hindi paper code kota (rajasthan) form number …(4) cycas, pisum, euglena 2. read the following...

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CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 25 - 04 - 2015

0 1 C M 3 1 4 2 4 5

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100, 2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

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ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

1 4

(ALL PHASE)

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/25-04-2015

H-1/37Kota/01CM314245

1. Which of the following set of examples exemplify

'Cryptogamia' ?

(1) Pinus, Pisum, Riccia

(2) Salvinia, Sphagnum, Eucalyptus

(3) Funaria, Dryopteris, Ulothrix

(4) Cycas, Pisum, Euglena

2. Read the following statements (A-D) regarding

Platyhelminthes.

A. They have dorso-ventrally flat body.

B. Bilaterally symmetrical, Diploblastic and

acoelomate animals.

C. Specialised cell called renette cell helps in

Osmoregulation and exertion.

D. Fertilization is internal.

How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four (2) One

(3) Three (4) Two

3. How many of the following are concerned with

monocarpellary gynoecium with unilocular and

superior ovary ?

Gram, Arhar, Sem, Moong, Soyabean, Lupin,

Tobacco, Tomato, Potato, Tulip, Ahwagandha

(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 5

4. In the given diagram, which of the following is

correct match of structure with its function :-

A

B

C

(1) A-Gall bladder - secretion of bile and enzymes

(2) C-Pancreas - secretion of pepsin and insulin

(3) B-Duodenum - secretion of trypsin

(4) B-Pancreas - secretion of insulin and glucagon

1. (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

2. (A-D) A. B.

C.

D. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

3.

:

(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 5

4. :-

A

B

C

(1) A- -

(2) C--

(3) B- -

(4) B- -

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

Kota/01CM314245H-2/37

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/25-04-2015

5. Which of the following is the correct match of

supply of blood to organ and its blood :-

Blood Organ Blood vessel

1 DeoxygenatedHeartmuscles

Coronaryartery

2 Oxygenated Lungspulmonaryartery

3 DeoxygenatedSmallintertine

Hepatic portalvein

4 Oxygenated Liver Hepatic artery

6. Following are the events that occur duringmeiosis.

(A) Compaction of chromosomes start(B) DNA replication

(C) Meiotic spindle assembled(D) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

(E) Action of recombinase enzyme(F) Seperation of sister chromatids

(G) Segregation of homologous chromosomes(H) Formation of tetrad of cells

Which of the following is the correct sequence ofevents ?

(1) B A C D F E G H(2) B A E D C G F H

(3) A B E D C F G H(4) B A E D C F G H

7. Monosaccharide is :-(a) Pentose sugar (b) Hexose sugar

(c) Triose sugar(1) a and b only (2) a and c only

(3) b and c only (4) All of the above8.

Chlorophyll b

Carotenoids

Abs

orba

nce

of

ligh

t by

ch

loro

pla

st p

igm

ents

Chlorophyll a

400 500 600 700

Wavelength of light in nanometres

Which of the following statement is not correct

with reference to above given diagram ?

(1) Chl b absorb more Red light than Chl a

(2) Chl b absorb more Blue light than Chl a

(3) This figure represent the absorption spectrum.

(4) Carotenoids absorbs the light of intermediate

wavelengths .

5. :-

1

2

3

4

6. (A) (B) DNA (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H) (tetrad) ?(1) B A C D F E G H

(2) B A E D C G F H

(3) A B E D C F G H

(4) B A E D C F G H

7. :-(a) (b) (c) Triose (1) a b (2) a c(3) b c (4)

8.

Chlorophyll b

Carotenoids

Ab

sorb

ance

of

lig

ht

by

chlo

ropla

st p

igm

ents

Chlorophyll a

400 500 600 700

Wavelength of light in nanometres

:-(1) Chl b, Chl a

(2) Chl b, Chl a

(3) (4)


H-3/37Kota/01CM314245

9. RBC :-(1) (2) ANF

(3) (4) 10. ""

(1) (2)(3) (4)

11. :-A.

B.

C.

D. (1) A C (2) C D(3) B D (4) C

12. :-(i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (c) (a) (d) (b)(2) (a) (c) (d) (b)

(3) (c) (a) (b) (d)(4) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

14. (1) (thecodont) (Diphyodont )

(2)

(3) crypts)

(4)

9. A peptide hormone produced by juxtaglomerular

cells of kidney which stimulate RBC production

is :-

(1) Erythropoietin (2) ANF

(3) Secretin (4) Cholecystokinin

10. Which of the following cell is responsible for cell

mediated immunity ?

(1) T-lymphocytes (2) Monocytes

(3) B-lymphocytes (4) Neutrophils

11. Choose the incorrect statement from followings.A. The most advanced gametophyte is found in

mosses among bryophytesB. Highly reduced gametophyte, which is having

limited numbers of cells is found in floweringplants.

C. In both bryophtes and pteridophytessporophyte is free living.

D. Gametophyte is always non-vascular.(1) A and C (2) C and D

(3) B and D (4) Only C12. Match the following :-

(i) Aplysia (a) Pearl oyster(ii) Pinctada (b) Hook worm

(iii) Limulus (c) Sea hare(iv) Ancylostoma (d) King crab

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)(1) (c) (a) (d) (b)

(2) (a) (c) (d) (b)(3) (c) (a) (b) (d)

(4) (a) (b) (c) (d)13. Which of the following characterise the habitat of

an organism ?(1) Physiochemical or abiotic components only(2) Living members only(3) Only place, where organism lives(4) The place where organism lives along with

abiotic components and biotic componentslike pathogens, parasites, predators andcompetitors.

14. Which of the following option is incorrect for the

human digestive system :-

(1) Teeth are thecodont and diphyodont

(2) Serosa is the outer most layer of alimentary

canal and it is madeup of a thin mesothelium

(3) Submucosa forms glands in the stomach

(gastric glands) and crypts in between the

bases of villi in the intestine.

(4) The opening of the stomach into the duodenum

is guarded by the pyloric sphincter

Kota/01CM314245H-4/37


15. A,B,C D

:-

]]

GrindingregionIncisingregion

B

C

D

A

EB

C

D C B A

1

2

3

4

16. :-(1) 9 : 3 : 4, 9 : 7 (2) 9 : 7, 12 : 3 : 1

(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, 9 : 7 (4) 12 : 3 : 1, 9 : 7

17.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 18. 10

(1) 10

(2) 10

(3) 10

(4) 10

15. In the given diagram of mouth parts of cockroach

Identify A,B,C and D and choose correct option :-

]]

GrindingregionIncisingregion

B

C

D

A

EB

C

D C B A

1 Labrum Labium Mandible Maxilla

2 Labrum Maxilla Mandible Labium

3 Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

4 Maxilla Labium Mandible Labrum

16. Complementary and epistasis gene interaction

ratio is respectivily :-

(1) 9 : 3 : 4, 9 : 7 (2) 9 : 7, 12 : 3 : 1

(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, 9 : 7 (4) 12 : 3 : 1, 9 : 7

17. If both strands of DNA in a given segment of DNA

are transcribed then the two RNA molecules

formed will be :-

(1) Parallel and complementary

(2) parallel and identical

(3) Antiparallel and complementary

(4) Antiparallel and identical

18. A plant has critical photoperiod of 10 hours and

it is being considered as long day plant because

it flowers when :-

(1) Photoperiod of less than 10 hours is given

(2) Seed is exposed to 10 hours of light before

sowing

(3) Photoperiod of more than 10 hours is given

to shoot apex

(4) Photoperiod of more than 10 hours is given

to mature leaves


H-5/37Kota/01CM314245

19.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20. :-(1) CT (2) PET

(3) MRI (4) 21. A, B, C, D

A, B, C

D :-

D

A B C

A B C D

1.

2.

3.

4.

22. :-(A) – (B) – (C) – (D) – (1) A C (2) B D(3) C D (4) D C

19. Read all statement's carefully and find out wrong

statement :-

(1) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in

order to provide the additional space for many

neuron.

(2) Hypothalamus control's body temperature,

urge of eating and drinking.

(3) Transmission of impulse across electrical

synapse is very similar to impulse conduction

along a single axon.

(4) in resting state, axonal membrane is

comparatively more permeable for sodium

ions and nearly impermeable for potassium

ions.

20. Which of the following is based on use of

magnetic field ?

