national talent search examination (ntse) … · a cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. ......

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CORPORATE OFFICE : Paruslok, Boring Road Crossing, Patna-01

1. Some translated words in an artificial Language (in which the word order is not necessarilysame) the are given below.

mie pie sie good person sing

pie sie rie sing good lyrics

tie rie sie love good lyrics

What is the translation for “person love lyrics”?

(1) pie tie rie (2) tie rie sie (3) rie mie tie (4) sie mie pie

Ans. (3)

2. In the given sequence, some letters are missing. Which of the given options can fill the blanksin the correct order from left to right?

ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb

(1) abab (2) abba (3) aabb (4) baba

Ans. (2)

3. Identify the number in the position of’?’

(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 36

Ans. (2)

4. Find the missing number.

(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

Ans. (1)

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (NTSE)STAGE-II, 2016-17 (DATE : 14.05.2017)

MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

5. If A, B, C, D are distinct decimal digits, then which of the following option is correct?

A 4BCC

1 A1D C

(1) A = 3 B = 7 C = 5 D = 9

(2) A = 2 B = 3 C = 6 D = 5

(3) A = 3 B = 8 C = 6 D = 5

(4) A = 2 B = 3 C = 5 D = 7

Ans. (4)

6. Observe the following figures representing a balance.

Which of the following figures represents the correct balance?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans. (3)

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

7. Choose appropriate option from given alternatives such that the relationship defined by ‘:’ ispreserved.

PNLJ : LIFC and VTRP : __________

(1) ROLI (2) SOLH (3) RPOM (4) DMEN

Ans. (1)

8. A coin is in a fixed position. Another identical coin is rolled around the edge fo the first one. Howmany complete revolutions will be made by the revolving coin before it reaches its startingposition?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. (2)

9. In South-East becomes North; and North-East becomes West; then West becomes

(1) North - East (2) South - East (3) North - West (4) South - West

Ans. (2)

10. A cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. It is painted red on two opposite faces, black onthe other two opposite faces and green on the left over faces. It is then cut into 216 cubes ofside 1 cm. How many small cubes have no face painted?

(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 64 (4) 24

Ans. (3)

11. Find the odd-one out of the following terms:

EF22, JK42, GH24, VW90, IJ38

(1) EF22 (2) GH24 (3) IJ38 (4) VW90

Ans. (2)

12. Choose the conclusion which logically follow from the given statements.

Statement:

All the pens are papers

All the papers are boats

Some birds are boats

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Conclusion:

A. Some boats are pens

B. Some birds are papers

C. None of the pens are birds

(1) Only A and B (2) Only A (3) Only C (4) Only A and C

Ans. (2)

13. How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

Ans. (3)

14. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’?

255, 3610, 4915, M, 8125

(1) 5100 (2) 5420 (3) 6420 (4) 6422

Ans. (3)

15. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’ ?

L6, O8, R11, M, X25, A42, D75

(1) U15 (2) U16 (3) W14 (4) U14

Ans. (2)

16. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’?

7 3 6 2

2 8 5 4

1 1 2 4

4 2 1 M

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

Ans. (3)

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

17. If ' ' means ‘×’ , ' ' means ‘÷’ , ' ' means ‘+’ and ' ' means ‘–’ then evaluate the followingexpression using standard operator precedence.

56 6 8 4 1

(1) 52 (2) 24 (3) 15 (4) 43

Ans. (3)

18. With what operators, should the symbols @ and < be replaced so that the following expressionis valid.

100 – 81 ÷ 27 @ 3 < 6 = 115

(1) + and – (2) × and ÷ (3) + and × (4) ÷ and –

Ans. (2)

19. x is an integer such that it leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, leaves a reaminder of 3when divided by 5, and leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. What could be a possiblevalue of x from among the following options?

(1) 53 (2) 68 (3) 74 (4) 83

Ans. (2)

20. In how many ways can you distributed 10 identical balls into two non-identical boxes so thatnone are empty?

(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10

Ans. (3)

21. One line forms two regions in a plane. Similarily, two lines in a plane can form a maximum offour regions. These are shown in the figures below:

Region 1

Region 2

Region 4Region 3

What is the maximum number of regions that can be formed by 4 lines in a plane? Lines neednot be concurrent.

