1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?a) What is the vision?b) Did we get there?c) Is there budget?d) Where are we now?2. What is the RACI model used for?a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activityb) Defining requirements for a new service or processc) Analyzing the business impact of an incident d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?a) To standardize operationb) For knowing the cost of services providedc) For roles and responsibility to be cleard) For later comparison4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needsb) To deliver and support IT servicesc) To manage the technology used to deliver servicesd) To monitor the performance of technology and processes5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customers business?a) They are driven by patterns of business activityb) It is impossible to predict how they behavec) It is impossible to influence demand patternsd) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?a) Service Optimizationb) Service Transitionc) Service Designd) Service Strategy7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity2. Only one person can be accountable for an activitya) All of the aboveb) 1 onlyc) 2 onlyd) None of the above8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Productb) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Productc) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Productd) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?1. Process Metrics2. Supplier Metrics3. Service Metrics4. Technology Metrics5. Business Metricsa) 1, 2 and 3b) 2, 4 and 5c) 1, 3 and 4d) 1, 2 and 410. The priority of an Incident refers to?a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgencyb) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolvedc) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in timed) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?a) Account for all financial assets of the organizationb) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT components needed to deliver the servicesc) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementationsd) Implement ITIL across the organization12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?1. Incident Management2. Problem Management3. Access Management4. ?5. ?a) Event management and Request Fulfillmentb) Event Management and Service Deskc) Facilities Management and Event Managementd) Change Management and Service Level Management13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogueb) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Cataloguec) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfoliod) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?1. Hardware and Software design2. Environmental design3. Process design4. Data designa) 1, 3 and 4 onlyb) 1, 2 and 3 onlyc) All of the aboved) 2, 3 and 4 only15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?a) Review of the router operating system patchesb) Review of the current capabilities of IT service deliveryc) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a changed) Decommissioning legacy servers16. The BEST definition of an event is?a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impactedb) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery of servicesc) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reportsd) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement program17. What does the Service V model represent?a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projectsb) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of resourcesc) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capabilityd) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructureb) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT infrastructurec) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teamsd) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures19. The following options are considered within which process?1. Big bang vs. Phased2. Push and Pull3. Automated vs. Manuala) Incident Managementb) Release and Deployment Managementc) Service Asset and Configuration Managementd) Service Catalogue Management20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspectiveb) Create technology metrics to align with customer needsc) Create a customer facing service catalogued) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcomeb) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metricsc) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectivesd) People, Products, Technology22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?a) Service Strategyb) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvementc) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operationd) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control actionb) The ability to implement monitoring toolsc) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staffd) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices24. Consider the following statements:1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and servicesWhich of the above statements is CORRECT?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 1, 2 and 3 onlyd) All of the above25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?1. They provide structure and stability to organizations2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control4. They are costlier to implement compared to processesa) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) 1, 2 and 4 onlyc) All of the aboved) None of the above26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?a) They are likely to increase graduallyb) They are likely to increase dramaticallyc) They are likely to gradually reduced) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of servicesb) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectationsc) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Databased) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its usersb) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one languagec) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it servesd) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the same location29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periodsb) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changesc) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the change should be approvedd) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur.30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?a) The desired end state of a projectb) A marker or starting point for later comparisonc) The current desktop models in used) The type of testing to be done for a release31. The main objective of Availability Management is?a) To monitor and report availability of services and componentsb) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are metc) To guarantee availability levels for services and componentsd) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business32. Operations Control refers to?a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functionsb) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activitiesc) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applicationsd) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when Operators are not available33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?1. It is measurable2. It is timely3. It delivers a specific result4. It responds to a specific event5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholdera) 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyb) 1, 2, 4 and 5 onlyc) 1, 3, 4 and 5 onlyd) All of the above34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridgeb) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an applicationc) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an applicationd) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options35. A Service Level Package is best described as?a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service packageb) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreementc) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to payd) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technologyb) Enabling users to resolve Problemsc) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of serviced) Contributing to the reduction of impact37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?a) Recommending improvementsb) Designing