(1) CT-Scan (2) PET

(3) MRI (4) Sonography

21. In given flow chart A, B, C, and D represent

different classes of Kingdom Fungi. Identify the

A, B, C and D for given information :-

Fungi

Sexual Reproduction

Known Not Known / Absent

Aseptate

Mycelium

Septate

D

A B C

A B C D

1. Phycomycetes Deuteromycetes Ascomycetes Basidiomycetes

2. Ascomycetes Phycomycetes Basidiomycetes Deuteromycetes

3. Deuteromycetes Basidiomycetes Ascomycetes Phycomycetes

4. Phycomycetes Ascomycetes Basidiomycetes Deuteromycetes

22. Choose correct option from the following table :-

(A) Aptenodytes – Pigeon

(B) Canis – Cat

(C) Delphinus – Common dolphin

(D) Neophron – Vulture

(1) A and C (2) B and D

(3) C and D (4) D and C

Kota/01CM314245H-6/37


23. A –

B–

(1) A B B, 'A'

(2) A B B, A

(3) A B (4) A B

24. :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

25. WBCs :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

26. (1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%

27. :-(1) p2 (2) q2

(3) p2 + 2pq (4) p2 + q2

28. ?(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

:-(1) I, II (2) I, III

(3) I, II, IV (4) I, II, III, IV

29. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

23. A– The temperature on land is closely linked with

availability of light.

B–Sun light is the source of both light and

temperature on earth.

(1) Both 'A' and 'B' are correct and 'B' is the correct

explaination of 'A'

(2) Both 'A' and 'B' are correct but 'B' is incorrect

explanation of 'A'

(3) A is correct but B is incorrect

(4) A and B both are incorrect

24. Which of the following is incorrect statement :-

(1) Earthworm use their moist cuticle for

respiration of gases.

(2) Special vascularised structures called gills are

used by most of the aquatic arthropods and

molluscs for respiration

(3) Frogs can respire through their moist skin also

(4) Human pharynx is a cartilagenous box which

helps in sound production and hence called the

sound box.

25. Which WBCs resist infections and are also

associated with allergic reactions :-

(1) Lymphocytes (2) Neutrophils

(3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes

26. A woman carrier for albinism and also carrier for

colourblindness marries with albinic and

colourblind male. Then find out percentage of

progeny with both colourblindness and albinism.

(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%

27. According to Hardy Weinbergh law the frequency

of organism having homozygous character will be:-

(1) p2 (2) q2

(3) p2 + 2pq (4) p2 + q2

28. Which of the following statements are true about

vernalization ?

(i) Helpful to convert biennial plant in to annual

(ii) It hastens flowering by a cold treatment

(iii) It does not occur in dry seed

(iv) It helps in shortning of vegetative period of

plants

Options :-

(1) I, II (2) I, III

(3) I, II, IV (4) I, II, III, IV

29. Inflammation of joint's due to accumulation of uric

acid crystals is called :-

(1) Rheumatoid Arthritis

(2) Gouty Arthritis

(3) Muscular dystrophy

(4) Tetany


H-7/37Kota/01CM314245

30. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) B ELISA

31. :-

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

32.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33.

C

B

A

:-

(1) C (2) B

(3) A (4) A B

30. Which of the following pair is not matched

correctly :-

(1) Diptheria Schick test

(2) Leprosy Multi drug therapy

(3) Typhoid Torniquet test

(4) Hepatitis-B ELISA test

31. Find the incorrect match :-

(1) Heterocysts – Nitrogen fixation

(2) Lichen – Indicator of air

pollution

(3) Selaginella – Prothallus

(4) Marchantia – Antheridiophore

32.

Given figure does not explain :-

(1) Terminal position of shoot apical meristem

(2) Acropetalous arrangement of leaves on stem

(3) Origin of axillary buds

(4) Origin of root cap

33. Carefully observe the diagram given below.

External level

Inte

rnal

lev

el

C

B

A

Birds and mammals are :-

(1) C (2) B

(3) A (4) A or B

Kota/01CM314245H-8/37


34. A-D :-A. 6000 8000

B. O2 CO2 20–25

C. (pneumotaxic)

D. 100 CO2 4

(1) (2) (3) (4)

35. (A-D) A. B. C.

(stresses)

D.

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

36. 4 (1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 12

37.

(i) (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

38. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

34. Read the following A-D statements :-

A. A healthy man can inspire or expire

approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per

minute

B. The solubility of O2 is 20–25 times higher than

that of CO2

C. The pneumotaxic centre can moderate the

functions of the respiratory rhythum centre.

D. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers

approximately 4mL of CO2 to the alveoli

How many of the above statements are correct :-

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

35. Read the following (A-D) statements

A. It is made of more than one layer (multi

layered) of cells

B. If has a limited role in secretion and absorption

C. Their main function is to provide protection

against chemical and mechanical stress

D. It covers the dry surface of the skin and the

moist surface of buccal cavity.

Howmany of the above statements are correct for

compound epithelium :-

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

36. Coat colour of rabbit is controlled by 4 alleles then

find out types of genotype.

(1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 12

37. Match the following.

(i) (A) Monozygotictwins

(B) Carrier for srecessive

disease

exlinked

(C) Carrier forautosomalrecessive disease

(D) Normal female

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

38. During photorespiration, oxidation, deamination

and decarboxylation takes place in :-

(1) chloroplast

(2) mitochondria

(3) peroxisome

(4) Both mitochondria and peroxisome


H-9/37Kota/01CM314245

39. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 40.

:- (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

41.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3

42.

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

43. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

44.

:-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

39. Fluid of seminal vesicles and prostate fluids get

mixed in :-

(1) Seminal ducts (2) Ejaculatory ducts

(3) Prostatic urethra (4) Vas deferens

40. In the given list how many factors are not included

in physiological barriers :-

Acid in stomach, Saliva in mouth, Skin,

PMNL-neutrophils, Monocytes.

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

41. In which of the following plant(s) prokaryotic

autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is present. ?

(1) Cycas (2) Pisum

(3) Azolla (4) Both 1 and 3

42.

Which of the following is incorrect with respect

to figure given above :-

(1) Undifferentiated cortex

(2) Eustele and open vascular bundles

(3) Presence of parenchymatous starch sheath

(4) Absence of sclerenchymatous bundle sheath

43. Which of the following aspect of evil quartet is

related to the obligate interaction between both the

interacting species ?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Over-exploitation

(3) Alien species invasions

(4) Co-extinctions

44. Which of the following is incorrect match of

disorder :-

(1) Occupational respiratory disorders - Asthma

(2) Angina - insufficient oxygen is reaching the

heart muscles

(3) Cardiac arrest - The heart stops beating

(4) Renal calculi - stone or insoluble mass of

crystallised salts (oxalates) formed with in the

kidney

Kota/01CM314245H-10/37


45. :-

(1) 15 mya (2) 3-4 mya

(3) 2 mya (4) 1.5 mya

46.

(RR)

200

(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 100

47.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48.

(1) CoA

(2) CoA

(3)

(4)

49.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) HIV

45. Ramapithecus existed about :-

(1) 15 mya (2) 3-4 mya

(3) 2 mya (4) 1.5 mya

46. In a certain plant red flower is dominant over white

colour flower. When homozygous (RR) Plant is

cross with white flower plant 200 offsprings are

obtained. Then find out number of red flower

offsprings.

(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 100

47. Cutting of gel for removal of DNA is called.

(1) Elution

(2) Upstream processing

(3) Down stream processing

(4) Transformation

48. Which of the following does not require

decarboxylation in respiratory process ?

(1) Pyruvate Acetyl CoA

(2) Acetyl CoA Malic acid

(3) Pyruvate Lactic acid

(4) Pyruvate Ethyl alcohol

49. Which of the following not included in female

external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis (2) Labia majora

(3) Clitoris (4) Vagina

50. Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs

is only partially effective.

(2) Normal cells show a property called contact

inhibition.

(3) Treatment of AIDS can only prolong the life

of the patient but cannot prevent death, which

is inevitable.

(4) T-helper cell continue to produce HIV and in

this way acts as HIV factory.


H-11/37Kota/01CM314245

51. :-

A B C D

(1) B –

(2) A –

(3) D – TMV ds DNA (4) C –

52. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

53. .................... :-

(1) GPP-R = N.P.P.

(2) Nt+1 = Nt + [B + I]–[D + E]

(3) S = CAz

(4) dN

dT = rN

K N

K

54. (1)

(2) (3)

(4)

55. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

56. (genic balance theory) XX+2A XY+3A ?(1) Normal female Super male

(2) Super male normal female

(3) Intersex super female

(4) Metafemale super male

51. Identify the following figures and choose the option

which gives correct description about them :-

A B C D

(1) B – Chara Sexual organs are multicellular

and jacketed.