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 11

Ans. (4)

22. You need to take n arbitrary points on or inside a square of side 2 cm such that there will alwaysbe a pair of points at a distance of not more than 2 cm . What is the maximum value of n?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 8

Ans. (3)

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

23. The following facts are known about an unknown number X:

I: The sum of digits of X is 15

II: The unit’s digit of X is 6.

Then which of the following statement is certainly true about X?

(1) X is divisible by 3 but not by 6

(2) X is divisible by 6 but not by 9

(3) X is not divisible by 6 but divisible by 9

(4) X is divisible by both 6 and 9

Ans. (2)

24. The average of A, B and C is 43 years. Which of the following statements are required to findthe eldest among them?

Statements:

I: Age of C is 65 years.

II: Age of A is 25 years.

(1) I is sufficient

(2) Both I and II are required

(3) I and II together are not sufficient

(4) II is sufficient

Ans. (1)

Direction (Question 25–26)

A class is to be taught five subjects – Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics byfive periods (1 to 5). A teacher can teach in only one of the periods. The following details areavailable about the teaching.

A teaches mathematics which is not taught in the first period.

Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.

Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it precedes mathematics period.

E teaches in the first period.

C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or the last periods.

Hindi is taught in the last period.

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MENTAL ABILITY TEST

25. Which of the following statments is necessarily true?

(1) Third period is of Hindi taught by B

(2) Second period is of Physics taught by C

(3) Fourth period is of Mathematics taught by A

(4) Fifth period is Biology taught by D

Ans. (3)

26. Which subject is taught by B?

(1) Physics (2) Chemistry (3) Biology (4) Hindi

Ans. (4)

27. A solid metallic cylinder of radius 12 cm and height 175 cm is melted and moulded into anothersolid cylinder of height 63 cm. What is the radius of the new cylider?

(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 20 (4) 5

Ans. (3)

28. Choose the option which shows the correct mirror image of the characters given below.

D I V E R T 6 4 7 5 A L E

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans. (3)

Direction (Question 29 – 30)

There are 150 students in a class. 20 students play both hockey and kabaddi. The same num-bers of students play only football. 35 students play both hockey and football but not kabaddi.25 play both football and kabaddi but not hockey. The number of students who play only hockeyis the same as the number of students who do not play any of the three mentioned games andthe number of students who play only hockey is half of hte number of students who play onlyfootball.

29. How many students play only kabaddi?

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

Ans. (3)

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30. How many students play only hockey?

(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25

Ans. (1)

31. What will be the number in the blank box?

1 32 14

4 65 77

7 98

(1) 98 (2) 128 (3) 189 (4) 194

Ans. (4)

32. What is the total number of circles in the figure given below?

(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16

Ans. (3)

33. A bucket contains milk mixed with water, of which 3 parts are water and 5 parts are milk. A partof the mixture is removed from the bucket and is replaced by water. What portion of the mixtureshould have been removed so that the new mix contains milk and water in equal proportion?

(1) 13 (2) 1

4 (3) 15 (4) 1

6

Ans. (3)

34. You need to colour the circles in such a way that no two circles connected by a line get thesame colour. What is the minimum number of distinct colours needed to colour all the circlesin the figure?

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

Ans. (1)


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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35. From each box you can move only to the immediate right box or the immediate top box. Youcannot move into or through a shaded box. How many ways are there to move from the boxmarked S to the box marked D?

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14

Ans. (3)

36. Which number will come in the place of ‘M’?

16 7 2 2025 8 2 3036 9 5 2449 10 7 M

(1) 21 (2) 32 (3) 40 (4) 63

Ans. (1)

37. The square of the length of a rod AB is 72 cm2. If we place the rod in the corner of a room, sothat the end A is always on the edge between the two walls of the corner and the end B isalways on the floor, what is the maximum possible area of the triangle formed by the rod, theedge between the walls and the floor?

(1) 6 cm2 (2) 12 cm2 (3) 18 cm2 (4) 24 cm2

Ans. (3)

38. What is the missing term (?) in the following series?

2, 6, 6, 5, 10, 4, 14, 3, 18, ?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 19 (4) 22

Ans. (2)

39. In the the question given below, there are two statements followed by two conclusions. Youhave to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from com-monly known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements?

Statements:

Some kings are queens.

All the queens are beautiful.


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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Conclusions:

I: All the kings are beautiful.

