?

Name and address

Location

Make, model and serial number.

Name and address of whom it is acquired.

Date acquired

If it is homemade/custom built, state the power, date, and the name and address.

12. What is first needed in order to construct and operate a radio transmitting station?

- Obtain a franchise from the Congress of the Philippines.

13. One must have this before the construction / installation of any Radio Station.

- Permit from the National Telecommunications Commission.

14. Given that you already have a permit, can you add an additional transmitter,

increase in power, change in location, antenna, etc. without prior notice? (Yes/No)

- No.

15. Who issues the Radio Station License?

- National Telecommunications Commission.

16. The duration of a Station License issued is three (3) years. (True/False)

- True.

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17. When should you apply for renewal of a station?

- 2 months before its expiration.

18. Who is the only allowed person to do the actual operation, tests and adjustment of

apparatus?

- Licensed Operators.

19. Station and Operator Licenses should be posted in the premises in their respected

places, transmitter and work place, respectively. (T/F)

- True

20. When can the station license be revoked?

When a false statement on material facts is made.

When the license fails to operate the station substantially in conformity with

the provisions.

For wilful violations of the radio laws and regulations.

21. What should happen to those transmitters and transceivers not in working condition

when acquired or those in working condition but which became unserviceable and not

intended to be rebuilt, repaired or reconditioned?

- Condemned and registered with the Radio Control Office

22. What happens to the radio equipment whose plates have been removed, changed, or

altered without proper authority?

- Subjected to confiscation

23. What happens to the permits issued to a permittee when the permittee provides

false information or material facts?

- Revocation of permits.

24. Who issues the permit to engage in the construction, manufacture, and Sale of Radio

Transmitters or Transceivers?

- National Telecommunications Commission

25. TRUE or FALSE. The change or transfer of ownership of a radio station, transmitter, or

transceiver without prior authority from the National Telecommunications Commission

is allowed.

- False

26. What provisions should a station observe with regards to operating procedures and

traffic handling in accordance with the radio service carried on by the station?

- International Radio Regulations

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27. What is the modulation limit of the emitted carrier?

- 100 % Modulation

28. What should license holders of radio stations have in order to keep its operations in

check?

- Log Book

29. What is the fine for any firm, association, company, or corporation for failing or refusing

to observe or violating any provision of these regulations?

- Not more than Php 5000

30. What will be assigned the frequency of broadcasting services, as well as fixed service,

whether domestic or international?

- A separate call sign

31. Who issues the permit to purchase to persons, firms, companies, associations, or

corporations in order for them to sell radio transmitters and transceivers?

- National Telecommunications Commission

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BECE 03-75: ECE practice in MATV, CATV, CCTV,

Paging, Background Music, Telephone and

Computer Installations

NTC MC No. 11-89: Radio Telephone Operator’s

Examination

PRC Resolution 217: Delisting of delinquent

professionals from the Roster

Information and Communications Technology

Office (ICTO)

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BECE 03-75: ECE practice in MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging, Background Music,

Telephone and Computer Installations

Article I. Limitation

1. Which of the following equipment/installations is not covered by the rules and

regulations in BECE 03-75:

A. Master Antenna Television

B. Community Antenna Television

C. Close Circuit Television

D. Paging System

E. Background Music System

F. Alarm System

G. Telephone Installation

H. Computer Installation

Answer: F. Alarm System

2. Who signs the required plans/specifications for the said equipment/installations?

Answer: Duly registered ECE

3. For all plans/specifications to be prepared/signed by a duly registered ECE, all

equipment and installation costs of all MATV, CATV, CCTV in a commercial or industrial

establishment must:

A. Exceed P25,000

B. Exceed P15,000

C. Exceed P10,000

Answer: A. Exceed P25,000

4. In commercial/industrial establishments, what amount should the cost of computer

installations be, before its plans/specifications have to be signed by a duly registered ECE?

Answer: An amount exceeding P100,000

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5. In telephone installation in a commercial or industrial establishment, more than how

many lines are required so that it should be provided with a service entrance?

Answer: 3 lines

6. What should be provided in a commercial/industrial establishment when there are more

than 3 telephone lines that will be installed?

Answer: Service Entrance

7. Should a registered ECE prepare, sign and seal the plans/specifications of the said

telephone installation?

Answer: Yes

Article II. Enforcement by officer of the law

8. The enforcement of the provisions of the implementing rules and regulations under

BECE 03-75 shall be the duty of ________,_________, _________, _________.

Answer: National Government, provincial, city or municipal Government, duly

constituted officers of the law

9. Who shall act as the legal adviser of the Board, and shall assist in upholding these rules

and regulations?

Answer: The Secretary of Justice

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NTC MC No. 11-89: Radio Telephone Operator’s Examination

10. Who shall conduct the Commercial Radiotelephone Operator’s Examination?

Answer: the Commission specifically, the National Telecommunications Commission

11. What do the Radio Control Law and Department Order No. 5 require radio operators to

have to be able to operate radio stations?

Answer: Commercial Radiotelephone Operator's Certificate

12. According to NTC MC No. 11-89, who are allowed to take the Commercial

Radiotelephone Operator's Examination?

Answer: ECE graduates (with valid Special Order No. from CHED)

13. True or False. The applicant who is an Electronics and Communications Engineering

graduate should have undergone a training/seminar on radio laws and regulations.

Answer: True

14. True or False. A certification from the applicant’s employer that he/she is performing

the duties of a radio operator is not one of the requirements to be able to take the exam.

Answer: False

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PRC Resolution 217: Delisting of delinquent professionals from the Roster

15. When will the certificate of registration of the registered professionals who have been

delinquent in the payment of the annual registration be suspended?

Answer: After the lapse of 5 consecutive years from the last year that the annual

registration was paid.

16. True or False. The professional regulatory boards may delist the names of the said

delinquent professionals from the Rolls of Registered Professionals with or without

surrender of their certificate of registration.

Answer: True

17. Would a professional be notified of his suspension beforehand?

Answer: Yes

18. What are the forms of notification?

Answer:

1. The delinquent registrant is notified about the commission’s intention at his/her

address on file with his/her records

2. The details of the delinquent registrant is published in a newspaper of a general

circulation.

19. True or False. The professional has the right to reason himself/herself from the said

enforcement.

Answer: True

20. How many days from the said notification shall be given for the submission of avalid

justification of the delinquency of payment before the suspension and/or delisting of the

said registrant?

Answer: 30 days

21. What can a delinquent do to make amends and have his/her name returned to the list

of registered professionals?

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Answer: If practicable, in certain cases, substitute services by publication in the

Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation pursuant to the Rules of

Court may be allowed.

22. Would it be considered a crime when a professional skips annual registration to the

point of the suspension of his certificate of registration?

Answer: No

23. True or False. The professional who has been suspended and delisted from the Rolls of

Registered Professional list shall be held criminally liable for illegal practice of their

profession if they practiced during the period of suspension.

Answer: True

24. When shall be the registered professional’s name whose certificate has been suspended

be reinstated or re-enrolled in the Rolls of Registered Professionals, his/her certificate be

returned, and his/her license be renewed?

Answer:

1. Upon filing of application

2. Compliance with the Continuing Education (CPE) requirement (unless exempted)

3. Payment of the annual registration fees (professional license fee) and surcharge of

every calendar year

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Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO)

Executive Order No. 47

25. Under what law was the Commission on Information and Communications Technology

(CICT) renamed as the Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO)?

Answer: Executive Order No. 47

26. The Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO) is placed under the

policy, technical and administrative supervision of what department?

Answer: Department of Science and Technology (DOST)

27. The ICTO shall be headed by whom?

Answer: Executive Director, with the rank of an Undersecretary who shall report

directly to the DOST Secretary.

Overview

28. Which of the following are areas of ICTO’s primary thrusts for 2011-2016:

A. ICT Industry Development

B. E-Government

C. ICT Policy Development

D. ICT Infrastructure and Cyber Security

E. All of the above

Answer: E

Executive Order No. 47, s. 2011

29. Who has the power and control over executive departments, bureaus and offices, as

well as the continuing authority under existing laws to reorganize such executive

departments, bureaus and agencies?

Answer: The President

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30. True or false. One of the functions of ICTO is to formulate, recommend and implement

an appropriate policy and program framework that will promote the rapid development

and improve global competitiveness of our country’s information and communications

technology industry through research and development and through effective linkages to

industry.

Answer: True

31. NTC ensures the provision of efficient and effective information and communications

technology infrastructure, information systems and resources to support efficient, effective,

transparent and accountable governance and, in particular, support the speedy and

efficient enforcement of rules and delivery of accessible public services to the people

Answer: False, ICTO is in charge of it.

32. How does ICTO improve the quality of Information and Communications Technology

(ICT) education and the production of globally competitive ICT manpower?

Answer: By continuing research and development in partnership with academic

institutions

33. How can ICTO help in building the capacities of public sector institutions and their

personnel?

Answer: By using ICT for the improvement in planning, management, delivery of

mission, critical functions and monitoring and evaluation.

34. True or False. The NTC is in charge of the formulation of the Government Information

System Plan and administering the E-Governance Fund.

Answer: False, ICTO is in charge of it.