and documenting a Servicec) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Serviced) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Reportb) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implementc) Plan, Do, Act, Auditd) Plan, Do, Check, Act39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process datab) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present datac) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metricsb) They create value for stakeholdersc) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customerd) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?a) An Operations Lifecycleb) An IT Management Lifecyclec) A Service Lifecycled) An Infrastructure Lifecycle2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?1. The design of services2. The design of Service Management systems and tools3. The design of technology architecture and management systems4. The design of the processes required5. ?a) The design of Functionsb) The design of Service Level Agreementsc) The design of applicationsd) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?1. Service Owner2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager3. Process Ownera) 1 and 2 onlyb) 1 and 3 onlyc) All of the aboved) 2 and 3 only4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvementb) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operationc) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvementd) Continual Service Improvement5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructureb) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external business viewc) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the servicesd) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by Service Design6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management processa) 2 onlyb) 1 onlyc) All of the aboved) None of the above7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production managementb) They are used to create value in the form of goods and servicesc) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Supportd) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?1. Service Portfolio Management2. Demand Management3. Financial Managementa) Service Operationsb) Service Strategyc) Service Transitiond) Continual Service Improvement9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service Operation?a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operationb) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with Service Operationc) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycled) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the Service Lifecycle10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?a) Purchasing tools to support the Processb) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are metc) Carrying out activities defined in the Processd) Monitoring and improving the Process11. Demand Management is primarily used to?a) Increase customer valueb) Eliminate excess capacity needsc) Increase the value of ITd) Align business with IT cost12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the CSI programb) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusingc) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement CSId) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the businessa) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) All of the abovec) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 3 and 4 only14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?b) What opportunities are there in the market?c) Why should a customer buy these services?d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users3. Defining security policies for system access4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access toa) 3 and 4 onlyb) 1 and 3 onlyc) 2 and 3 onlyd) 1 and 2 only16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support Applicationsb) Managing applications through their lifecyclec) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new softwared) Developing operational functionality required by the business17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?a) The Glossary of Termsb) A Service Level Agreementc) An Incident Management recordd) A Configuration Item (CI)18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?a) Dealing with Service Requests from the usersb) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilledc) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requestsd) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?1. Data mining and workflow tools2. Measurement and reporting systems3. Release and Deployment technology4. Process Designa) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) 1, 3 and 4 onlyc) 2, 3 and 4 onlyd) All of the above20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good practice?a) It can be used to drive an organization forwardb) It is something that is in wide industry usec) It is always documented in international standardsd) It is always based on ITIL21. Consider the following statements:1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able to be measuredWhich of the above statements are CORRECT?a) 1 onlyb) All of the abovec) None of the aboved) 2 only22. Warranty of a service means which of the following?a) The service is fit for purposeb) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the servicec) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of timed) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levelsb) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspectivec) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieved) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?a) The version information of all softwareb) The organizational structure of the companyc) Asset informationd) Details of all operational services25. Facilities Management refers to?a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as utilities, such as printers or network accessb) The Management of an outsourcing contractc) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Centerd) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processesb) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processesc) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and business unitsd) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?a) Master copies of softwareb) Backups of application datac) Software licensesd) Master copies of controlled documentation28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled mannerb) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectivelyc) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failured) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made29. Functions are best described as?a) Without their own body of knowledgeb) Closed loop systemsc) Self-Contained units of organizationsd) Focusing on transformation to a goal30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidentsb) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incidentd) An Incident that is easy to solve31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resourcesb) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resourcesc) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnershipsd) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?a) To validate, direct, justify and interveneb) To validate, measure, monitor and changec) To validate, plan, act and improved) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followedb) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possiblec) To help enable different applications to work togetherd) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service Design?a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Managementb) A definition of the people and products required for successful designc) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specificationsd) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service Management35. Consider the following statements:1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service providerWhich of the above statements is CORRECT?