II: All the queens are kings

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows

(3) Neither I nor II follows

(4) Both I and II follow

Ans. (3)

40. In prime numbers are assigned to English alphabets from A to Z in order, MAT will be

(1) 31 1 67 (2) 41 1 67 (3) 37 2 71 (4) 41 2 71

Ans. (4)

41. What number comes inside the square in place of ‘X’ ?

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

Ans. (2)

42. Find the alphabet that will replace ‘?’

I 2 2 3 1 5II 3 4 2 4 2III H P I ? Y

(1) A (2) D (3) O (4) N

Ans. (1)

43. In a certain language IMPHAL is coded as JLRFDI. How will MYSURU be coded in the samelanguage?

(1) NXUSUR (2) RUSUXN (3) NXSUUR (4) NXTTUR

Ans. (1)


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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44. What time should the IV clock show?

(1) 1:00 (2) 1 : 20 (3) 1:40 (4) 2:00

Ans. (2)

45. How many crosses should be there in the box marked with ‘?’ ?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. (4)

46. Find the missing term.

a, b, d, _____ , p

(1) h (2) i (3) j (4) k

Ans. (1)

47. A is East of B and West of C, D is South-West of C, and B is South-East of E.

When seen from West to East, which of the following sequences are possible?

I: EBDAC II: DEBAC

III: EBADC IV: EDBAC

(1) I and III (2) I, III and IV (3) I, II and III (4) all I, II, III and IV

Ans. (4)


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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48. A, B, C, and D are to be seated in a row. C and D cannot be on adjacent seat. Also, B cannotbe at the third place. Which of the following must be false?

(1) A is at the fourth place (2) A is at the third place

(3) A is at the second place (4) A is at the first place

Ans. (4)

49. Mrs. Kirandeep, a driving instructor, has to arrange training schedule for some of her pupils.She has 8 new pupil who wish to book either a morning or evening fo a particular day. Theappointment can be given for Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday. The instructor in-structs only one pupil in morning and one in the evening session.

Mrs. Sabita is only available Tuesday morning but Mr. Aaditya can make any time on aWednesday.

Mrs. Firdaus is free on Tuesday all day but Mr. Naved is only free Wednesday evening.

Mrs. Seema is only available Friday morning whereas Mrs. Ritu can only make saturdayevening.

Mrs. Shalu is available all day Fridays whereas Mr. Ronald can make any time on aSaturday.

Which of the following two should have morning appointments?

(1) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Shalu (2) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Firdaus

(3) Mr. Aaditya and Mrs. Firdaus (4) Mr. Aaditya and Mr. Ronald

Ans. (4)

50. Just before sunset Veena and Zeba were talking to each other standing face- to- face. If Veenasees Zeba’s shadow to be exactly towards the right of Zeba, which direction was Veena fac-ing?

(1) South (2) North (3) East (4) North-East

Ans. (1)


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

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Q.1-5 Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. Choose the mostappropriate answer.

It is taken for granted by the advocates of oriental learning that no native of this country can possiblyattain more than a mere smattering of English. They do not attempt to prove this. But they perpetuallyinsinuate it. They designate the education which their opponents recommend as a mere spelling-book education. They assume it as undeniable that the question is between a profound knowledgeof Indian and Arabic literature and science on the one side, and superficial knowledge of the rudimentsof English on the other. This is not merely an assumption, but an assumption contrary to all reasonand experience. We know that foreigners of all nations do learn our language sufficiently to haveaccess to all the most abstruse knowledge which it contains sufficiently to relish even the moredelicate graces of our most idiomatic writers. There are, in this very town, natives who are quitecompetent to discuss political or scientific questions with fluency and precision in the Englishlanguage. I have heard the very question on which I am now writing discussed by native gentlemenwith a liberality and an intelligence which would do credit to any member of the Committee ofPublic Instruction. Indeed it is unusual to find, even in the literary circles of the Continent, anyforeigner who can express herselflhimself in English with so much facility and correctness as wefind in many Indians. Nobody, I suppose, will contend that English is so difficult to an Indian asGreek to an Englishman. Yet an intelligent English youth, in a much smaller number of years thanour unfortunate pupils pass at the Sanskrit College, becomes able to read, to enjoy, and even toimitate not unhappily the compositions of the best Greek authors. Less than half the time whichenables an English youth to read Herodotus and Sophocles ought to enable an Indian to readHume and Milton.

1. The writer feels that the advocates of oriental learning are

1. cautiously open to the idea of English education.