Section3

35. What is transferred to DOST and will form part of the internal structure of ICTO?

Answer: National Computer Center (NCC) and Telecommunications Office (TELOF)

Section 4

36. True or False. The National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) and the Philippine

Postal Corporation (PHILPOST) are under DOST.

Answer: False. NTC and PHILPOST are under the Office of the President.

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ICTO Strategic Thrust

37. What are the strategic plans of ICTO?

A. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT

B. E-GOVERNMENT

C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT

D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY

E. All of the above

38. What strategic plan is used to ensure that ICT access and internet opportunities are

available for the entire country by developing effective and sustainable and strategic ICT

infrastructures?

A. E-GOVERNMENT

B. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT

C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT

D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY

39. What strategic plan is used to create interactions between the government and citizens

which allows citizens to have easy access to information and services by strategically

engaging them through digital channels?

A. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY

B. E-GOVERNMENT

C. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT

D. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT

40. What strategic plan is used for the development and implementation of comprehensive

programs to ensure the continuous growth and competitiveness of ICT industry sectors?

A. E-GOVERNMENT

B. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT

C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT

D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY

41. What strategic plan is used to help ICTO in formulating ICT policies, implementing

plans and programs that could help provide research support for e-Government, e-

Business and e-Society concerns?

A. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY

B. E-GOVERNMENT

C. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT

D. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT

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ICTO Projects

42. What is not part of the projects of ICTO?

A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

B. Government Fiber Core Network

C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network

D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

E. Bluetooth Technology for Medical Applications

F. Internet TV Testbed

43. What kind of Cloudtop project of ICTO in cooperation with DOST - Technological

Research Center (TRC) is used to aim in the reduction of hardware acquisition costs for

computers?

Answer: Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

44. The Cloudtop project is able to reduce hardware acquisition costs by using which of the

following?

A. Thin client and cloud computing for educational use

B. Government cloud applications

C. Sustainable energy solutions.

D. All of the Above

45. What Project of ICTO aims to use the unused frequencies for television for data

connection?

A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

B. Government Fiber Core Network

C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network

D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

E. Internet TV Testbed

46. It is the essential component of ICTO’s E-Government that will utilize existing

government assets.

A. Internet TV Testbed

B. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network

D. Government Fiber Core Network

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E. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

47. What Project of ICTO is used to upgrade microwave network links between existing

government-owned and private sector source data networks by using microwave links to

be able to provide redundancy between these networks?

A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

B. Government Fiber Core Network

C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network

D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

E. Internet TV Testbed

48. In cooperation with partners in Industry and Academe, what project of ICTO that will

be used to deliver digital contents and will be a key for public applications?

A. Internet TV Testbed

B. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools

C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network

D. Government Fiber Core Network

E. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)

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EO 109 and EO 59 Executive Order (EO) NO. 59

PRESCRIBING THE POLICY GUIDELINES FOR COMPULSORY INTERCONNECTION OF

AUTHORIZED PUBLIC TELECOMMUNICATIONS CARRIERS IN ORDER TO CREATE A

UNIVERSALLY ACCESSIBLE AND FULLY INTEGRATED NATIONWIDE

TELECOMMUNICATIONS NETWORK AND THEREBY ENCOURAGE GREATER PRIVATE

SECTOR INVESTMENT IN TELECOMMUNICATIONS

1.When was EO 59 created?

a. February 24, 1994

b. February 24, 1993

c. February 29, 1993

d. February 14, 1993

2. TRUE or FALSE. It is compulsory for public telecommunications carriers to provide

interconnection.

Answer: True. Telecommunications carriers should be interconnected to allow

one carrier to access a subscriber of another carrier.

3. What are the requirements when establishing and maintaining interconnection

between carriers?

Answer: There should be sufficient capacity and in sufficient number to meet

traffic demands.

4. TRUE or FALSE. Interconnection of other telecommunications services such as radio

paging, trunking radio, store and forward systems, etc., shall be mandatory

Answer: True. Interconnection is mandatory for telecommunications services

that the NTC determines to be in the interest of the public and allows for a

universally accessible, fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network.

5. How long do two parties have to negotiate interconnection terms before the NTC

intervenes?

Answer: Negotiation between parties have ninety (90) days from the date of

notice to the NTC before the NTC intervenes. After this time, the NTC will be the

one to determine the terms and conditions for aspects that the parties did not

agree upon so as to have a workable interconnection and traffic settlement.

25

6. When is the rerouting of calls from an international gateway operator to another

international gateway allowed?

Answer: In the event of strikes, lock-outs, disasters, calamities and similar causes,

calls are permitted to be rerouted to another international gateway operator that

is still operative.

7. How are the connection rates determined?

Answer: A per minute rate shall be evolved with day and night differential. The

rate is based on the principle of recognizing recovery of the toll related cost and

return of the investment of the facilities used to make the tall call exchange.

8. In what manner do telecommunication companies interconnect?

Answer: Non-discriminatory.

9. Who is responsible for detailing, assigning and approving of costs and division of

income from the Interconnection of telecommunications networks using Points of

Connection (PC) between public telecommunication carriers’?

a. Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)

b. President of the Philippines

c. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC)

d. Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster ng Pilipinas (KBP)

10. Who must share with the interconnection cost, maintain and operate their facilities in

accordance with their obligation as approved by the NTC?

a. Interconnecting Parties

b. President of the Philippines

c. Citizens of the Philippines

d. Supplier

11. What may be revoked, revised or amended by the NTC as it deems fit in the public

service interest?

Answer: Interconnection and revenue-sharing agreements

12. Who may impose penalties, i.e. administrative fines or sanctions, when any of the

provisions is violated?

a. Department of Defence (DoD)

b. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC)

c. Department of Justice (DOJ)

d. Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR)

26

13. Who withholds any government loan or credit accommodation of the violating carrier

or operator from government financial or lending institutions?

Answer: President of the Philippines

14. Who, from the violating carrier or operator, cannot be disqualified from being

employed in any enterprise or entity supervised by the NTC?

a. Employees

b. Officers

c. Lawyer

d. Directors

15. Whose services cannot be disrupted even if there is a suspension of authorized rates

from any violating carrier or operator?

a. Public

b. Private

c. Voluntary Services

16. From section 14 of EO 59, it states that ‘NTC is directed to promulgate the

implementing rules to this Executive Order within how many days from the date of

effect’?

Answer: 90 days

27

Executive Order (EO) NO.109 – July 12, 1993

POLICY TO IMPROVE THE PROVISION OF LOCAL EXCHANGE CARRIER SERVICE

Note: The answer to a multiple choice question is the one that is in bold.

1. When was EO 109 implemented?

a. July 12, 1993

b. March 10, 1990

c. December 1, 1996

d. November 1, 1992

2. All of these are targets of the National Telecommunication Development Plan (NTDP) of

the Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC) except for:

a. To ensure the orderly development of the telecommunication sector through the

provision of service to all areas of the country

b. To generate adequate funds in order to further extend the provision of

local exchange services

c. To satisfy unserviced demand for telephones

d. To provide healthy competition among authorized service providers

3. In order to subsidize funds for the development of the local exchange service, funds

may be generated from:

a. National, international long distance and other telecommunications

services

b. Local and international sponsorships

c. Fund Raising activities

d. Cellular Mobile Telephone Systems (CMTS) only

4. Refers to a telecommunications service, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice

service, within a contiguous geographic area are furnished to individual.

a. Basic Telecommunication Service

b. Local Exchange Service

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

5. Refers to local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph

service without additional features.

a. Basic Telecommunication Service

b. Local Exchange Service

c. Both a and b

28

d. None of the above

6. Refers to a system of pricing in which the actual cost of providing service establishes

the basic charge to which a fixed mark-up is added to collect a standard charge to all

users without discrimination.

a. Value based pricing

b. Cost based Pricing

c. Actual Pricing

d. Neutral Pricing

7. Refers to a system of pricing where cost of service establishes the minimum charge and

a variable mark-up is added to collect revenue from those who value the service more

highly.

a. Value based pricing

b. Cost based Pricing

c. Actual Pricing

d. Neutral Pricing

8. Refers to the availability of reliable and affordable telecommunications service in both

urban and rural areas of the country.

a. Global Mobility

b. International Accessibility

c. Basic Telecommunication Service

d. Universal Access

9. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 2, the objective of this policy is to improve the

provision of local exchange service in UNSERVED AREAS ONLY as defined by the

National Telecommunications Commission (NTC).

Answer: FALSE. Unserved and underserved areas are both improved as stated by

the NTC.

10. Section 3 includes what policy that covers the ownership and operation of

telecommunication facilities and services?

a. Policy of Telecommunications

b. Policy of Democratization

c. Policy of Nation Alliance

d. Policy of Communism

29

11. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 4, local exchange service shall continue to be cross

subsidized by other telecommunication services within the same company as long as

universal access telecommunications service is achieved and such service is priced to

reflect the actual cost.

Answer: TRUE

12. TRUE or FALSE. Authorized international gateway operators shall be required to

provide local exchange service in unserved and underserved areas, including Metro

Manila, within 3 years from the grant of an authority from the NTC.