(2) A – Cycas Male and female cones are borne

on same tree

(3) D – TMV Genetic material is ds DNA.

(4) C – Euglena Shows mixotrophic nutrition.

52. In a dicot root pericycle forms :-

(1) Complete ring of cork cambium

(2) A part of vascular cambium

(3) Lateral roots

(4) All of these

53. ....................is the contribution of German

naturalist and Geographer Alexander von

Humboldt :-

(1) GPP-R = N.P.P.

(2) Nt+1 = Nt + [B + I]–[D + E]

(3) S = CAz

(4) dN

dT = rN

K N

K

54. Which of the following is correct :-

(1) Plasma without the clotting factors is called

lymph.

(2) Bone marrow is the graveyard of RBCs

(3) Monocytes are the most abundant cells of the

WBCs

(4) A reduction in the number of platelets can leads

to excessive loss of blood from the body.

55. According to Hugo de Vries, root cause of

speciation is :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Mutation

(3) Branching descent

(4) Use and disuse of organs.

56. According to genic balance theory, what would

be the sex of Drosophila having XX + 2A and

XY+3A karyotype resepectively ?

(1) Normal female and Super male

(2) Super male and normal female

(3) Intersex and super female

(4) Metafemale and super male

Time Management is Life Management

Kota/01CM314245H-12/37


57. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. (a)PS-I (b) CO2 C4 C3

(c) Cu (d) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

59. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

60. :-(1) RBC

(2) (3) (4)

61. (1) (2) (3) (4)

62. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. The first letter of the name of restriction

endonuclease comes from the :-

(1) Genus of organism (2) Species of organism

(3) Family of organism (4) Class of organism

58. How many statement(s) is/are correct ?

(a) In stroma lamella only PS-I is present

(b) C4 plants loose nearly half amount of water

for fixing same amount of CO2 than C3 plants

(c) Cu is essential for overall metabolism in plant

(d) Ethylene Increase male flowers in cucumber

Options :-

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

59. Which is not included in the layers of

testis :-

(1) Tunica vaginalis (2) Tunica vasculosa

(3) Tunica albuginea (4) Tunica propria

60. Gametes of plasmodium are formed in :-

(1) RBC of human

(2) Liver of human

(3) Mosquito

(4) Salivary gland of human

61. Which of the following bacteria have a significant

impact on human affairs such as making curd from

milk and production of antibiotics ?

(1) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.

(2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.

(3) Archaebacteria

(4) Heterotrophic bacteria.

62. Which of the following diagram exhibit direct

elongation of radicle bearing lateral roots in

several orders :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


H-13/37Kota/01CM314245

63. (1) 6°C (2) 0.6°C (3) 10°C (4) 15°C

64. (1) - (2) - (3) -

(4) - CO2 (~200 /)

65. (1) (2) (3) (4)

66. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

67. (a)

(b) (c)

(d) Fe Mn

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

68. (blind spot) :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

69. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

63. Increase in the level of green house gases has led

to considerable heating of earth leading to global

warming. During the past century, the temperature

of earth has increased by :-

(1) 6°C (2) 0.6°C (3) 10°C (4) 15°C

64. Which fo the following is not correctly matched

with its function :-

(1) Lacteals - absorption of fat

(2) Calcium ions - Blood clotting

(3) Purkinje fibres - initiating and maintaining the

rhythmic contractile activity

of the heart

(4) Lungs - Remove large amounts of CO2

(~200 mL/minute)

65. In addition to malpighian tubules, which structures

also help in exceretion in cockroach ?

(1) Nephrocytes (2) Urecose gland

(3) Urate cells (4) All

66. The distillation process is not required in the

formation of :-

(1) Rum and Beer (2) Brandy and Whisky

(3) Brandy and Wine (4) Wine and Beer

67. How many statements is/are correct ?

(a) Hydroponics is helpful to determine the

function of different elements in plant

(b) Guttation takes place when atmosphere is arid.

(c) When the rate of transpiration increase, the

rate of guttation also increase

(d) Absorption of Fe is affected by Mn toxicity

Options :-

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

68. Which of the following statement is true about

"blind spot" :-

(1) optic nerve enters and retinal blood vessels

leave the eye.

(2) it is a point medial to and slightly above the

posterior pole of the eye ball.

(3) Photoreceptor cells are present is this region.

(4) At posterior pole, above to blind spot there is

yellowish pigmented spot called macula lutea

69. Type of reproduction in which the female gamete

undergoes development to form new organism,

without fertilization, is called ?

(1) Vegetative reproduction

(2) Parthenocarpy

(3) Parthenogenesis

(4) Regeneration

Kota/01CM314245H-14/37


70. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

71 (1) (2) (3) (4)

72. A –

B –

C – D –

:-(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

73. A –

B – 1981

1987

C –

D – BOD,

:-(1) A (2) A B (3) A,B C (4) D

74.

(1) 1100-1200

(2)

(3) GFR 125

(4) II

70. House flies act as mechanical carrier in which of

the following disease :-

(1) Filariasis (2) Amoebiasis

(3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia

71. According to two kingdom system of classification

Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed under:-

(1) Kingdom – Protista

(2) Kingdom – Monera

(3) Kingdom – Fungi

(4) Kingdom – Plantae

72. A – Stamens are epiphyllous, when they are

attached to the perianth as in the flowers of

brinjal.

B – Generally, sepals are green, leaf like and

protect the flower in the bud stage.

C – Parietal placentation is found in Argemone.

D – In coconut, which is a drupe, mesocarp is

fibrous.

How many of the given above are correct ?

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

73. A – Rich biodiversity is not only essential for

ecosystem health but imperative for the very

survival of the human race on this planet.

B – In India, the air (prevention and control of

pollution) Act came into force in 1981, but

was amended in 1987 to include noise as an

air pollutant.

C – In in-situ conservation, the endangered species

are protected in their natural habitat so that

the entire ecosystem is protected.

D – BOD, micro-organisms and amount of

biodegradable matter are not inter related.

Correct statements are :-

(1) A only (2) A and B only

(3) A,B and C (4) D only

74. Which of the following is incorrect statement :-

(1) On an average, 1100-1200ml of blood is

filtered by the kidneys per minute

(2) Vasa-recta is absent or highly reduced in the

cortical nephrons

(3) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately

125 ml/minute

(4) Angiotensin II decreases the glomerular blood

pressure


H-15/37Kota/01CM314245

75. (A-D)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77.

(1)

(2)

(3) Si

(4) N2 .

78. "" :-

(1) VIIth

(2) VIth

(3) IVth

(4) VIIIth

79. -I -II

-I -II

A (i)

B (ii)

C (iii)

D (iv)

(1) A – i, B–iv,C–ii, D–iii

(2) A – iii, B–iv,C–ii, D–i

(3) A – iii, B–iv,C–i, D–ii

(4) A – ii, B–iv,C–i, D–iii

75. Read the following four statements (A-D).

(1) Lysosome is a double membrane bound

structure.

(2) Centrioles are made up of nine unevenly

spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein.

(3) Prokaryotic flagella are structurally different

from that of the eukaryotic flagella.

(4) Transport through membrane protein is

always acitve

76. Plant breeding may be used to create varities

which :-

(1) are resistant to pathogen

(2) have increased yield of food

(3) Also has increased protein content of plant

food and enhance the quality of food.

(4) All of these.

77. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Calcium inhibits the translocation of

manganese in shoot apex.

(2) Calcium deficiency is first reported in old

leaf.

(3) In grasses, Si provides the mechanical strength.

(4) Nitrogenase catalyse the conversion of NH3

to atm N2 .

78. "Organ of Corti" sends the sound impulses to

cerebrum through :-

(1) VIIth cranial nerve

(2) VIth cranial nerve

(3) IVth cranial nerve

(4) VIIIth cranial nerve

79. Match the column-I with the column-II and find

correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

A Radicle (i) Shoot

B Ovary (ii) Endosperm

C Plumule (iii) Root

D P.E.N (iv) Fruit

(1) A – i, B–iv,C–ii, D–iii

(2) A – iii, B–iv,C–ii, D–i

(3) A – iii, B–iv,C–i, D–ii

(4) A – ii, B–iv,C–i, D–iii

Kota/01CM314245H-16/37


80.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81. I, II III :-

-I -II -III

A. a. i.

B. b. ii.

C. c. iii.

D. d. iv.

(1) A-a-i, B-b-iii, C-d-iv, D-c-ii

(2) A-a-i, B-b-iii, C-c-iv, D-d-ii

(3) C-d-iv, D-c-ii, A-a-iii, B-b-i

(4) A-d-iv, B-c-iii, C-b-ii, D-a-i

82.