2. aware of the tyranny of English education.

3. irrational in their views about English education.

4. aware of the politics of English education

Ans. (3)

2. Which of the following ideas does the writer have a problem with?

1. Some natives are proficient in discussing complex topics.

2. knowledge of English is pitched against that of Indian and Arabic literature.

3. Foreigners can read and enjoy some of the difficult English writings.

4. Learning English for an Indian can be easier than learning Greek for an Englishman.

Ans. (2)

3. The foreigner discussed in the passage is

1. an Arab. 2. a Greek. 3. an Indian 4. an Englishman.

Ans. (4)


LANGUAGE TEST (ENGLISH)

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4. Which of the following sentences best captures the main argument of the writer?

1. Many Indians are capable of using English like any Englishman.

2. Learning English is as difficult as learning any other foreign language.

3. The importance of English education needs to be recognised by the supporters of orientallearning.

4. An Indian can learn English in half the time taken by an Englishman to learn Greek.

Ans. (3)

5. According to the author, it is easier for

1. Indians to have a profound knowledge of Arabic literature and science than learn English.

2. Indians to learn Sanskrit than for Englishmen to appreciate Greek literature.

3. foreigners to learn Indian language than for Indians to learn foreign languages.

4. Indians to appreciate English literature than for Englishmen to appreciate Greek literature.

Ans. (3)

Q6-10 Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. Choose the mostappropriate answer.

Every day new careers and professional opportunities emerge. No matter how much each careeroption excites you, you will have to prioritize and choose the best option for yourself. Your personality,interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses will help you to decide the most viableoption for you. The following exercises are important for career planning, and following these willensure that you are on the right track.

Self-Assessment: The entire process of career planning should be ideally done in conjunctionwith your career counsellor, so that you have professional help at every step. A trained careercounsellor can help you identify a variety of professions in which you can excel. Remember tokeep your list of possible professions long, so that your confidence in yourself does not wane.

When I took my test, the long list of professions included being a florist, teacher, counsellor, doctorand sales executive. The very idea that I have an aptitude for several professions - and not just tobe a doctor - was very comforting. I thought to myself, “When patients get tired of me I can alwaysbe a salesman!” Do not let anyone ever tell you that you are good for nothing. Each one of us hasseveral talents, and it is important to first identify them, and then work hard to develop them.

Self-Analysis: Another important aspect of self-assessment is self-analysis or soul searching.We are the best judge of our abilities, strengths and weaknesses. If you concentrate and decide tobe honest with yourself, self-analysis can help you understand your career options better.

Need for Planning: If you ask adults around you whether they actually became what they hadwanted to become when they were young, chances are that very few of them actually becamewhat they had aspired towards in childhood. This may not essentially be a reflection of their failure- but an indication of change. Circumstances change, ideas change, and so do people. By thetime you grow up, you may end up working in professions that neither you nor your parents knowabout today. Of course some of you may get to work in traditional professions and move along a



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well-planned path. Whatever the consequence of your planning, the truth about making a plan isthat it may not work. But in the words of Henry C. Link, if “you do make a plan, the chances ofgetting what you want significantly increase. “

But one thing is quite certain: only those of you who work hard at your studies, acquire new skillsas you move along in life, involve yourself in cultural/sports activities and attempt to plan your lifewill be successful.

6. Career planning is an activity that requires

1. analysing one’s personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses.

2. working hard at your studies, acquiring new skills as you move along in life and involvingyourself in cultural/sports activities.

3. following three important steps in consultation with one’s career counsellor, and making aplan that may work.

4. understanding and being aware of the fact that whatever the consequences of one’s planningthe truth about asking a plan is that it may not work.

Ans. (1)

7. This passage may be summarized as

1. ‘In career planning, it is important to involve oneself in cultural/sports activities as much asworking hard or acquiring new skills.’

2. Before making a career choice, one should learn to prioritize career options and use one’spersonality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses to plan and decidethe most viable option.’

3. ‘In choosing a career, it is important not to allow anyone to tell us that we are good for nothing,because our personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses will helpus decide the most viable career options for ourselves. ‘

4. ‘A good career choice results when you follow traditional professions and move along a well-planned path.’

Ans. (2)

8. Self-analysis is considered an important part of self-assessment because

1. soul searching helps us to judge our abilities honestly and helps us understand our careeroptions better.