Answer: TRUE

13. How many local exchange lines per international switch termination must an

authorized gateway operator should provide?

a. A minimum of 300 lines

b. A minimum of 5000 lines and a maximum of 500,000 lines

c. 10 (per subscriber)

d. 10 million lines both for local and international services

14. For every rural exchange line, how many urban exchange lines must be installed?

a. 40

b. 20

c. 30

d. 10

15. TRUE or FALSE. The establishment of Public Calling Offices at rural barangay level need

the appropriate credit by NTC in order to provide local exchange service.

Answer: TRUE

16. TRUE or FALSE. Carriers already providing local exchange service in accordance to

sections 5.a, 5.b and 5.c shall be authorized to operate an international gateway.

Answer: TRUE

17. Authorized international gateway operators may also be authorized to provide?

Answer: Cellular Mobile Telephone System (CMTS) services and non-basic

telecommunications service

18. TRUE or FALSE. A subsidiary of a public telecommunications carrier that is operating

an authorized international gateway is allowed to operate another gateway.

30

Answer: FALSE. The subsidiaries of a public telecommunication carrier operating

an authorized international gateway shall not be allowed to operate another

gateway in accordance with Executive Order No. 59 (1993)

19. Authorized providers of non-basic telecommunications service shall be required to

provide local exchange carrier service in accordance with guidelines rules and

regulations prescribed by the:

a. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)

b. National Telecommunication Commission (NTC)

c. KapisananngmgaBrodkasterngPilipinas (KBP)

d. National Broadcasters Association (NAB)

20. TRUE or FALSE. Telecommunications service providers shall provide equivocal

financial reports.

Answer: FALSE

21. How many years does an existing telecommunications service provider have to comply

with the above requirements in order to provide local exchange services?

a. 1 year

b. 3 years

c. 5 years

d. 10 years

22. TRUE or FALSE. International Gateway Facility, Cellular Mobile System (CMTS), and

other Value added Services (VAS)pending and existing applications do not need to

revise their applications.

Answer: TRUE

23. TRUE or FALSE. All telecommunications service networks shall be interconnected in a

non-discriminatory manner.

Answer: TRUE

24. Who was the president when this executive order 59 and 109 were promulgated?

a. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo

b. Joseph Ejercito Estrada

c. Fidel Ramos

d. Ferdinand Emmanuel Edralin Marcos

31

RA 7925 1. What is the process in which it enables a telecommunications entity to relay and

receive voice, data, electronic messages, written or printed matter, fixed or moving

pictures, words, music or visible or audible signals or any control signals of any design and

for any purpose by wire, radio or other electromagnetic, spectral, optical, or technological

means.

a. Telecommunications

b. Public Telecommunications

c. Private Telecommunications

d. Authorized Telecommunications

2. Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, that is engaged in

the provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation.

a.Public telecommunications entity

b. Public telecommunications government

c. Public telecommunications group

d. Public telecommunications organization

3.An undertaking, the object of which is to transmit over-the-air commercial radio or

television messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographic area.

a.Transmission

b. Broadcasting

c. Regulation

d. Communication

4. What is the privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,

authorizing that entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?

Franchise

5. An entity providing transmission and switching of any telecommunications

services, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service, in a geographic area

anywhere in the Philippines.

a. Local Exchange Operator

b. Local Switch Operator

c. Local Trunk Operator

d. Local Geographic Operator

32

6. An entity, sometimes referred to as carrier's carrier or national backbone network

operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges

within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long

distance services.

a. Intra-exchange carrier

b. Inner-exchange carrier

c. Inter-exchange carrier

d. Local-exchange carrier

7. An entity primarily engaged in the business of providing transmission and switching

of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any other point of

the world to which it has an existing correspondent or prospective interconnection

agreements.

a. Global carrier

b. International carrier

c. World carrier

d. Host carrier

8. It is an entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution

facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers

enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided for by such carriers. Value-

added service provider (VAS)

9. A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate

fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages.

a. Public toll calling station

b. Public toll station

c. Public toll static station

d. Public toll dynamic station

10. True or False. Mobile radio telephone system is a wide area mobile radio telephone

system with its own switch, base stations and transmission facilities capable of providing

high capacity mobile telecommunications by utilizing radio frequencies.

True.

11. True or False. Intra-connection is the linkage, by wire, radio, satellite or other means,

of two or more existing telecommunication carriers or operators with one another for the

purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or

reach the subscribers of the other carriers or operators.

33

False (Interconnection)

12. What is/are the fundamental objective/s of the government?

I. Develop and maintain a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunication

Infrastructure.

II. Use the best available and affordable technologies, as a vital tool to nation

building and Development.

III. Develop and produce professional engineers that may help in improving, not

only the technology, but also the socio-civic and economy of the country.

a. I and II only

b. I and III only

c. II and III only

d. All of the above

13. True or False. The expansion of the telecommunications network shall give

priority to improving and extending basic services to areas not yet served. For this

purpose, government shall promote a fair, efficient and responsive market to stimulate

the growth and development of the telecommunications facilities and services, with

emphasis on the accessibility by persons to basic services in unserved and underserved

areas at affordable rates.

True

14. Who will allocate the radio frequency spectrum to service providers?

a. Government

b. Enterprise

c. President

d. Congress

15. Rates and tariff charges shall be fair, just, and reasonable and for this purpose, the

regulatory body shall develop a tariff structure that is based on what?

I. Socio-economic factors

II. Financial, technical and commercial criteria

III. Business factors

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. All of the above

16. Public telecommunications services shall be provided by who?

a. Government

34

b. Private Enterprises

c. All of the above

17. True or False. A healthy competitive environment shall be fostered, one in which

telecommunications carriers are free to make business decisions and to interact

with one another in providing telecommunications services, with the end in view of

encouraging their financial viability while maintaining affordable rates.

True

18.True or False. A fair and reasonable interconnection of facilities of authorized public

network operators and other providers of telecommunications services is necessary in

order to achieve a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunications services.

True

19.True or False. The government shall give some of the assistance and

encouragement to Philippine international carriers in order to establish

interconnection with other countries so as to provide access to international

communications highways on a competitive basis.

False; ALL

20. For efficiency, practicability, and convenience, but with due regard to the observance of

due process at all times, regulation of telecommunications entities shall rely

principally on a/an _________ process that is stable, transparent and fair, giving due

emphasis to technical, legal, economic and financial considerations.

a. Tributary

b. Administrative

c. None of the above

21. True or False.Any single franchise shall authorize an entity to engage in both and

broadcasting, either through the airwaves or by cable. (False, NO single franchise shall

authorize)

22.True or False. Ownership of public telecommunications entities to as wide a

number of people as possible, preferably to its customers, in order to encourage

efficiency and public accountability and to tap personal savings shall be encouraged. (True)

23. What do/does support the development of telecommunications?

I. Human Resources skills

II. Manufacturing industry

a. I

35

b. II

c. I and II

d. None of the above

24. True or False. The DOTC serves as the principal administrator of R.A. 7295. They take

necessary measures to implement the policies and objectives of this Act

- False || National Telecommunications Commission (NTC)

25. True or False. The NTC facilitates an administrative process for the entry of qualified

service providers and adopts a pricing policy to provide basic telecommunications services

in unserved and undeserved areas.

- True || Adopt a pricing policy that would generate sufficient returns to

encourage basic telecommunications services in unserved and undeserved

areas

26. True or False. The DOTC shall not exercise any power which will tend to influence or

effect a review or a modification of the Commission’s quasi-judicial functions.

- True || Although this is true, the NTC is now under the Office of the President

and not the DOTC

27. Which of the following telecommunications categories would a telecommunications

entity may be authorized to operate?

a. Local Exchange Operator

b. Inter-Exchange Carrier

c. International Carrier

d. Value-Added Service Provider

e. All of the above

* e. || A franchise shall be authorized to operate in one or more

telecommunications category provided that each of its categories is covered

by the franchise.

29. The number of entities allowed to provide inter-exchange national long distance

services may be limited, but as a matter of policy, where it is economically viable, at least

two (2) carriers, shall be authorized.

- True

30. Providing local exchange services is not required for a telecommunications entity to be

allowed to operate as an international carrier given that it can demonstrably show

technical and financial capability to install and operate an international gateway facility.

36

- False || An international carrier has to comply with its obligation to provide

local exchange service in unserved and undeserved areas within 3 years from

the grant of authority.

31. A VAS provider shall be allowed to competitively offer its services and/or expertise, and

lease or rent telecommunications equipment and facilities necessary to provide such

specialized services, in the domestic and/or international market in accordance with

network compatibility. Provided that it does not put up its own network, a Value-Added

Service Provider need not secure a franchise.

- True

32. In a local telephone exchange area, only one duly enfranchised provider of mobile radio

services, distinct and separate from the local exchange carrier, may be allowed to operate.

- False

|| More than one duly enfranchised provider may be allowed to operate

|| Such entities shall secure prior authority from the Commission, comply with

the conditions imposed on the VAS, and with the norms on radio frequency

spectrum utilization

33. The operator of a mobile radio telephone system shall comply its obligations to provide

local exchange service in unserved and underserved areas in accordance with existing

regulations. Failure to comply with this obligation within _________ from the grant of the

authority shall be a cause to cancel its authority or permit to operate a mobile radio

telephone system.

a. one (1) year

b. two (2) years

c. three (3) years

34. The Commission allows telecommunications subscribers to use type approved terminal

equipments, such as telephone, PABX, facsimile, data, record, message and other special-

purpose or multi-function telecommunication terminal equipment intended for such

connection.