?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

80. Which one of the following intercellular plasma

membrane modification stop substances from

leaking across the tissue ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction

(3) Adhering junction

(4) Plasmodesmata

81. Identify correct match from the columns I, II

and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Flame cells a. Platyhelminthes i. Osmoregulation

B. Renette cells b. Aschelminthes ii. Capture food

C. Radula c. Coelenterata iii. Excretion

D. Stinging cells d. Mollusca iv. Rasping organ

(1) A-a-i, B-b-iii, C-d-iv, D-c-ii

(2) A-a-i, B-b-iii, C-c-iv, D-d-ii

(3) C-d-iv, D-c-ii, A-a-iii, B-b-i

(4) A-d-iv, B-c-iii, C-b-ii, D-a-i

82.

How many of the following are correct with

respect to the figure given above ?

(A) Endospermic seed

(B) It is cypsella fruit

(C) Plant belongs to poaceae

(D) Plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths

which are called coleoptile and coleorrhiza

respectively

(E) The outer covering of triploid tissue is a

proteinaceous layer called Aleurone layer

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5


H-17/37Kota/01CM314245

83. The most effective instrument for removing

gaseous pollutants is :-

(1) Scrubber

(2) Electrostatic precipitator

(3) Incinirator

(4) Green mufler

84. The catalysts used in catalytic converter

are :-

(1) Tungsten and Platinum

(2) Platinum-palladium and rhodium

(3) Iron and Copper

(4) Copper and Tungsten

85. How many of the statements below are true for

both mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(A) Presence of porins

(B) Presence of cristae

(C) Presence of ribosomes

(D) Presence of enzymes for protein synthesis

(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation

(F) Occurence of chain of oxidation-reduction

reactions

(G) Presence of DNA

(1) Six (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three

86. How many of the following are the varieties of

wheat ?

Sonalika, Atlas-66, Pusa swarnim, Himgiri, Pusa komal, Pusa sadabahar

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

87.

Km [s]=substratex

12

12

vmax

vmax

1

[v]vmax

vmax

1

y

a

b

Which of the following is true for above given

diagram regarding enzymes ?

(1) Due to competitive inhibition b change into a

(2) Due to competitive inhibition a change into b

(3) Due to noncompetitive inhibition b is change

into a

(4) Due to noncompetitive inhibition a change

into b

83. (1) (2) (3) (4)

84. () (1) (2) - (3) (4)

85. ?(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) DNA (1) (2) (3) (4)

86. :-

-66,

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87.

Km [s]=x

12

12

vmax

vmax

1

[v]vmax

vmax

1

y

a

b

(1) b,a

(2) a, b

(3) b, a

(4) a, b

Kota/01CM314245H-18/37


88. Read the statement A-D carefully and choose the

option which contain all correct statements :-

(A) Pituitary gland is located in a membranous

cavity called sella tursica and is attached to

hypothalamus by a stalk.

(B) Due to cancer of thyroid gland or due to

development of nodule of thyroid gland, the

rate of synthesis and secretion of thyroid

hormone is decreased leading to

hypothyroidism.

(C) The secretion of PTH is regulated by the

circulating level of calcium ions.

(D) Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex

disorder called "diabetes mellitus".

Options :-

(1) A and B (2) A, B and C

(3) C and D (4) B, C and D

89. Which of the following statement in not correct?

(1) Pollen tube is made up of sporopollenin

(2) Female gametophyte of Angiosperm is

embryosac

(3) Black pepper is perispermic seed

(4) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that

mimics sexual reproduction

90. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the incorrect

ones only.

(a) Amount of glucose is maximum in honey.

(b) Honey is the food of high nutritive value and

is used in the preparation of cosmetics and

polishes of various kinds.

(c) Pisciculture is an industry devoted to the

catching processing or selling of fish, shellfish

or other aquatic animals.

(d) Honey bee are the pollinaters of many of our

crops.

Options :

(1) Statement (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (a) and (d)

(3) Statement (c) and (d)

(4) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

88. A-D

:-

(A)

(B)

(C) PTH

(D)

""

:-

(1) A B (2) A, B C

(3) C D (4) B, C D

89.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

90. (a-d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (b), (c) (d)

(2) (a) (d)

(3) (c) (d)

(4) (a), (b) (c)


H-19/37Kota/01CM314245

91. Which of the following is not correct

representation of vander walls gas equation ?

(1)

2

2

n aP V nb

V = nRT

(2) P =

2

RT a

V b V

(3) PV = RT

1b a

1V V

(4)C C

C

P V

RT = 3

8

92. Which of the following is not correct match of

hydrolysis ?

(1) CH3COONa – Anionic hydrolysis

(2) CuCN – Both type hydrolysis

(3) NH4NO

3 – Anionic hydrolysis

(4) KClO4 – No hydrolysis

93. Which of the following is correct

(1) S3O

9 Contains no S – S linkage

(2) S2O

6–2 Contains – O – O – linkage

(3) (HPO3)3 Contains P – P linkage

(4) S2O8

–2 Contains S – S linkage

94. Suppose the following reaction

KMnO /OH4

(Baeyer's reagent) product

The structure of main product will be :-

(1)

OH

OH(2)

OH

OH

(3)

O

HH

O(4)

O

91. ?

(1)

2

2

n aP V nb

V = nRT

(2) P =

2

RT a

V b V

(3) PV = RT

1b a

1V V

(4)C C

C

P V

RT = 3

8

92. ?

(1) CH3COONa –

(2) CuCN –

(3) NH4NO

3 –

(4) KClO4 –

93.

(1) S3O

9 S – S

(2) S2O6–2 – O – O –

(3) (HPO3)3 P – P

(4) S2O8–2 S – S

94.

KMnO /OH4

(Baeyer's reagent) product

(1)

OH

OH(2)

OH

OH

(3)

O

HH

O(4)

O

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

H-20/37


Kota/01CM314245

95. Suppose the following reaction

HCN A LiAlH4 BNaNO +HCl2 C

O

CH3

0–5°C

The product C will be :-

(1)

O

CH3

(2)

CH –NH2 2

O

CH3

–

(3)

O

CH3

(4) O

CH3

NH2

96. Diamond and carborundum is an example of :-

(1) Molecular solids only

(2) Ionic solids only

(3) Covalent solids only

(4) Covalent and molecular solids

97. In the reaction N2(g) + 3H

2(g)

1

2

k

k2NH

3(g) before

equilibrium rate law is given as

r = 2 × 10–3 k1 – 4 × 10–7 k

2 what will be

equilibrium constant for above reaction ?

(1) 2 × 10–4 (2) 0

(3) 5×103 (4) 2×104

98. Which of the following statements is false

(1) H3PO

2, H

3PO

3 and H

3PO

4 all are tribasic and

reducing in nature

(2) Among anions, NO3–, SO3

–2, CO3–2 and

BO3–3, only SO3

–2 have P– d bonding

(3) Among anions SO3–2, SO

4–2, S

2O

4–2 and

HSO4–, SO3

–2 is basic and reducing in nature

(4) Number of lone pairs of electrons on Xe atoms

in XeF2 , XeF4 and XeF6 are 3, 2 and 1

respectively

95. C :-

HCN A LiAlH4 BNaNO +HCl2 C

O

CH3

0–5°C

(1)

O

CH3

(2)

CH –NH2 2

O

CH3

–

(3)

O

CH3

(4) O

CH3

NH2

96. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

97. N2(g)

+ 3H2(g)

1

2

k

k2NH

3(g)

r = 2 × 10–3 k1 – 4 × 10–7 k

2

kC ?

(1) 2×10–4 (2) 0

(3) 5×103 (4) 2×104

98.

(1) H3PO2, H3PO3 H3PO4

(2) NO3–, SO3

–2, CO3–2 BO3

–3,

SO3–2 P– d

(3) SO3–2, SO4

–2, S2O4–2 HSO4

–

SO3–2

(4) XeF2 , XeF4 XeF6 Xe e– 3,2 1


H-21/37Kota/01CM314245

99. Which of the following molucule gives two moles

of acetone on ozonolysis reaction ?