2. we are the best judge of our abilities, strengths and weaknesses, and selfanalysis will enableothers to analyse our abilities accurately.

3. by the time we grow up, we may end up working in professions that neither we nor ourparents know about today.

4. each one of us has career options, and it is important to first identify them, and then workhard to attain them.

Ans. (1)



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9. A trained career counsellor can help us

1. do self-analysis, so that we are honest with ourselves.

2. decide whether to be a florist, teacher, counsellor, doctor or sales executive, so that we canbe a salesman if we cannot be a doctor.

3. identify our talents, because each one of us has several talents,and it is important to firstidentify them, and then work hard to develop them.

4. Yidentify different professions that will help us use our abilities, because a trained professionalcan help us prioritize and choose the option that is most viable for us.

Ans. (4)

10. An important point highlighted in the passage is that

1. only a trained counsellor can help you make the right career choice.

2. it is our abilities, strengths and weaknesses that help us succeed in our career.

3. there is not much use of making a plan - very few people get their plans fulfilled.

4. many . people do not get to pursue the career of their choice because circumstances, ideasand people change.

Ans. (2)

Q.11-15 Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. Choose the mostappropriate answer.

If the fact of the fire did not immediately penetrate my consciousness, the heat of the blast did andsoon propelled me from my seat. All around me, there was a confusion of upended tables,overturned chairs, bodies pitched toward the door of the dining room, and the sounds of brokenglass and crockery. Fortunately, the windows toward the street, large windows through which abody might pass, had been thrown open by an enterprising diner. I remember that I rolled sidewaysthrough one of these window frames and fell onto the snow and was immediately aware that Ishould move aside to allow others to land as I had - and it was in that moment that my altruismwas finally triggered.

I rose to my feet and began to assist those who had sustained cuts and bruises and brokenbones, or who had been mildly crushed in the chaos. The blaze lit up the escaped diners with alight greater than any other that could be produced in the night, so that I was able to see clearly thedazed expressions of those near to me. Many people were coughing and some were crying, andall looked as though they had been struck by a blow to the head. A few men attempted heroics andtried to go back into the hotel to save those who remained behind, and I think one student didactually rescue an elderly woman who had succumbed to paralysis beside the buffet table; butgenerally there was no thought of reentering the burning building once one had escaped. Indeed,so great was the heat that we in the crowd had to move farther and farther across the street untilwe all stood in the college quadrangle, surrounded by bare oaks and elms and stately sycamores.



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11. The passage describes

1. the heat and smoke that was generated by the sudden fire.

2. the effect of the blast on unsuspecting hotel guests.

3. the loss of crockery, glass and bodies in the accident.

4. the layout of the college quadrangle, surrounded by bare oaks and elms and sycamores.

Ans. (2)

12. The dazed expression on people’s faces was caused by

1. the blow to their heads.

2. the heat generated by the blast.

3. the suddenness and extent of damage caused by the impact of the blast.

4. the impact of broken glass and crockery being hurled around in the confusion.

Ans. (3)

13. The words in the passage that suggest there was a blast include

1. fire, heat, confusion, overturned and chaos.

2. blazed, dazed, heroic, succumbed and paralysis.

3. broken glass, cuts, bruises and sycamores.

4. rescue, quadrangle, altruism, triggered and heat.

Ans. (1)

14. ‘The blaze lit up the escaped diners with a light greater than any other that could be produced in thenight’ can be paraphrased as

1. ‘The fire set all the escaped diners ablaze.’

2. ‘The light that set the escaped diners on fire was from a divine night fire.’

3. ‘The night sky was lit by such brightness that one could see the blaze clearly.’ .

4 ’The fire burned in such a way that the writer could see the escaped diners clearly.

Ans. (4)

15. The word altruism here means

1. ‘the act of rolling across a window.’

2. ‘a sudden movement triggered by a blast.’

3. ‘selfless concern for the well being of others.’

4. ‘the dazed feeling generated by an accident.

Ans. (3) ‘



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Q16-17 The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences aregiven. Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear tocomplete the paragraph.

16. S 1- A man who possesses a strong will and firm determination finds all difficulties solved.

S2-

S3-

S4-

S5- It is therefore, the man who labours hard with a strong resolution and an unshaken will, whoachieves success and makes his fortune.

P Such a man goes on working hard and even if he fails he is never downcast.