- True.

35. The radio frequency allocation and assignment will only be reviewed once.

- False. The radio frequency spectrum allocation and assignment shall be

subject to periodic review.

36. If in case the demand for specific frequencies exceeds availability, the Commission shall

hold a bidding process and ensure wider access to this limited resource.

- True.

37

37. True or False. The owner should obtain a franchise before conducting the public

telecommunications business entity.

- True.

38. What are the conditions that the Commission may impose in granting the Certificate of

Public Convenience and Necessity (CPCN)?

A. The duration and termination of owning a franchise

B. The standard or technical aspects of the equipments

C. Rates and services

D. All of the above

39. Which of the following circumstance/s does not require the approval of the

Commission?

A. Expansion and financing of network and services in order to service additional

demand in the same areas where the previously approved network have been

installed.

B. The upgrading of existing plant and network facilities to improve the quality of

service.

C. Both A and B.

D. None of the above.

40. The Commission shall establish rates and tariffs which are fair and reasonable and

which provide for the economic viability of telecommunications entities and a fair return

on their investments considering the prevailing cost of capital in the domestic and

international markets.

- True.

41. When can the Commission exempt any specific telecommunications service from its

rate or tariff regulations?

A. When the telecommunications service has no competition

B. When the telecommunications service has paid the prescribed fee

C. When the telecommunications service has requested for exemption

D. When the telecommunications service has sufficient competition

42. Upon which conditions can the Commission re-impose rate and tariff regulations after

exemption of a telecommunications service?

A. When ruinous competition results

B. When a monopoly or a cartel exists

C. When the rates and tariffs are unable to function freely

D. The public is adversely affected

E. All of the above.

38

43. All access charge/revenue sharing between all interconnecting carriers are arranged by

the Commission.

- False.

The access charge/revenue sharing arrangements between all

interconnecting carriers shall be negotiated between the parties and the

agreement between the parties shall be submitted to the Commission.

44. International carriers and mobile radio operators which are mandated to provide local

exchange services shall be exempted from the requirement to provide the cross-subsidy

when they interconnect with the local exchanges of other carriers.

- False.

45. Telecommunications entities are required to set up a uniform system of accounts which

shall be one of the bases in establishing rates and tariffs.

- True.

46. What kind of service, which is non-discriminatory, reliable, and conforming to the

minimum standards set by the Commission, should be entitled to telecommunications

users as part of their basic rights?

Answer: Utility Service

47. When should a FIRST single-line connection be given to the user upon application for

service against deposit?

a. Within 1 week

b. Within 1 month

c. Within 2 weeks

d. Within 2 months

48. When should a FIRST party-line connection be given to a group of users or barangay,

given that the targeted commencement of service per the original schedule of service

expansion has passed by already?

a. Within 3 weeks

b. Within 3 months

c. Within 2 weeks

d. Within 2 months

49. True or False: Regular, timely and accurate billing AND courteous and efficient service

at utility business offices and by utility company personnel are BOTH basic rights of

telecommunications users.

Answer: True

39

50. Complaints received over the telephone will be entertained but users should still make

a formal and written complaint for it to be given prompt and thorough investigation and,

proper and necessary actions.

Answer: False

51. Aside from facilities currently being planned under various bilateral funding

arrangements, telecommunications facilities will and shall be privatized under what

conditions:

I. When they are operated by the government for public use

II. When they are currently owned by the government for public use

a. I and II

b. I or III

c. I and/or II

52. Any advantage, favour, privilege, exemption, or immunity granted under existing

franchises shall become part of previously granted telecommunications franchises

provided that this will not apply nor affect:

a. Territory covered by the franchise

b. Life span of the franchise

c. Type of service authorized by the franchise

d. ALL of the above

53. What kind of certificate, stating the areas covered and date the grantee shall commence

the service, should a franchise applied for or secured, to operate and not be deemed

revoked?

Answer: Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity

40

RA 9292

RA-9292 is also known as?

“ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING LAW OF 2005”

1. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems

involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge

a. Electronic Analysis

b. Electronics

c. Engineering Physics

d. Digital Communications

2. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed

Professional Electronics Engineer and affix to his/her name the letters "PECE“ is

called:

a. Electronics Technician

b. Professional Electronics Engineer

c. Electronics and communications engineer

d. Electronics Teacher

3. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of

data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual,

numeric is called:

a. Information systems

b. Information overload

c. Information and communications technology

d. Information inquiry

4. It is the process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or

messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or

other devices and wired or wireless medium

a. Communications

b. Telecommunications

c. Broadcasting

d. Networking

5. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text,

written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or

visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control

41

signals by wire, radio or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means

is:

a. Communications

b. Telecommunications

c. Broadcasting

d. Networking

6. ________ is an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images

or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical

area via wired or wireless means.

a. Sari-Sari store

b. Computer shop

c. Industrial Plant

d. Commercial Establishment

7. _______includes all manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors

where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed

and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.

a. Sari-Sari store

b. Computer shop

c. Industrial Plant

d. Commercial Establishment

8. Any building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-

controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold,

maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated is called:

a. Sari-Sari store

b. Computer shop

c. Industrial Plant

d. Commercial Establishment

e.

9. What are the categories of engineering and technician that are covered in RA-9292?

(a) Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE)

(b) Electronics Engineer (ECE)

(c) Electronics Technician (ECT)

10. What is the nature of practice of an Electronics technician?

consist of non-engineering work relating to “installation, construction,

operation, maintenance of electronic devices and apparatus” including the

42

teaching and training of technical and professional subjects given in the

electronics technician curriculum and licensure examinations.

11. What is the difference of the nature of practice of an Electronics Engineer and a

Professional Electronics Engineer?

a Professional Electronics Engineer has the sole authority to provide

consulting services and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit

applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents prepared

by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision

12. The seal of design of a Professional Electronics Engineer should have the following

details except:

a. Registrant`s name

b. Registration number

c. Title (PECE,ECE)

d. Date of Registration

13. Who shall promulgate the code of ethics for Electronics engineer and technician?

The Board shall adopt a Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of

Practice for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, which shall be

promulgated by the “Accredited Professional Organization”. -Article IV-section

30

14. No person shall offer himself/herself in the Philippines as, or use the title

"Professional Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics

Technician", as defined in RA-9292 without holding a valid Certificate of

Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card

TRUE

15. No firm, company, partnership, association or corporation may be registered or

licensed as such for the practice of electronics engineering and electronics

technician.

TRUE

16. The Board of Electronics Engineering composes of the following:

a. 1 chairman, 2 members

b. 1 chairman, 3 members

c. 2 chairman, 2 members

d. 2 chairman, 1 member

43

17. What is not included in the power and functions of the Board below?

a. Administer/implement the Provisions of this Act

b. Maintain the Roster of PECE, Electronics Engineers, Electronic Technicians

c. Issue, suspend or revoke Certificates of Registration and Identification Card

d. Power to Close a School

18. What is not included in the Qualifications of Board Members below?

a. Be of good moral character and integrity;

b. Be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional

Identification Card as a Professional Electronics Engineer

c. Be atleast 40 years of age

d. Be a member of good standing of the Accredited Professional Organization

19. How long is the term of office of the members of the Board?

a. 5 years

b. 4 years

c. 2 years

d. 3 years

20. Who can remove or suspend any members of the Board?

a. President of the Philippines

b. President of the accredited professional organization

c. senator

d. engineer

21. To be eligible in the licensure examination, what are the qualifications?

For ECE/Electronics Engineer:

- A citizen of the Philippines

- With a good moral character

- A holder of degree in Bachelor of Science in ECE/Electronics Engineering

For Electronics Technician:

- A graduate of Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational Course in Electronics

- Completed atleast the minimum 3rd year equivalent of BS in ECE/Electronics

Engineering

22. What are the scopes of the examination?

- Mathematics,

- Applied Sciences

- Engineering Economics

- Laws and Ethics

44

- Electronics

- Communications

- Computers and Information & Communication Technology

23. What should be the passing rate?

70%

24. How long will the result come out?

- Within 15 days after taking the board exam; today only 3 days

25. In applying for PECE, what are the qualifications needed?

- A valid certificate of registration and professional identification card as

electronics engineer

- Valid/current membership identification card from the Accredited

Professional Organization

- A certified experience of record of active self-practice and/or employment

for at least 7 years

*Accompanied by 3 PECE signed certificates for the factuality of documents

26. When can an applicant for PECE register?

- anytime and will have an en banc oral interview scheduled by the Board.

27. To whom can the certificate of Registration & Professional Identification Card be

issued?

- Examinees who passed the Electronics Engineer & Electronics Technician

licensure examination

- Registered PECE

- Registered Electronics Technicians without examination

(all subject to payment fees)

28. Can suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card &

Cancellation of Special Permits happen?

- Yes, if such actions violated any of the rules and regulations from the Act,

Code of Ethics, and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. Also includes

falsifying any documents used in practice, malpractice, incompetency and

mentally ill.