(1) CH3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

(2)

C

CH3

CH3H

(3)

CCH3

C

CH3

CH3CH3

(4)

CH3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

100. Which is not a lyophilic colloid :-

(1) Milk (2) Gum (3) Fog (4) Blood

101. For calculation of density of CsCl crystal molar

mass is given as M, edge length is a pm.

N0 = 6 × 1023 can be calculated as d = 3

0

Z M

N a

then what will be possible value of 'Z' ? :-

(1) Z = 2 (2) Z = 8 (3) Z = 3 (4) Z = 1

102. Which of the following order is correct

(1) Na2O < MgO < ZnO < P

4O

10(Acidic property)

(2) Na < Si > Mg < A (First ionization potential)

(3) F > C > Br (Electron affinity)

(4) Te–2 < I– < Cs+ < Ba+2(ionic size)

103. In which of the following pairs both the complex

show optical isomerism

(1) Cis – [Cr(C2O

4)Cl

2]–3, mer – [Co(gly)

3]

(2) [Co(en)3]Cl

3, Trans – [Co(en)

2Cl

2]Cl

(3) [Pt Cl (dien)] Cl, [NiCl2(PPh3)2]

(4) [Co(NO3)3

(NH3)3], cis – [Pt(en)

2Cl

2]Cl

2

99.

(1) CH3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

(2)

C

CH3

CH3H

(3)

CCH3

C

CH3

CH3CH3

(4)

CH3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

100. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

101. CsCl M

a pm, N0 = 6 × 1023 Z

d = 30

Z M

N a

(1) Z = 2 (2) Z = 8 (3) Z = 3 (4) Z = 1

102.

(1) Na2O < MgO < ZnO < P4O10()

(2) Na < Si > Mg < A ( )

(3) F > C > Br ()

(4) Te–2 < I– < Cs+ < Ba+2()

103.

(1) [Cr(C2O

4)Cl

2]–3, – [Co(gly)

3]

(2) [Co(en)3]Cl

3, – [Co(en)

2Cl

2]Cl

(3) [Pt Cl (dien)] Cl, [NiCl2(PPh3)2]

(4) [Co(NO3)3

(NH3)3], – [Pt(en)

2Cl

2]Cl

2

H-22/37


Kota/01CM314245

104. Suppose the following reaction.

CH –OH2

2 4conc.H SO NBS

(Major (Majorproduct) product)

A B

The structure of B will be :-

(1)

CH –Br2

(2)

Br

(3)

Br

Br(4) CH2

BrBr

105. In superoxides, oxygen is present in which form:-

(1) O2–2 (2) O2

–1

(3) O3–2 (4) O

2+2

106. Three particles of a solute A associate in benzene

to form a trimer A3. Calculate the freezing point

of 0.25 molar solution. The degree of association

of solute A is 0.80. The freezing point of benzene

is 5.5°C and Kf is 5.12 k/m ?

(1)152 K (2) 274.3 K

(3) 272.4 K (4) 301 K

107. NaNO3 500°C

A(s) + B(g)

NaNO3

800°C C(S) + B(g) + D(g)

A,B,C and D are respectively

(1) Na2O, O

2, NaNO

2, N

2

(2) NaNO2, O

2, Na

2O, N

2

(3) NaNO2, N

2, Na

2O, O

2

(4) Na2O

2, N

2O, NaNO

2,N

2

108. Select the incorrect statements

(1) In K2MnO4 and CrO2Cl2, the central transition

metals/ions have the same Oxidation state

(2) Both sodium and potassium dichromate can

be used as primary standard in volumetric

estimations

(3) Potassium dichromate on strong heating

evolves oxygen gas

(4) MnO2 on fusion with KOH liberates oxygen

gas leaving behind green residue

104. B :-

CH –OH2

2 4conc.H SO NBS

( () )

A B

(1)

CH –Br2

(2)

Br

(3)

Br

Br(4) CH2

BrBr

105. :-(1) O2

–2 (2) O2–1

(3) O3–2 (4) O

2+2

106. A 3 A3

0.25 m

0.80

5.5°C Kf 5.12 k/m

(1)152 K (2) 274.3 K

(3) 272.4 K (4) 301 K

107. NaNO3 500°C

A() + B()

NaNO3

800°C C() + B() + D()

A,B,C D

(1) Na2O, O

2, NaNO

2, N

2

(2) NaNO2, O

2, Na

2O, N

2

(3) NaNO2, N

2, Na

2O, O

2

(4) Na2O2, N2O, NaNO2,N2

108. (1) K2MnO4 CrO2Cl2,

(2)

(3)

(4) MnO2, KOH


H-23/37Kota/01CM314245

109. Consider the following reaction

SOCl2 A

O

CH –CH –NH3 2 2 BC–OH LiAlH4(excess) C

The final product C will be :-

(1)

CH –NH–CH –CH2 2 3

(2)

O

C–NH–CH –CH2 3

(3)

O

C–OH

CH –CH –HN3 2

(4)

CH –NH2 2

110. Which of the following statement is/are correct

about half life period for a reaction ?

(1) For a first order reaction t1/2 a

(2) For a zero order reation 1

2

1t

a

(3) Time taken for 75% completion of I order

reaction in twice of t1/2

(4) For a reaction t1/2 does not depend on initial

concentration of reactant

111. For which of the following elements, the

conventional standard molar enthalpy is not zero?

(1) Cdiamond

(2) C(graphite)

(3) Br2()

(4) Iodine(S)

109. C :-

SOCl2 A

O

CH –CH –NH3 2 2 BC–OH LiAlH4(excess) C

(1)

CH –NH–CH –CH2 2 3

(2)

O

C–NH–CH –CH2 3

(3)

O

C–OH

CH –CH –HN3 2

(4)

CH –NH2 2

110. ?

(1) t1/2 a

(2) 1

2

1t

a

(3) 75%

t1/2

(4) t1/2

111.

?

(1) C() (2) C()

(3) Br2()

(4) ()

H-24/37


Kota/01CM314245

112.

Column I Column II

(i) [Ni(NH3)

6]+2 (a) d2sp3 and diamagnetic

(ii) [Cr(NH3)

6]+3 (b) sp3d2 and diamagnetic

(iii) [Co(NH3)

6]+3 (c) sp3d2 and two unpaired electrons

(iv) [Zn(NH3)

6]+2 (d) d2sp3 and three unpaired electrons

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) c d a b

(2) d c b a

(3) c d b a

(4) a b c d

113. The following compounds are related with each

other as :-

PhC

CH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)

(1) Metamers

(2) Geometrical isomers

(3) Functional isomers

(4) Both functional as well as geometrical isomers

114. Which of the following is correct structure of

glucosazone of D-Glucose ?

(1) H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

(2)

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

(3)H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

(4)

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

CHO

C=N–NH–Ph

H – C – OH

C=N–NH–Ph

H

112.

Column I Column II

(i) [Ni(NH3)

6]+2 (a) d2sp3

(ii) [Cr(NH3)

6]+3 (b) sp3d2

(iii) [Co(NH3)

6]+3 (c) sp3d2

(iv) [Zn(NH3)

6]+2 (d) d2sp3

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) c d a b

(2) d c b a

(3) c d b a

(4) a b c d

113. :-

PhC

CH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)Ph

CCH O3

CCH3

H(I)

PhC

HO–CH2

CCH3

H

(II)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

114. D-

(1) H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

(2)

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH OH2

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

HO – C – H

(3)H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

C=O

C=N–NH–Ph

CH=N–NH–Ph

CH –OH2

(4)

HO – C – H

H – C – OH

CHO

C=N–NH–Ph

H – C – OH

C=N–NH–Ph

H


H-25/37Kota/01CM314245

115. Calculate the emf of the cell :

Cr | Cr3+(0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe

Given : 30

Cr / CrE 0.75V ; 2

0

Fe / FeE 0.45V

Cell reaction :

2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (aq.) 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Fe(s)

(1) 0.2606 V (2) 0.5212 V

(3) 0.1303 V (4) Zero

116. The equivalent mass of Na2S2O3 in its reaction

with I2 is equal to :-

(1) molar mass (2) molar mass

2

(3) molar mass

3(4)

molar mass

4

117. Molecular shape of XeF3

+, SF3

+ and CF3+ are :-

(1) the same with 2, 1 and 0 lone pairs of electrons

respectively

(2) different with 2, 1 and 0 lone pair of electrons

respectively

(3) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons

respectively

(4) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons

respectively

118. The IUPAC name of following compound is :-CN

Br

NO2

(1) 4-nitro-3-bromo-1-cyanobenzene

(2) 3-bromo-1-cyano-4-nitrobenzene

(3) 3-bromo-4-nitro benzonitrile

(4) 1-bromo-2-nitro-4-cyanobenzene

119. The correct order of reactivity of following

compound toward nucleophilic substitution

reaction will be :-

(I) (II) (IV)