Q In turn failures make him all the more determined and resolute and he persists in his task tillhe attains the desired success.

R To him there are a thousand ways open to steer clear of all dangers and difficulties.

Choose from the options given below:

1. RPQ

2. PRQ

3. QRP

4. PQR

Ans. (1)

17. S 1- Film theory is an academic discipline that aims to explore the essence of cinema and providesconceptual frameworks for understanding a film’s relationship to reality, other arts, individualviewers, and society at large.

S2-

S3-

S4-

S5- Film review, on the other hand, is the way in which critics assess a film’s overall quality anddetermine whether or not they think the film is worth recommending to viewers.

P Film theory incorporates various aspects of filmmaking, including analysis and review,

Q One way of analysing films is by the shot-by-shot analysis, though that is typically used onlyfor small clips or scenes.

R Film analysis is the process of analysing a film in terms of mise-en-scene, cinematography,sound and editing.

Choose from the options given below:

1. PQR 2. QRP 3. PRQ 4. RQP

Ans. (3)



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Q18-19 The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriatesentence from the given options to complete it.

18. A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are goingto be running our country in a few decades are like.

B. __________________________________________________________________

C. I went to sleep in my hotel room around midnight, and when I awoke, my mailbox was full ofreplies - sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.

1. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven;she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of workby studying in her sleep.

2. As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or.a paper topic to herself; shewould then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved.

3. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e-mails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups.

4. Young people stay up late replying to their emails and indulging in social networking.

Ans. (3)

19. A. We are usually inclined to look upon bad temper as a very harmless weakness.

B. _______________________________________________________________________

C. And yet all religious texts condemn it as one of the most destructive elements inhuman nature.

1. This shows that we lack judgement.

2. Often work pressure creates bad temper.

3. Bad temper harms human relationship.

4. We speak of it as a mere infirmity of nature, perhaps a family failing.

Ans. (4)

Q.20-29 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option from the given alternatives.

20. We are trying to ________correct information and dispel wrong information that is being circulated.

1. raise

2. foster

3. cultivate

4. disseminate

Ans. (4)



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21. When we decided to move, my mother wanted a place with a ___________ outside every windowto keep potted plants.

1. balcony

2. ljledge

3. curtain

4. stained glass

Ans. (2)22. While Dinesh can never acquire a choir boyish innocence, he has and seems to know that an

entire nation’s sporting image stands on the team’s sportsmanship.

1. mellowed

2. discarded

3. plummeted.

4. flipped

Ans. (1)23. The construction of identity (for both men and women) is __________by culture, nationality,

class and historical differences.

1. inferred

2. interlocked

3. Innfluenced

4. instigated

Ans. (3)24. While we believe that BMI is a standard in measuring the fat in our body, there is a growing

_____________among scientists that it may not be the best tool to do so.

1. concord

2. Vconsensus

3. congruous

4. confluence

Ans. (2)25. Under the new rule, the civic body can take_________action against the violators by imposing a

fine.

1. punitive

2. vindictive

3. pejorative

4. diminutive

Ans. (1)



[ 21 ]


26. The SC has cautioned HCs against reversing the acquittal of an accused by the trial court unless thejudgment was __________ wrong.

1. ostensibly

2. tangibly

3. palpably

4. allegedly

Ans. (1)27. From the rim of the excavation site, the archaeologist was unable to surmise exactly what the

__________ chamber might hold.

1. terra firma

2. Vsubterranean

3. ground level

4. beneath

Ans. (2)28. The heat was becoming unbearable as the temperature was rising, the rains had been delayed.

1. However

2. Therefore

3. Moreover

4. Nonetheless

Ans. (3)29. Miles Davis, the jazz player, __________ supremely expressive, didn’t have the range

or technique to play convincingly in the bebop style.

1. moreover

2. though

3. nevertheless

4. on the one hand

Ans. (2)

Q.30-35 Select the meaning of the underlined phrases/idioms.

30. It’s easy for you to splurge when you have your mom’s credit card, but remember after the feastcomes the reckoning.

1. Trust is easy to break.

2. Truth can’t be hidden forever.

3. Every action has a consequence.

4. Don’t take your parents for granted.

Ans. (3)



[ 22 ]


31. The distance between the towns is only 30 kms as the crow flies.

1. when measured in a straight line

2. when measured in a random manner

3. when measured between the two highest points

4. when the curves of the road are included in the measurement

Ans. (1)

32. I didn’t want to go to the exhibition but Leena twisted my arm.

1. forced me

2. teased me

3. fought with me

4. discouraged me

Ans. (1)

33. In this age of super specialisation, industrial engineers areis.demand because they are the only oneswho can see the big picture.