29. What are the requirements for registration without examination for Electronics

Technicians?

45

- Must be a graduate of at least a 2-year Associate, Technician, Trade or

Vocational course in Electronics

- Completed at least the minimum 3rd year equivalent of Bachelor’s Degree of

Science in ECE or Electronics engineering program

- Has at least 7 years of active self-practice and/or employment all

accompanied by 3 PECE signed certificates for factuality of records

30. Can I have my Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card re-

issued after being revoked?

- Yes, 2 years after the revocation provided that no any illegal practice,

violation of this Act, rules, codes, and policies were done during the time of

revocation.

31. What happens to lost, destroyed or mutilated certificate or registration card?

- It can be re-issued but subject to the rules promulgated by the Commission.

32. How frequently should the Board prepare and maintain the roster of information of

all registered PECEs, ECEs and ECTs?

a. Every time results of the exams are released

b. Every year

c. Every 6 months

d. Every 15 days after the release of exam results

33. T or F. Anyone who wishes to may acquire license information from PRC.

TRUE

34. Y or N. May anyone be exempted from licensure examination and registration?

YES, provided that…

a. He/She is a foreign PECE, ECE or ECT license holder;

b. No Filipino for the job;

c. His/Her contract says temporary;

d. His/Her contract defines and limits the job;

e. He/She cannot have a private practice;

35. For every 1 foreign professional hired, how many Filipino counterpart/s should be

there?

At least 2 Filipinos

36. The permit lasts no more than __ & renewable every __.

e. 3 mos. & 3 mos.

f. 6 mos. & 3 mos.

46

g. 6 mos. & 6 mos.

h. 12 mos. & 10 mos.

37. There should be 1 Accredited Professional Organization (APO) of PECEs, ECEs and

ECTs in the country recognized by the PRC. What is this organization?

IECEP

38. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long (year/s) were the previously licensed

PECEs, ECEs and ECTs given to register themselves as members of the APO?

3 years

39. T or F. A professional has the option to not study further but still keep his/her status

provided that he/she wouldn’t change his/her field.

FALSE

40. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long a time is the local government given to

fill out all its existing and proposed PECE, ECE and ECT positions?

3 years

41. What are the punishable crimes listed under Section 35 of RA 9292?

a. Giving wrong information to get a certification

b. Permitting another person to use his/her license (valid or not)

c. Presenting a revoked or suspended license

d. Assuming the job of a professional when one is not

e. Signing a document prepared by another person unless the signee’s work is

specified (i.e. collaboration)

f. Violating one’s privacy rights: Electronic eavesdropping:

- wiretapping

- hacking

g. Violating one’s intellectual property rights:

- cracking

- cloning

- piracy

47

42. The fine to be paid for committing a crime against RA 9292 ranges:

From not

lessthan

To no

more than

a. P100,000 P1,000,000

b. P10,000 P1,000,000

c. P200,000 P2,000,000

d. P20,000 P2,000,000

43. The duration of imprisonment for a committed felon ranges:

From not

less than

To no

more than

a. 8 months 8 years

b. 7 months 7 years

c. 6 months 6 years

d. 5 months 5 years

44. T or F. Upon the effectivity of RA 9292, ECEs with valid Certificates of Registration

shall automatically be registered as Electronics Engineers.

TRUE, in a sense that…

a. They don’t need to take the exam;

b. They shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and ID with the same

license number;

c. They pay the prescribed fees and submit other requirements.

48

Amendment to PD 1096; IRR of RA 9292;

CPE Matrix; Memo on RA9292

I. CPE Matrix

1. In what year was the 5th resolution for RA 9292 promulgated?

Answer: 2008

2. This is the inculcation, assimilation and acquisition of knowledge, skills,

proficiency and ethical and moral values, after the initial registration of a

professional.

Answer: Continuing Professional Education (CPE)

3. TRUE or FALSE: There is one chairperson and three members in the PRC CPE

Council.

Answer: False, 2 members

4. The PRC CPE Council’s functions include the following:

a. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE

providers

b. Accept, evaluate and approve application for exemptions from CPE

requirements

c. Monitor the implementation by the CPE providers of their programs

d. All of the Above

e. None of the Above

Answer: d. All of the Above

5. Who submits the annual reports and minutes of regular meetings?

a. Chairperson

b. Secretariat

Answer: a. Chairperson

6. TRUE or FALSE. IECEP CPE Council, which is the counterpart of CPE Council, is

not allowed to ask for reimbursement of reasonably processing fess directly

from the applicants.

Answer: FALSE

49

7. To whom does a provider submits programs, activities, or sources to be

approved and accredited for CPE units?

Answer: PRC CPE Council

*From nos. 11-20, the terms are defined in accordance to the guidelines for CPE programs,

activities or sources.

8. It refers to the gathering of professionals which shall include, among others,

workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-degree training

courses and scientific meetings.

Answer: Seminar

9. It refers to a gathering of professionals which shall include, among others,

conferences, symposia or assemblies for round table discussions.

Answer: Convention

10. It refers to a graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related

field from a recognized school, college or university.

Answer: Masteral Degree

11. It refers to a post graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related

field from a recognized school, college or university.

Answer: Doctoral Degree

12. It refers to the ownership of intellectual property which includes technical or

professional books, instructional materials and the like. Credits earned must be

claimed within one (1) year from the date of publication.

Answer: Authorship

13. It refers to learning which uses course manuals or accredited learning modules.

Accredited Learning modules include self-instructional materials or programs

which may be in the form of printed manual, audio and video cassette tapes,

films, computer-assisted learning (CAL), study kits, learning aids and modules or

the use of the information highway. These should include among others clearly

defined objectives, adequate content and an evaluation component for each

module.

Answer: Self-Directed Learning Package

14. It is a training or specialization at the post graduate level for a minimum period of one (1) week.

50

Answer: Post Graduate/In-Service Training

15. It refers to a professional who acts as discussion leader or lecturer in a

convention or seminar or similar gathering.

Answer: Resource Speaker

16. It refers to a professional who acts as an evaluator of a research paper,

conference paper of journal article before it is presented or published.

Answer: Peer Reviewer

17. It refers to a natural person or a juridical entity which includes among others,

accredited or non-accredited professional organization, firm, partnership,

corporation or institution which offers, organizes or arranges CPE programs,

activities or sources for implementation and administration.

Answer: CPE Provider

18. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, the following are

the supporting documents needed by a participant in a seminar/convention

except?

a. Certificate of Attendance with number of hours

b. seminar program

c. Certificate of Participation

d. Certified list of participants

Answer: C. Certificate of Participation

19. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, the following

what are the supporting documents needed by a resource speaker in a

seminar/convention except?

a. Photocopy of Plaque of Certification and Copy of Paper

b. Program Invitation

c. A and B

d. Seminar Program

Answer: d. Seminar Program

20. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the

supporting documents needed by a Facilitator/Moderator and a

Panelist/Reactor in a seminar/convention?

Answer: Certification from sponsoring organization and copy of programs.

51

21. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a Master’s and

Doctoral Degree program, the following are the necessary supporting documents

except?

a. Photocopy of School ID

b. University Certification

c. Diploma

d. Transcript of Records

Answer: a. Photocopy of School ID

22. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, for authorship of

research/Innovative Programs/creative Projects what is/are the necessary

supporting document/s?

a. Copy of Duly accomplished module and evaluation

b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper

c. Copy of Duly accomplished module

d. A and B

Answer: b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper

23. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in an invention,

what are the necessary supporting documents?

a. Copy of Duly accomplished module and evaluation

b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper

c. Certified Copy of patent certificate

d. A and C

Answer: c. Certified Copy of patent certificate

24. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a post-

graduate/in-service training, which among the following is the supporting

document needed?

a. Certificate of Training and Training Description

b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution

c. Certificate of Grant or Appointment Paper

d. Certificate from Council Secretary

Answer: a. Certificate of Training and Training Description

25. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a study

observation, what are the necessary supporting documents?

a. Certificate of Training and Training Description

b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution

c. Certificate of Grant or Appointment Paper

52

d. Certificate from Council Secretary

Answer: b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution

26. The total CPE credit units for registered ECE/PECE/ECT professional shall be:

a. 75credit units

b. 70credit units

c. 65credit units

d. 60credit units

Answer: sixty (60) credit units for three (3) years provided that a

minimum of fifteen (15) credit units shall be earned in each year.

27. Who observes the procedure for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE

programs, activities, or sources?

a. PRC CPE Council

b. IECEP CPE Council

c. A and B

d. None of the Choices

Answer: b. IECEP CPE Council

28. In case of natural persons, what are the basic information which should be

included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider?

a. Full name, address and telephone number of the applicant-provider and

Relevant educational background

b. Profession, principal area of professional work and number of years in

the practice of profession.

c. PRC license Number and date of expiration and Current employment

d. All of the Above

Answer: d. All of the Above

Full name, address and telephone number of the applicant-provider

Relevant educational background

Profession, principal area of professional work and number of years

in the practice of profession.

PRC license Number and date of expiration.

Current employment

29. TRUE or FALSE: For accreditation of CPE provider, applicant-provider shall

submit a valid NBI clearance.

Answer: TRUE

53

30. In case of Juridical Entity, what are the basic information which should be

included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider?