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 1 onlyc) All of the aboved) 1 and 3 only36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?a) Assess the current business situationb) Understand high-level business requirementsc) Agree on priorities for improvementd) Create and verify a plan37. An Incident occurs when:1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an applicationWhich of the above statements is CORRECT?a) All of the aboveb) 1 and 4 onlyc) 2 and 3 onlyd) None of the above38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?a) Supplier Managementb) Service Level Managementc) Service Portfolio Managementd) Contract Management39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cyclec) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvementsd) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?a) Senior business managers and all IT staffb) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Managerc) All customers, users and IT staffd) Information Security Management staff onlyAnswers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b.21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing? A. Internal Sourcing-. B. External Sourcing C. Co-Sourcing D. Managed Services2. Major Incidents require? A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation 3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool? A. Knowledge B. Information C. Wisdom D. Data 4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested? A. Configuration Management B. Incident Management C. Problem Management D. Release Management 5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes: How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited? A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement 6. Consider the following statements: 1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and Function in an organization are defined 2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function Which of the above statements are CORRECT? A. 1 Only B. Both of the above C. Neither of the above D. 2 only7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department? A. Application Management B. Operations Management C. Service Desk D. Availability Management 8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the Intended objectives B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service9. Which of the following may be defined in a process? 1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Guidelines 5. Standards 6. Governance Framework A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only B. All of the above C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 10. A Service Provider is? A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external customers C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers D. An organization supplying IT services11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? A. Capacity Management B. Change Management C. Configuration Management D. Financial Management for IT services 12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role? A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components? A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Service Level Management C. Problem Management D. Availability Management14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management? A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other Assets. B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets. C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. D. All of above15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer? A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period 16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of? A. Services and Resources B. Services and Business Processes C. Resources and Business Processes D. Services, Resources and Business Processes 17. What is the difference between a process and a project? A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan. B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan. C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important 18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model? A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution; continually improve B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep the momentum going? C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going? 19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability? A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with 20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. Availability Management B. Change Management C. Configuration Management D. Service Level Management 21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) 22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this? A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management 23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise? A. Application Service Provision B. Business Process Outsourcing C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing D. Co-Sourcing 24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Service Catalogue B. Service Improvement Program C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) 25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change? A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc. B. The speed with which the change is made C. The sequence in which the change is made D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned 26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure? A. Availability Management B. Capacity management C. Change Management D. Incident Management 27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. Replacement Request B. Request for Change C. Request for Release D. Service Request 28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item? A. Availability Manager B. Incident Manager C. Problem Manager D. Service Level Manager29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing? 1. What Is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? 6.? A. What is the ROI B. How much did it cost. C. How do we keep the momentum going. D. What is the VOI?30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management Process? A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities. B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly. C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities. D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved 31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct? 1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle. 2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System. 4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process A. 1 & 2 only B. 1, 2 & 3 C. 1, 2 & 4 D. All of above 32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design? 1. Perspectives 2. Positioning 3. Plan 4. ??? A. People B. Product C. Patterns D. Partners 33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Average uptime of a service B. Average downtime of a service C. Average time between two consecutive incidents D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event? A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT service. B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool. C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents being logged D. All of above 35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library (DML)? A. Copies of all software versions that are needed B. Copies of all live software programs C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing36. Application Portfolio 1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle. 2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications. 3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System. Which of the above statements is correct? A. 1 only B. 2 & 3only C. All of above D. 1 & 2 only37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance? A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after Failure of a Component part. B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component. C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to normal working after a failure. D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without interruption 38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan? A. Capacity Forecasts B. Recommendations C. Components and resource forecasts D. Countermeasures for risks39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. By checking contracts with suppliers B. By measuring customer satisfaction C. By defining service levels D. By reporting on all incidents40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?A. Designing and building a releaseB. Testing a releaseC. Compiling the release scheduleD. Communicating and preparing the release