CH –Cl2

OCH3

(III)

CH–OCH3 CH –Cl2 Cl

OCH3

Cl

CH3

OCH3

(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > II > IV > I

(3) I > IV > III > II (4) IV > II > I > II

115. :Cr | Cr3+(0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe

: 30

Cr / CrE 0.75V ; 2

0

Fe / FeE 0.45V

:2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (aq.) 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Fe(s)

(1) 0.2606 V (2) 0.5212 V

(3) 0.1303 V (4) 116. Na2S2O3 I2Na2S2O3

(1) (2) 2

(3) 3

(4)

4

117. XeF3

+, SF3

+ CF3

+ (1) 2, 1 0

(2) 2, 1 0

(3) 0, 1 2

(4) 2, 0 1

118. IUPAC :-

CN

Br

NO2

(1) 4--3--1-(2) 3--1--4-(3) 3--4- (4) 1--2--4-

119.

:-

(I) (II) (IV)

CH –Cl2

OCH3

(III)

CH–OCH3 CH –Cl2 Cl

OCH3

Cl

CH3

OCH3

(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > II > IV > I

(3) I > IV > III > II (4) IV > II > I > II

H-26/37


Kota/01CM314245

120. Calculate molar conductance at infinite dilution

for acetic acid, given :-

m (HCl) = 425 –1 cm2 mol–1

m (NaCl) = 188 –1 cm2 mol–1

m (CH

3COONa) = 96 –1 cm2 mol–1

(1) 524 –1 cm2 mol–1 (2) 284 –1 cm2 mol–1

(3) 333 –1 cm2 mol–1 (4) 123 –1 cm2 mol–1

121. The volume of H2 gas obtained by heating 5 mole

NH3 at NTP is :-

(1) 174 L (2) 168 L (3) 120 L (4) 11.2 L

122. Which does not represent correct method

(1) TiCl2 + 2 Mg Ti + 2 MgCl

2 (Kroll)

(2) Ni(CO)4 Ni + 4 CO (Mond)

(3) Ag2CO3 2 Ag + CO2 +1/2 O2 (van arkel)

(4) ZrI4 Zr + 2 I2 (Van Arkel)

123. Suppose the following structures

H – C – Br

HO – C – H

COOCH3

COOH

(I)

HO – C – H HO – C – H

Br – C – H H – C – Br

COOCH3 COOH

COOH COOCH3

(II) (III)Which of the following statement is correct for them:-

(1) I and II are diastereomers

(2) I and III are enantiomers

(3) I and III are diastereomers

(4) II and III are homomerss

124. Which of the following reaction will not be

feasiable ?

(1)

NH2

NH H

NH2

NH2

(2)

NH2

N

H

NH2

N

H

(3)

NH2

H

NH3

N N

(4) H

NNN N

H

H H

120. :-

m (HCl) = 425 –1 cm2 mol–1

m (NaCl) = 188 –1 cm2 mol–1

m (CH

3COONa) = 96 –1 cm2 mol–1

(1) 524 –1 cm2 mol–1 (2) 284 –1 cm2 mol–1

(3) 333 –1 cm2 mol–1 (4) 123 –1 cm2 mol–1

121. 5 NH3 H2 NTP

:-(1) 174 L (2) 168 L (3) 120 L (4) 11.2 L

122. (1) TiCl

2 + 2 Mg Ti + 2 MgCl

2 ()

(2) Ni(CO)4 Ni + 4 CO ()

(3) Ag2CO3 2 Ag + CO2 +1/2 O2 ()

(4) ZrI4 Zr + 2 I2 ()

123.

H – C – Br

HO – C – H

COOCH3

COOH

(I)

HO – C – H HO – C – H

Br – C – H H – C – Br

COOCH3 COOH

COOH COOCH3

(II) (III)

(1) I II

(2) I III

(3) I III (4) II III

124.

(1)

NH2

NH H

NH2

NH2

(2)

NH2

N

H

NH2

N

H

(3)

NH2

H

NH3

N N

(4) H

NNN N

H

H H


H-27/37Kota/01CM314245

125. Which of the following complex show low spin,

paramagnetic and innerorbital complex :-

(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Cu(NH3)4]

(3) [Co(CN)6]4– (4) [Ni(Co)4]

126. For which of the following reaction enthalpy

change represents, enthalpy of formation of

NaOH ?

(1) aq aqNa OH NaOH(s)

(2) (s) 2(g) 2g (S)

1 1Na O H NaOH

2 2

(3) (s) 2 ( ) (aq) 2(g)2Na 2H O 2NaOH H

(4) All of above

127. A Metal [x] on heating in Nitrogen gas gives [y].

[y] on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas

which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives

a blue colour.[y] is

(1) Mg(NO3)

2(2) Mg

3N

2

(3) NaN3

(4) MgO

128. Which of the following can show keto enol

toutomerism.

(1)

O

CH3 CH3

(2)

O

CH3

CH3

(3)

O

CH3

(4)

O

O

129. Which of the following is used as anti metarial?

(1) Atropine (2) Equanil

(3) Quinine (4) Sulphadiazine

130. Calculate total no. of stereoisomer in

[Co(en)(NH3)(H2O)ClBr] :-

(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8

131. What will be pH of solution at 25°C obtained by

mixing 100 ml N

10NH

4 OH solution with 100 ml

N

20HCl solution. (given pkb NH4OH = 4.74 :-

(1) 10.74 (2) 4.74 (3) 9.26 (4) 8.47

125. :-(1) [Co(H

2O)

6]3+ (2) [Cu(NH

3)

4]

(3) [Co(CN)6]4– (4) [Ni(CO)4]

126. NaOH

?

(1) aq aqNa OH NaOH(s)

(2) (s) 2(g) (2g) (S)

1 1Na O H NaOH

2 2

(3) (s) 2 ( ) (aq) 2(g)2Na 2H O 2NaOH H

(4)

127. [x] [y]

[y]

CuSO4 [y]

(1) Mg(NO3)

2(2) Mg

3N

2

(3) NaN3

(4) MgO

128.

(1)

O

CH3 CH3

(2)

O

CH3

CH3

(3)

O

CH3

(4)

O

O

129. (1) Atropine (2) Equanil(3) Quinine (4) Sulphadiazine

130. [Co(en)(NH3)(H

2O)ClBr]

:-(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8

131. 100 ml N

10NH4 OH 100 ml

N

20HCl

pH 25°C

(given pkb NH4OH = 4.74) :-

(1) 10.74 (2) 4.74 (3) 9.26 (4) 8.47

H-28/37


Kota/01CM314245

132.

Column I Column II

(i) N2 N

2+ (a) Bond order increases and

Magnetic property changed

(ii) O2+O

2+2 (b) Bond order decreases and

Magnetic property is not changed

(iii) B2B

2+ (c) Bond order increases and

magnetic property not changed

(iv) NO– NO (d) Bond order decreases and

magnetic property is changed

Note : Here change in Magnetic property refers

to change from diamagnetic to paramagnetic or

paramagnetic to diamagnetic

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) d a c b

(2) d a b c

(3) c b d a

(4) a d b c

133. Which of the following alkyne results into

formation of aldehyde on hydration reaction.

(1) CH3 – C CH

(2) CH CH

(3) Ph – C CH

(4) – C CH

134. Among the following which one will form most

stable hydrate, when reacts with H2O.

(1) – C – H

O

(2)

O

O

C=O

(3)

O

O

(4)

O

O

O

135. Complex which is represent maximum C.F.S.E :-

(1) [Co(CN)6]3– (2) [Co(CN)

6]4–

(3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]

3+

132.