Answer:

Full name, address and telephone/fax number/s and e-mail address

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) original registration

papers

List of officers with their PRC license numbers and the expiry date if

officer is a member of a regulated profession

Plans for CPE programs or activities for the year applied

Proof of past CPE-activities or programs conducted/arranged

(immediate past year) for applicants renewing accreditation

31. A CPE provider seeking accreditation of an organized or arranged CPE program, activity or source shall submit said program, activity or source (in triplicate) to this organization for its evaluation and recommendation for approval to the PRC CPE Council. Which organization is this? Answer: IECEP CPE COUNCIL

32. The CPE program, activity, or source shall cover a period not to exceed: a. One (1) year b. Two (2) years c. three (3) years d. four (4) years

Answer: c. three (3) years

33. The issuance of the certificate of accreditation shall take place within _____________ from receipt of the application.

a. Fifteen (15) days b. Twenty (20) days c. Twenty-five (25) days d. Thirty (30) days

Answer: d. Thirty (30) days

34. How many days upon completion of the CPE program, activity or source shall the

CPE provider submit a report to the PRC CPE Council?

Answer: 15 days from the last day of offering

35. In reference to the previous question, what should be included in the report?

Answer:

Name of CPE Provider

Name of description of CPE program, activity or source

Accreditation number and date of issuance of accreditation

54

Certified list of participants indicating names and PRC professional

license identification cards and expiry dates, resource speakers,

lecturers, discussion leaders, panellist, moderators or facilitators

who took part or participated in the CPE program, activity or source.

Date and time of start and completion of the holding of the CPE

program, activity or source.

Venue/location of the holding of the program

Summary of evaluation results of participants

Name of secretariat representative who monitored the CPE program

or activity

36. At what age can someone be permanently exempted from obtaining CPE

Requirements?

Answer: Registered professional above 65 years old and registered

professional practicing his profession abroad (2 years)

37. Which data is not included in the application for temporary exemption from CPE

Requirements?

a. Full name, residence address and phone number of applicant.

b. Marital Status

c. PRC License Number

d. Employment History

Answer: b. Marital Status

38. What will be done to ECE/PECE/ECT upon 5 years of not renewing their

professional license?

Answer: A notice will be posted on the IECEP website or any newspaper of

general circulation that the professional is dropped from the roster of

ECE/PECE/ECT.

39. What shall be withdrawn from the CPE provider if found not complying with the

given rules and regulation?

Answer: Accreditation

40. When was the CPE Matrix approved?

Answer: May 12, 2008

55

II. Memorandum Circular No. 2013 – 01

47. When was the Memorandum Circular No. 2013-01 promulgated?

Answer: January 4, 2013

48. When was the Electronics Engineering Law of 004 enacted? Answer: April 17, 2004

49. Only PECEs should supervise, manage and administer electronics services as defined under Section 5 of the Republic Act No. 9292? Answer: False, also Electronics Engineers

50. Should PECE or ECE be part of the staff of the office of the provincial, city or municipal building official to evaluate electronics engineering plans? Answer: Yes

III. House Bill No. 2836

51. This bill is known as the “National Building Code, as amended.”

a. House Bill 2836 b. Republic act 9292 c. Republic Act 6541 d. Republic act 8293

Answer: a. House Bill 2836

52. Stated in House Bill No. 2836, along with the permits required during construction of a building, how many sets of plans and specifications are needed?

a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

Answer: a. 5

53. In applying for a building permit, what are the necessary five sets of signed and sealed plans and specifications required? Answer:

Architectural and Structural Plans by an Architect or Civil Engineer Mechanical plans by a Mechanical Engineer Electrical Plan by an Electrical Engineer Electronic Plans by a Registered Professional Electronics Engineer Sanitary or Plumbing Installation Plans by a Licensed Sanitary

Engineer

56

54. What code does a company conform to when dealing with electrical installation? Answer: Philippine Electrical Code

55. The office of the Building Official created what section that deals with the rules and regulation regarding Electronics requirements? Answer: Electronics Section

56. What are the requirements of being the head of the Electronics section? Answer:

Registered Professional Electronics Engineer A member in good standing of a duly accredited organization of his

profession for a period of not less than five (5) years Was endorsed or recommended by the Accredited Professional

Organization

57

RA 8439 1. RA 8439 is a Magna Carta for [Section 1]

a) Scientist

b) Engineers

c) Researchers

d) Other S&T Personnel in the Government.

e) All of the above

2. When was RA 8439 approved?

a) September 22, 1997

b) December 22, 1997

c) November 22, 1997

d) October 22, 1997

3. According to RA 8439, the state recognizes __________ as an essential element for the

attainment of national development and progress. [Section 2]

a) Science and Technology

b) Trade and Commerce

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

4. What program was declared as a policy of the State in order to achieve and maintain the

necessary reservoir of talent and manpower that will sustain its drive for total science and

technology mastery. [Section 2]

a) A program of human resources development in Engineering

b) A program of human resources development in Science and Technology

c) A program of human resources development in Medicine

d) All of the above

6. The following list are the ways on how the state will achieve the policy given to them

except [Section 2]

I. Provide Scholarship programs

II. Improvement of the quality of science and engineering education

III. Popularization of science culture

IV. Provision of incentives for pursuing career in science and technology.

a) I and III

b) II and IV

c) None of the Above

d) All of the above

58

7. What department is created under Executive Order No. 128? [Section 3]

a) Department of Science and Technology (DOST)

b) Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)

c) Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC)

d) Department of Social, Welfare and Development (DSWD)

(EO 128 - Reorganizing the National Science and Technology Authority)

8. What refers to activities concerned with the generation, advancement, dissemination,

and application of scientific and technical knowledge in all fields of natural science and

technology?[Section 3]

a) Scientific Activities

b) Technological Activities

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

9. What are the broad groups of Science and Technology Activities? [Section 3]

a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D)

b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS)

c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET)

d) All of the above

10. Which broad group undertakes any systematic and creative work which aims to

increase stock knowledge and use this knowledge to devise new applications? [Section 3]

a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D)

b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS)

c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET)

d) None of the above

11. Which broad group supports scientific research and development, dissemination and

applications of scientific and technical knowledge? [Section 3]

a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D)

b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS)

c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET)

d) None of the above

12. Which broad group comprises activities concerning higher education and training that

would lead to a university degree, further training, or organized lifelong training for

scientists and engineers? [Section 3]

59

a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D)

b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS)

c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET)

d) None of the above

13. Who formulates the career system for science and technology personnel in service of

the government? [Section 4]

a) DOST

b) Civil Service Commission

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

14. The following list are the classifications of Science and Technology Personnel except

[Section 5]

I. S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners

II. Members of the Scientific Career System

III. Scientists, Engineers and Researchers

IV. DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel

a) I and IV

b) II and III

c) None of the above

d) All of the above

15. Who are the S&T personnel with graduate degree holders or have at least 10 years of

managerial experience or are performing executive, planning and policy-making functions?

[Section 5]

a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners

b) Members of the Scientific Career System

c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers

d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel

16. Who are the S&T personnel with at least undergraduate degree holder in any natural

science and engineering courses and are involved in any of the STA? [Section 5]

a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners

b) Members of the Scientific Career System

c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers

d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel

60

17. Who are the S&T personnel that obtained at least twelve units in science, engineering

and other related courses which provides support services to other S&T personnel?

[Section 5]

a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners

b) Members of the Scientific Career System

c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers

d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel

18. True or False the existing law regarding salary scales affect Science and Technology

personnel. [Section 6]

- False

19. Who makes the salary scale of S&T personnel? [Section 6]

a) DOST

b) Department of Budget and Management

c)Civil Service Commission.

d) All of the above

20. When is an S&T personnel entitled with Honorarium? [Section 7]

a) When S&T personnel rendered services beyond the regular workload

b) When S&T personnel contributes to productivity and innovativeness in their own

specific field

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

21. S&T personnel benefit from share in royalties, excluding those who work in private

companies. By how many percent is their share in the proceeds of royalty payments arising

from patents, copyrights and other intellectual property rights? [Section 7]

a) 70 to 30 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved.

b) 50 to 50 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved.

c) 90 to 10 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved.

d) 60 to 40 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved.

22. True or False. S&T personnel involved in hazardous work shall be paid a hazardous

allowance ranging from 20 - 40 percent of their monthly salary. [Section 7]

- False, 10 - 30 percent only

23. Which of the following list are considered as hazardous workplace [Section 7]

I. Radiation-exposed laboratories and service workshops

II. Remote/depressed areas

61

III. Areas declared under a state of calamity or emergency

IV. Strife-torn or embattled areas

V. Laboratories and other disease-infested areas

a) I and V

b) II, III and IV

c) III only

d) All of the Above

24. True or False. S&T personnel are entitled to an allowance equivalent to two meals per

day due to the subsistence allowance. [Section 7]

- False, three meals per day

25. True or False. All S&T personnel are given laundry allowance of not less than P150 a

month for their clothes. [Section 7]

- False, only S&T personnel required to wear a prescribed uniform during work are

subjected to the laundry allowance.

26. True or False. S&T personnel with residence outside of the fifty (50) kilometer radius

from the government facility in which they are stationed are entitled to free living quarters

within the facility. [Section 7]

- True

27. True or False. A monthly longevity pay equivalent to ten percent (10%) of the monthly

basic salary shall be paid to S&T personnel for every two (2) years of continuous and

meritorious service. [Section 7]

- False, only 5% of the monthly salary shall be paid and it is given every 5 continuous

service years only.

28. All S&T personnel shall be given a compulsory free medical examination every year,

and these includes: [Section 7]

I. Complete physical examination

II. Routine laboratory, Chest X-ray and ECG

III. Psychometric examination

IV. Dental examination

V. Other indicated examination

a) I, IV, and V

b) I, II, and III

c) None of the above

d) All of the above

62

29. True or False. Non DOST S&T personnel allowed to receive benefits under this Act.

[Section 8]

-True, upon certification of the Secretary of the Department

30. S&T personnel are entitled to avail of scholarship grants for pursuing science and

engineering education. Grantees are then required to render service up to how many years?

[Section 9]

I. Depends on how long they received the scholarship grants. (i.e. 4 years of study is

equivalent to 4 years of service)

II. 2 years of service

III. They are free to work in private sectors if there are no vacant positions

IV. None, they are free to work in private sectors they want

a) I and III

b) II and III

c) II only

d) IV only

31. Scholarship grants include but not limited to: [Section 9]

I. Tuition fee

II. Book allowance

III. Transportation allowance

IV. Monthly stipend

V. Dissertation grants

VI. Insurance and the payment of regular salary

a) I, II, and IV

b) I, III, IV and V

c) I, II, III and VI

d) All of the above

32. True or False. S&T employees, engineers, scientists, etc. are allowed to give

consultation to the private sectors and get payment for their services. [Section 10]

- True, provided that the said consultancy/service does not jeopardize the

researchers’ current work in his originating office.

33. True or False. According to RA 8439, secondment is allowed for S&T personnel working

in the government. [Section 11]

- True, provided that the duration of stay on another company shall not exceed 1

year and with the consent of the head of the agency. It is also given that they must not

hamper the operations or activities of his originating office.

63

34. Due to the highly technical nature of certain positions in S&T, the appointment to

position of research assistant and upwards shall not be covered by what law? [Section 12]

a) Attrition Law

b) CSC rule on nepotism.

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

35. True or False. S&T personnel are allowed to receive double benefits, that is, benefits

from this Act and any other Act?. [Section 13]

- False

36. If an S&T personnel is already receiving benefits from another law, what must he/she

submit in order to receive benefits from this Act? [Section 13]

a) Letter of application

b) Letter of intent to withdraw other benefits

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

37. True or False. Upon retirement, the S&T personnel concerned shall automatically be

granted one (1) salary grade higher than his/her basic salary and his/her retirement

benefits shall be computed on the basis of his/her last salary received. [Section 14]

- False, retirement benefits shall be computed based on the highest salary received

by the personnel.

38. True or False. RA 8439 states that the benefits an S&T personnel have can be eliminated

or diminished anytime when deemed necessary. [Section 15]

-False, all benefits cannot be eliminated or diminished at the time of the effectivity of

this Act.

39. True or False. Retired scientists or researchers are allowed to be hired back. [Section 16]

- True, provided no other expert is available to take part in the specified scientific

activity. The retirees must also be qualified and capable to do the work.

40. True or False. Retired scientist or researchers can be hired as a regular employee.

[Section 16]

- False, they must be on a contractual basis.

41. What is the duration of the temporary waiver of CSC eligibilities given to S&T

scholarship graduates and grantees? [Section 17]

a) At least one year

64

b) At least two years

c) At least three years

d) At least four years

42. True or False. The Department of Science and Technology (DOST) must make an annual

awarding ceremony for the outstanding achievements and excellence or original

contribution to science and technology. [Section 18]

- False, the Science and Technology Awards Committee shall be the one conducting it.

43. Which group of people comprise the S&T COM? [Section 19]

a) 5 Members of the House of Representatives with the Chairpersons of the Committee

on Science and Technology

b) 5 Members of the Senate with the Chairpersons of the Committee on Science and

Technology

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above

44. True or False. The S&T COM shall review the progress of the state of the Philippines in

terms of S&T once every four (4) years. [Section 19]

- False, it must be done once every five (5) years.

45. True or False. The funding of this Act start will start when it is provided in the General

Appropriations Act (GAA) of the year following its enactment into law under the budgetary

appropriations of the DOST and concerned agencies. [Section 20]

- True

46. To which government commission shall the annual report of the Act implementation be

submitted to? [Section 21]

a) National Telecommunications Commission

b) Congressional Commission on Science and Technology (S&T COM)

c) Commission on Elections

d) None of the above

47. Which Department of the Government is in charge of implementing and formulating of

this Republic Act? [Section 22]

a) Department of Science and Technology

b) Government agencies involved in STA

c) Nongovernment agencies involved in STA

d) All of the above

65

R.A. 8293 – Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines

I. Copyrights

1. A bundle of rights relative to the attribution of ownership, acknowledgement and

remuneration to a creative literary or artistic work is referred to as?

A. Trademark

B. Copyright

C. Patent

D. None of the Above

2. Which of the following can be protected by a copyright?

A. Books

B. Computer Program

C. Technical Drawings

D. All of the Above

3. Is your finished thesis covered by copyright?

A. Yes

B. No

4. Does an author lose his copyright of his works after he dies?

A. Yes

B. No

5. If a group of people authored a work, do they lose their copyright 50 years after the

death of the last member?

A. Yes

B. No

6. In the case of work created by an author during and in the course of his employment,

to whom does the copyright belong to if it is not part of his regular duties as an

employee?

Employee

7. Copyright is to literary works as Patent is to ____?

A. Book

66

B. Painting

C. Novel

D. None of the Above

8. In the case of a work commissioned by a person other than an employer of the author,

who owns the work?

A. The creator of the work

B. The person who commissioned the work

9. Where are the works to be copyright registered?

A. Sandiganbayan

B. National Library

C. Congress Library

D. Supreme Court Library

E. All of the above

10. Who authorizes copyright assignment?

A. Supreme Court

B. Senate

C. Congress

D. Author/Owner

11. Under the IP Code, copyright infringement is ______

A. a Liability

B. a Crime

C. a Punishment

D. at Par with Reclusion Perpetua

12. The IP code provides penalties. Which among does not belong?

A. Fines

B. Imprisonment

C. Preventive measures to control infringement while case is heard

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

13. The author of a book is Alyas Bong. Does the IP code recognize him as the author

even if he used his pseudonym?

67

A. YES, provided that the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of the

author

B. No

14. In an audiovisual work, to whom does the copyright belong?

A. Producer

B. Music Composer

C. Scene Author

D. Author if the work is adapted

E. All of the above

15. How many weeks are given for the author to submit 2 copies of his work and to pay

the prescribed fee?

A. 6 weeks

B. 2 weeks

C. 4 weeks

D. 3 weeks

16. Which court has jurisdiction to receive complaints pertaining to copyright

complaints?

A. Regional trial court

B. Court of Appeals

C. Municipal trial court

D. Sandiganbayan

E. Supreme Court

17. What is taken into account in determining the number of years of imprisonment and

the relative amount to be paid?

A. value of infringed material

B. the damage incurred

C. the monthly income of the author

D. A and B

E. A and C

II. Patents

18. Where does one apply for a Patent?

IPO – Intellectual Property Office

19. Can you transfer rights of ownership to someone else?

A. Yes

68

B. No

20. What happens when two people file for the same patent?

Earliest filing date wins the patent

21. Are the patent rights valid for all countries?

A. Yes

B. No

22. Authorship of the works are attributed to the author, in particular, the right that his

name, as far as practicable, be indicated in a prominent way on the copies, and in

connection with the public use of his work. This rightis referred to as?

Moral Rights

23. In every sale or lease of work, the author or his heirs shall have an inalienable right

to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale or lease to the extent of 50%.

A. True

B. False

III. Trademark

24. A visible sign used to identify the goods or services of an enterprise. It can be a

word, phrase, logo or design that distinguishes the products or services of one

business from another.

Trademark

25. The name of designation identifying or distinguishing an enterprise is referred to as?

Tradename

26. How long is the term for a trademark?

10 years

27. Where is the application for a trademark filed?

Bureau of trademarks and intellectual property office

28. Which of the following cannot be registered as a trademark?

A. Generic Term

69

B. Color

C. Customary Signs

D. All of the above

29. Which of the following is the owner of a trademark can legally do?

A. Kill the person who infringed your trademark

B. Claim payment for damages

C. Seize all of his properties

D. Both B and C

30. A well – known trademark is financially significant for a business

A. True

B. False

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Jurispudence

1. What pertains to the philosophy or science of law?

Jurispudence

2. True or False. A person is excused when he/she is ignorant of the law he/she

violated.

3. True or False. Law seeks to regulate or govern human conduct through rules while

morality seeks to guide human conduct through rules.

4. The Ten Commandments is infallible. Under what type of law does it fall?

Eternal Law

5. True or False. One quality of Natural Law is that it is universal.

6. A passerby is hit by falling debris, he sues the company for the injuries he incurred.

What type of human law covers this situation?