Column I Column II

(i) N2 N

2+ (a)

(ii) O2

+O2

+2 (b)

(iii) B2B

2+ (c)

(iv) NO– NO (d)

Note :

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) d a c b

(2) d a b c

(3) c b d a

(4) a d b c

133. (1) CH3 – C CH

(2) CH CH

(3) Ph – C CH

(4) – C CH

134. H2O

(1) – C – H

O

(2)

O

O

C=O

(3)

O

O

(4)

O

O

O

135. :-(1) [Co(CN)6

]3– (2) [Co(CN)6]4–

(3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]

3+


H-29/37Kota/01CM314245

136. According to Joule's law of heating, heat

produced H = I2 Rt, where I is current, R is

resistance and t is time. If the errors in the

measurement of I, R and t are 3%, 4% and 6%

respectively then error in the measurement of H

is :-

(1) ±17% (2) ±16%

(3) ±19% (4) ±25%

137. A B C

Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on

horizontal frictionless surface. The blocks B and

C are at rest block A is approaching towards B with

a speed 10m/sec. If the coefficient of restitution

for all collision is 0.5 then the speed of the block

C just after collision is approximately :-

(1) 5.6 m/sec. (2) 6.4 m/sec.

(3) 3.2 m/sec. (4) 4.6 m/sec.

138. The equation of particle executing SHM is

y = A cos t. What will be the acceleration of

the particle after time t = T/4, where T = time

period.

(1) 2A (2) 2A/2 (3) –2A (4) 0

139. A block has dimensions 1 cm, 2 cm and 3 cm.

Ratio of the maximum resistance to minimum re-

sistance between any pair of opposite faces of this

block is :

(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9

(3) 18 : 1 (4) 1 : 6

140. The electric field and magnetic field associated

with in e.m. wave, propagating along the –z axis,

can be represented by :

(1)

0 0ˆ Ê E i, B B j

(2)

0 0ˆÊ E k, B B i

(3)

0 0ˆ Ê E j,B B i

(4)

0 0ˆ Ê E j,B B k

141. Liquid drops of mass m falling slowly one by

one from a capillary tube of radius r. The surface

tension of the liquid is :-

(1) mg/r (2) mg/2r

(3) 2mg/r (4) mg/r2

136. H = I2 Rt

I R t I, R

t 3%, 4% 6%

H :-

(1) ±17% (2) ±16%

(3) ±19% (4) ±25%

137. A B C

A, B C

B C A,

B 10m/sec

0.5

C :-

(1) 5.6 m/sec. (2) 6.4 m/sec.

(3) 3.2 m/sec. (4) 4.6 m/sec.

138. SHM y = A cos t

t = T/4

T =

(1) 2A (2) 2A/2 (3) –2A (4) 0

139. 1 , 2 3

:

(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9

(3) 18 : 1 (4) 1 : 6

140. –z :

(1)

0 0ˆ Ê E i, B B j

(2)

0 0ˆÊ E k, B B i

(3)

0 0ˆ Ê E j,B B i

(4)

0 0ˆ Ê E j,B B k

141. m r

:-

(1) mg/r (2) mg/2r

(3) 2mg/r (4) mg/r2

H-30/37


Kota/01CM314245

142. Two pendulum bobs of mass m and 2m are

released from same height H. If they collide

inelastically at mean position then the height upto

which the composite mass would rise is :-

m 2m

(1) H

3(2)

H

9

(3) 2H

3(4)

4H

9

143. A sound is produced in water and moves towards

surface of water and some sound moves in air

velocity of sound in water is 1450 m/s and that in

air is 330 m/s. When sound moves from water to

air then the effect on frequency f and wave length

will be:

(1) f and will remain same

(2) f will remain same but will increase

(3) f will remain same but will decrease

(4) f will increase and will decrease

144. In the adjoining circuit, the potential difference

across 3 is :

6

32

4

2 Amp

(1) 2 V (2) 4 V (3) 8 V (4) 16 V

145. Concave and convex lenses are placed touching

each other. The ratio of magnitudes of their power

is 2:3. The focal length of the system is 30 cm.

Then the focal lengths of individual lenses are:

(1) –75, 50 (2) –15, 10

(3) 75, 50 (4) 75, –50

146. A wire of length L and radius r is fiexed at one

end and force F applied to the other end produces

an extension y. The extension produced in

another wire of the same material of length 2L

and radius 2r by a force 2F is :-

(1) y (2) 2y (3) y/2 (4) 4/y

142. m 2m H :-

m 2m

(1) H

3(2)

H

9

(3) 2H

3(4)

4H

9

143.

1450 m/s 330 m/s f :(1) f (2) f (3) f

(4) f

144. 3 :

6

32

4

2

(1) 2 V (2) 4 V (3) 8 V (4) 16 V

145. 2:3 30 cm (1) –75, 50 (2) –15, 10

(3) 75, 50 (4) 75, –50

146. L r

F y

2L

2r 2F

(1) y (2) 2y (3) y/2 (4) 4/y


H-31/37Kota/01CM314245

147. o

2ˆ ˆJ ai bt j

, a b

( )

J45°

o :-

(1) a / b (2) a

2b

(3)a

2bb

(4)b

2aa

148.

900

(1) 1:1 (2) 2:1

(3) 2:1 (4) 4:1

149. 100ºC 100

0.005/ºC

200 (1) 200ºC (2) 300ºC

(3) 400ºC (4) 500ºC

150. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

151. t :-

(1)

2 2

t

(2)

2 2

t

(3)

( )t(4)

t

152. M R

:-

(1) MR2

(2) 2MR2

(3) 3MR2

(4)

147. The angular momentum of a particle relative to

a point o varies with time as 2ˆ ˆJ ai bt j

, where

a and b are constants. The moment of force ( )

relative to the point o acting on the particle when

the angle between the vector and J

equal 45°:-

(1) a / b (2) a

2b

(3)a

2bb

(4)b

2aa

148. Waves from two sources superpose on each other

at a particular point amplitude and frequency of

both the waves are equal. The ratio of intensities

when both waves reach in the same phase and

they reach with the phase difference of 900 will

be

(1) 1:1 (2) 2:1

(3) 2:1 (4) 4:1

149. The resistance of a bulb filaments is 100 at a

temperature of 100ºC. If its temperature coeffi-cient of resistance be 0.005/ºC, its resistance will

become 200 at a temperature of :(1) 200ºC (2) 300ºC

(3) 400ºC (4) 500ºC

150. In order to increase the angular magnification of

a simple microscope, one should increase :-

(1) The object size

(2) The aperature of the lens

(3) The focal length of the lens

(4) The power of the lens

151. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for

some time, after which it decelerates at a constant

rate and comes to rest. If total time elapsed is t,

then the maximum velocity acquired by the car is:-

(1)

2 2

t

(2)

2 2

t

(3) ( )t

(4)

t

152. A ring of mass M and radius R can have moment

of inertia :-

(1) MR2

(2) 2MR2

(3) 3MR2

(4) All

Key Filling

H-32/37


Kota/01CM314245

153. If a star emitting light of wavelength 5000 Å is

moving towards earth with a velocity of

1.5 x 106 m/s then the shift in the wave length

due to Doppler's effect will be :

(1) 2.5 Å (2) 250 Å

(3) 25 Å (4) Zero

154. A magnet of magnetic moment

M is moulded according to

figure, then magnetic

moment becomes :–

(1) 2M

(2)

2M

(3)

2 2M

(4)

M

155. In deriving the single slit diffraction pattern, it is

observed that the intensity is zero at angle n

a

.

In how many equal parts the slit may be dividedto justify this observations?

(1) n

2(2) 2n

(3) n (4) n/4

156. A particle is dropped vertically from rest from

a height. The time taken by it to fall through

sucessive distance of 1m each will then be :-

(1) All equal, being equal to / g second

(2) In the ratio of the square roots of the integers

1, 2, 3....

(3) In the ratio of the difference in the square

roots of the integers i.e. 1,( 2 1) ,

( 3 2),( 4 3) ......

(4) In the ratio of the reciprocal of the square

roots of the integers i.e. = 1 1 1 1

, , ,1 2 3 4

157. A bullet of mass 10 × 10–3 kg moving with a speed

of 20 ms–1 hits an ice block (0°C) of 990 g kept

at rest on a frictionless floor and gets embedded

in it. If ice takes 50% of KE lost by the system,

the amount of ice melted (in grams) approximately

is:-

(J = 4.2 J/cal; latent heat of ice = 80 cal/g)

(1) 6 (2) 3

(3) 6 × 10–3 (4) 3 × 10–3

153. 5000 Å

1.5 x 106

(1) 2.5 Å (2) 250 Å

(3) 25 Å (4) 154. M

(1) 2M

(2)

2M

(3)

2 2M

(4)

M

155. n

a

:-

(1) n

2(2) 2n

(3) n (4) n/4

156.