Civil Law

7. True or False. When there is intellectual property breach, the person being charged

is considered a criminal.

8. True or False. A person found guilty in a civil case can be incarcerated in addition to

giving up property or paying fines.

9. The defendant in a criminal case must be proved ________ before found guilty.

beyond reasonable doubt

10. True or False. Legal rights are enjoyed by every individual within the state while

human rights are enjoyed by every individual regardless of age or race.

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Chapter 2

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Ethics

1. What is a discipline that deals with moral problems and the concepts of right and

wrong?

Ethics

2. What is thought to be right according to the general public, group, culture or

society?

Morality

3. Individual conscience, moral values or judgements and codes of conduct are the

three contexts used in ____.

Morality

4. If one’s action does not reflect choices based on values or social norms then it is

_____.

Amoral

5. This approach in ethical decision-making prioritizes that which is for the benefits

of many than for the benefit of one.

Utilitarian Approach

6. A ______ would consider whether an act is good when repeated over and over that

it becomes a “rule”.

Rule Utilitarian

7. What is the approach that treats humans as ends in themselves and not as means

to an end.

Respect for persons approach

8. In respects-for-persons approach, this rule states that one must be willing for

others to do the same action to him under similar circumstances.

The Golden Rule

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9. This resolves a moral problem by converting the negative and positive utilities to

monetary terms and it is mostly used by government and business sector in

making decisions.

Cost-Benefit Test

10. According to rights test, what are the two essential rights?

Rights to freedom and rights to well-being

11. A person wants to give food that has been plagued by flies to a homeless person,

what approach is best to consider in this situation?

Self-defeating test

12. True or False. In rights test, right to life > right against being cheated, defamed >

right to non-discrimination and property.

13. True or False. An engineer who is always ethical in operating his business would

guarantee him success.

14. True or False. A person who diligently follows the law is also being ethical.

15. True or False. Teleological ethics is result oriented while deontological ethics is

act oriented.

16. Give 5 reasons why a person should be moral.

To avoid punishment, attain happiness, be dignified, gain praise and to

fit in society

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Code of Ethics

17. It is the keystone of professional conduct according to code of ethics.

Integrity

18. An ECE is expected to discharge his duties with _______ to the public, his employers

and his clients.

Fidelity

19. According to the Code of Ethics for ECE practitioners, what constitutes the

foundation of ethics?

Honesty, Justice and Courtesy

20. How should an engineer, in the interest of national economy, execute his work?

execute his work with optimum efficiency, economy and safety

21. Being a witness before a court, commission and/or other tribunal, when should an

engineer express an opinion?

Only when it is founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction

22. How should an engineer discharge his duties and responsibilities to the public, his

employers and clients?

with fidelity and with fairness and impartiality to all

23. When should an engineer express public opinion on an engineering subject?

only when he is fully familiar and knowledgeable with all the facts

relating to the subject

24. What should an engineer do to the State in the interest of national security?

he shall give the State primary considerations in all his inventions

and/or devices on electronics

25. How should an engineer deal with contracts between his clients or employers and

the contractors?

exercise fairness and justice

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26. True or False. An engineer shall accept commissions or allowances, directly or

indirectly from contractors, suppliers and all other parties

27. How should an engineer be in explaining or discussing his work and/or merit?

Dignified and modest; refrain from self-laudatory advertising or

propaganda

28. How should an engineer present the consequences to be expected from deviations

proposed if his engineering judgement is overruled by non-technical authority?

present the consequences clearly

29. What should an engineer do if he has proof or personal knowledge that a fellow

engineer has been unethical in his practices?

inform in writing the proper authorities for appropriate action

30. According to code of ethics, an engineer shall cooperate in upholding the _______ of

the profession by avoiding all conducts and practices that would harm the

profession.

integrity, dignity and honor

31. What should an engineer do when has an interest in a business, business

connection or affiliation which may compete with or affect the business or the

clients or employers?

promptly inform his clients or employers about it

32. What engineering assignments should an engineer undertake?

only those for which he is qualified

33. True or False. An engineer can accept any compensation for a particular service

without the consent of all parties concerned.

34. To extend the effectiveness of the engineering profession, how should an engineer

endeavor to be well-informed of the latest development in the profession?

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By sharing or exchanging information and experience with other

engineers, other professionals and students

By contributing to engineering publications and schools

By participating in the activities of engineering societies

35. In the interest of public service and maintenance of the standards of the

profession, what shall an engineer do for those engaged in the engineering

profession?

Uphold the principle of appropriate and adequate compensation

36. Each and every engineer shall recognize and respect the supreme authority of the

State as expressed through its laws, whenever and wherever such laws

________________.

Do not violate the rights and privileges of ciritzens

37. What shall an engineer, in the interest of justice, do when the technology is needed

for the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust, criminal or unlawful acts?

Aid the state

38. In conditions that are dangerous or threatening to life or property on work for

which an engineer is not responsible; what shall he do?

Promptly call such conditions to the attention of those responsible

Standards and Guidelines for the Practice of ECE in the Philippines

39. In accordance with R.A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering

consultation services?

only PECEs

40. In accordance with R.A. 9292, ____ are authorized to render design services;

however only ____ are authorized to review, sign and seal design works.

registered ECEs, PECEs

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41. What is the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; erect or

form and/or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?

construction/installation

42. In the manual practice, what is the critical viewing or investigation or a careful,

complete and systematic examination of electronic items, installation and project

in question?

inspection

43. True or False. Appraisal is estimating the amount, quality and conformity to plans

or objectives, and worth of an electronics item?

44. It is the process of running or managing an electronics system, network, services

and peripheral facilities intended for transmission, reception and delivery of

intelligence by wire, radio, fiber optics and other futuristic media.

Operations

45. The services rendered in the form of on-the-job training, seminars, or to full-time

or part-time teaching in-training institution relating to electronics engineering.

Educational services

46. In design services, which of the following methods are used in determining the fee

which can be fair and reasonable to permit the designer to cover all costs and net

him a reasonable profit?

a. Percent of Total Project Cost Method

b. Percent of Cost Method

c. Unit Cost Method

d. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit

e. All of the above

47. In percent of total project cost method, what determines the complexity of the

design for a project?

the number of electronics systems and equipment

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Chapter 3

79

Obligations and Contracts

1. What is an act or course of action to which a person is morally or legally bound?

obligation

2. True or False. A person who is entitled to demand the fulfilment of the obligation

is the creditor or obligee.

3. An obligation is a juridical necessity to _________.

To give, to do or not to do

4. True or False. A contract that has been agreed upon is cannot be revoked given

that one of the parties involved is intoxicated.

5. Give the three (3) type fruits in an obligation.

Natural, civil and industrial

6. What are the four requisites of an obligation?

Active subject, passive subject, prestation end efficient cause

7. Yes or No. A person who is supposed to sign the contract for a business firm is

hospitalized. His friend, knowing the situation, went out of his way to sign the

contract instead without informing his friend in the hospital. Is his friend’s action

correct?

8. Yes or No. Your neighbor was bitten by your dog when she came over to your

house. Because of this, she got rabies and was hospitalized. Do you have an

obligation to pay for the injuries of your neighbor?

9. True or False. A person who is criminally liable is also civilly liable.

10. Who shall be responsible for any fortuitous event that may happen to the item

being delivered?

obligor

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11. Yes or No. A car owner brings his car to a mechanic for brake repairs. The

mechanic fixes the brakes. In doing so, he found a separate part also damaged.

This part is required for the brakes to function correctly and also fixes it. Though

the separate part was not contracted for, does the owner have to pay for it?

12. True or False. Two friends “X” and “Y” are groupmates for a school project. When

they bought the materials, “Y” did not have money with him. “X” paid for the

materials costing P1000 so “Y” owes P500 to “X”. After 1 week, “X” remembered

that “Y” owed him P500 and asked that the latter pay him but did not mention the

amount. “Y” cannot remember the amount and pays “X” P700. Since “Y” cannot

remember the amount, “X” is not obliged to return the excess amount of P200.

13. True or False. In buying a printer, it is the obligation of the supplier to provide the

cord for connecting the printer to the computer.

14. The contracting parties may establish such stipulations, clauses, terms and

conditions as they may deem convenient, provided they are not contrary to

____________.

Law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy

15. What should the obligor do if he does what has been forbidden him?

It shall be undone at his expense

16. What can the obligee do when a determinate thing is to be delivered?

He may compel the obligor to make the delivery

17. It is also known as implied contract where no one shall be unjustly enriched or

benefited at the expense of another.

Quasi-contract

18. An obligation that is derived from acts or omission causing damage to another due

to negligence.

Quasi-delict

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19. Yes or No. Two people have contracted in buying a lot. “X” would give the land to

“Y” after receiving the payment of P100,000. “Y” fully paid “X” the said amount so

“X” gives the lot to “Y”. “X” stated that the fruits of the trees in that lot still belong

to him. Is the statement of “X” valid?

20. This states that contracts are perfected by mere consent.

Consensuality

21. It is the characteristic of contracts where contracting parties are free to enter into

a contract and establish such terms and conditions provided they are not contrary

to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy.

Autonomy of contracts

22. A characteristic of contracts that binds both contracting parties to have mutual

consent.

Mutuality of contracts