1-1

:-

(1) / g

(2) 1, 2, 3....

(3)

1,( 2 1) , ( 3 2),( 4 3) ....

(4)

= 1 1 1 1

, , ,1 2 3 4

157. 20 10 × 10–3 990 (0°C)

50%

()

(J = 4.2 = 80 cal/g)

(1) 6 (2) 3

(3) 6 × 10–3 (4) 3 × 10–3


H-33/37Kota/01CM314245

158. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around

a planet is independent of :

(1) The mass of the planet

(2) The radius of the planet

(3) The mass of the satellite

(4) All the three parameters (1), (2) and (3)

159. A charge q move in a circle of radius 'r' with speed

v. The magnetic field produces at the centre of

circle 'B', then radius of circle is directly

proportional to –

(1) v

B(2)

B

v

(3) Bv (4) v

B

160. A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron from

a metal surface whose work function is W0. If this

electron enters into a uniform magnetic field of

induction B in a direction perpendicular to the

field and describes a circular path of radius r, then

the radius r is given by (in the usual notation) :-

(1) 0m(E W )

eB

(2)

02m(E W )eB

(3) 02e(E W )

mB

(4) 02m(E W )

eB

161. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal

frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force

P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force

exerted by the rope on the block is-

(1) P (2) PM

M m

(3) Pm

M m(4)

Pm

M m

162. In which of the following heat loss is primarily

not due to convection ?

(1) Boiling of water

(2) Land and sea breeze

(3) Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to

current in filament

(4) Circulation of air around blast furnace

158. :(1) (2) (3)

(4) (1), (2) (3)

159. q 'v' r

'B'

–

(1) v

B(2)

B

v

(3) Bv (4) v

B

160. E

W0

B

r

r :-

(1) 0m(E W )

eB

(2)

02m(E W )eB

(3) 02e(E W )

mB

(4) 02m(E W )

eB

161. M m P m

(1) P (2) PM

M m

(3) Pm

M m(4)

Pm

M m

162. ?

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (Blast) (Circulation)

H-34/37


Kota/01CM314245

163. The escape velocity of an object from the earth

depends upon the mass of the earth(M), its mean

density(), its radius(R) and the gravitational

constant(G), thus the formula for escape velocity

is :

(1) 8

V R G3

(2) 8

V M GR3

(3) V 2GMR

(4) 2

2GMV

R

164. The direction of net magnetic force on each infinite

length wire shown in figure:-

(1) P towards left, Q towards left,

R towards left

(2) P towards left, Q towards right,

R towards right

(3) P towards right, Q towards left,

R towards right

(4) P towards left, Q towards left,

R towards right

165. The rate of disintegration of a fixed quantity of

a radioactive element can be increased by :-

(1) increasing the temperature

(2) increasing the pressure

(3) chemical reaction

(4) it is not possible

166. The coefficient of static friction between two

planes depends upon –

(1) The area of contact

(2) The normal reaction

(3) Nature of the surfaces in contact

(4) All of the above

163. (M),

(), (R)

(G),

:

(1) 8

V R G3

(2) 8

V M GR3

(3) V 2GMR

(4) 2

2GMV

R

164. :-

(1) P, Q , R

(2) P , Q , R

(3) P , Q , R

(4) P , Q , R

165. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

166.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question


H-35/37Kota/01CM314245

167. A gas is to obey the law P2V = constant. The initial

temperature and volume are T0 and V0. If the gasexpends to a volume 2V0, its final temperature

becomes :-

(1) 02T (2) 2T0 (3) T0/2 (4)

0T / 2

168. The eight charged water drops each of radius 8mm

and charge of 2 × 10–10 C are merged into a singledrop, the potential of the big drop is :-

(1) 300 V (2) 1800 V (3) 900 V (4) 200 V169. A coil of N = 100 turns carries a current I = 5A

and creates a magnetic flux = 10–5 Tm–2 per turn.

The value of its inductance L will be :-

(1) 0.05 mH (2) 0.10 mH

(3) 0.15 mH (4) 0.20 mH

170. The energy released by the fission of one uranium

atom is 200 MeV. The number of fissions persecond required to produce 3.2 W of power is :-

(Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)(1) 107 (2) 1010 (3) 1015 (4) 1011

171. A ring of radius r and mass per unit length mrotates with an angular velocity in a free space.

The tension in the ring is :-

(1) zero (2) 1

2m

2r2

(3) m2r

2(4) m

2r

172. Two moles of an ideal gas at 300 K were cooledat constant volume, so that the pressure is reduced

to half the initial value. Then, as a result of heatingat constant pressure the gas has expanded till it

attains the original temperature. Find the total heatabsorbed by gas, if R is the gas constant. :-

(1) 150R joules (2) 300R joules(3) 75R joules (4) 100R joules

173. In the given figure, the potential differencebetween A and B is :-

(1) 18V (2) 6 V (3) 12 V (4) zero

174. An inductance L and resistance R are firstconnected to a battery. After some time the batteryis disconnected but L and R remain connected ina closed circuit. Then the current reduces to 37%of its initial value in :-(1) RL sec (2) R/L sec(3) L/R sec (4) 1/LR sec

167. P2V = V0 T0 2V0

:-

(1) 02T (2) 2T

0(3) T

0/2 (4)

0T / 2

168. 2 × 10–10 :-(1) 300 V (2) 1800 V (3) 900 V (4) 200 V

169. N = 100 I = 5A

= 10–5 Tm–2 (L)

:-

(1) 0.05 mH (2) 0.10 mH

(3) 0.15 mH (4) 0.20 mH

170. 200 MeV3.2 :-(1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 )(1) 107 (2) 1010 (3) 1015 (4) 1011

171. r m :-

(1) (2) 1

2m

2r2

(3) m2r

2(4) m

2r

172. 300 K R :-(1) 150R (2) 300R (3) 75R (4) 100R

173. A B :-

(1) 18V (2) 6 V (3) 12 V (4) zero

174. L R L R 37% :-(1) RL sec (2) R/L sec

(3) L/R sec (4) 1/LR sec

H-36/37


Kota/01CM314245

175. The mobility of electron in Ge is 0.4 m2/Vs and

electronic charge is 1.6 × 10–19 C. How many

donor atom have in semi conductor of

conductivity 500 mho/m. :-

(1) 8 × 1021 m–3 (2) 8 × 1015 m–3

(3) 5 × 1021 m–3 (4) 8 × 1016 m–3

176. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path

of constant radius r such that its centripetal

acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac=k2rt

2.

The power delivered to the particle by the forces

acting on it :-

(1) 2mk2r

2t (2) mk

2r

2t

(3)4 2 5mk r t

3(4) zero

177. A spring mass system oscillates with a frequency n.

If it is taken in an elevator slowly accelerating

upward the frequency will

(1) increase (2) decrease

(3) remain same (4) become zero

178. Find the force of attraction between the two plates

of a parallel plate capacitor.

(1)

2

0

1 q

2 A(2)

2

0

1 q

2 A

(3) 2

0

q4

A (4)

2

0

1 q

A

179. An inductor L and a capacitor C are connected in

the circuit as shown in the figure the frequencyof the power supply is equal to the resonant

frequency of the circuit. Which ammeter will readzero ampere :-

A1

A2

A3

C

L

E = E sin tn

(1) A1 (2) A2

(3) A3 (4) None of these

180. For a common emitter transistor, input current is

5A and = 100. If circuit is operated at load

resistance of 10 k then voltage across load

resistance will be :-

(1) 5 V (2) 10 V (3) 12.5 V (4) 7.5 V

175. Ge 0.4 m2/Vs 1.6 × 10–19 C 500

:-

(1) 8 × 1021 m–3 (2) 8 × 1015 m–3

(3) 5 × 1021 m–3 (4) 8 × 1016 m–3

176. r m

ac t ac=k2rt

2

:-

(1) 2mk2r2t (2) mk

2r

2t

(3)4 2 5mk r t

3(4)

177. n (1) (2) (3) (4)

178.

(1)

2

0

1 q

2 A(2)

2

0

1 q

2 A

(3) 2

0

q4

A (4)

2

0

1 q

A

179. L C

:-

A1

A2

A3

C

L

E = E sin tn (1) A1 (2) A2

(3) A3 (4) 180. 5A

= 100 10 k

:-

(1) 5 V (2) 10 V (3) 12.5 V (4) 7.5 V


H-37/37Kota/01CM314245

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