1. realistic view of something

2. complete view of something

3. narrow view of something

4. accurate view of something

Ans. (2)

34. What is the matter with him? He is falling foul of his friends.

1. betraying

2. quarrelling with

3. losing touch with

4. being badly hurt by

Ans. (2)

35. She gave me a cold shoulder when I went to see her.

1. abused me

2. insulted me

3. ignored me

4. scolded me

Ans. (3)



[ 23 ]


Q.36-43 In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the mostappropriate word for each blank from the given options. Carnatic vocalist, playback singer and composerMangalampalli Balamurali Krishna, who burst into the music world as a child (36)______, passedaway on 22 November 2016. The (37)______, of Balamurali Krishna include a musical (38)______which showed up as his ability to (39)______ and reproduce music heard just once, his ability to(40)______ more than one musical instrument, his ability to compose from the age of 15 and finally,his (41)______ voice manifested as his ability to utter clearly, pronounce faithfully and accent correctlythe lyrical phrases along with the (42)______ of the underlying musical (43)______and microtones.

36. 1. spectacle

2. prodigy

3. paragon

4. demigod

Ans. (2)

37. 1. talents

2. potentials

3. capacities

4. advantages

Ans. (1)

38. 1. perception

2. smartness

3. denseness

4. acumen

Ans. (4)

39. 1. recite

2. retain

3. realize

4. repeat

Ans. (2)

40. 1. handle

2. work

3. create

4. manoeuvre

Ans. (4)



[ 24 ]


41. 1. abled

2. gifted3. stunned4. staggered

Ans. (2)42. 1. signs

2. slots3. tokens4. nuances

Ans. (4)43. 1. notes

2. marks3. records4. remarks

Ans. (1)Q.44-47 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.44. Worries __________ all kinds of illness, from high blood pressure to stomachache.

1. believe to have caused2. are believed to be caused3. are believed to cause4. believed to be caused

Ans. (3)45. I __________ all the books on the reading list before I attended the lecture.

1. had read2. have read3. would have read4. would read

Ans. (1)46. Bala Chandra __________________ school before. The desire to become a famous novelist led

him to attend the adult literacy classes.1. never attends2. was never attentive

3. had never attended

4. will be attending

Ans. (3)



[ 25 ]


47. I set the alarm for 6.30 in the morning __________ I wouldn’t miss the train.

1. in case

2. unless

3. until ,

4. So that

Ans. (4)

Q.48-50. Select the word which means the opposite of the underlined word.

48. The activities of the cine club will conclude early next year owing to the volume of work that has keptits members occupied.

1. continue

2. commence

3. comprehend

4. conduct

Ans. (2)

49. The town is unique in its appearance.

1. picturesque

2. singular

3. drab

4. typical

Ans. (4)

50. Mr. Prakash was candid at a history TV promotional in Mumbai recently.

1. fickle

2. forthright

3. unapologetic

4. uarded

Ans. (4)



[ 26 ]



SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SCIENCE DISCIPLINE)

1. Small cut pieces of soft stems are placed in growth medium with following plant hormones. Whichcombination of plant hormones will show slowest growth?

(1) Auxin+Cytokinin (2) Gibberellins + Auxin

(3) Gibberellins + Cytokinin (4) Abscisic Acid + Auxin

Ans. (4)

Abscisic Acid along with auxin.

2. Which one of the following demonstrates the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

(1) Involuntary and multinucleated (2) Unbranched and uninucleated

(3) Cylindrical and uninucleated (4) Unbranched and involuntary

Ans. (3)

Cardiac muscle cell are short cylinderical cells joined end to end to form rows & mostly uninucleate.

3. From the given figure identify the part of human brain controlling most of the involuntary actions :

(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) C & D (4) D & A

Ans. (2)

B-Medulla

C-Cerebellum

4. An animal kept in a jar has the following features.

(I) It is bilaterally symmetrical

(II) It has coelomic cavity.

(III) The body is segmented.

(IV) It has jointed appendages.

(1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida

(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Mollusca

Ans. (1)

All features are concerned with “Arthropoda”.

[ 27 ]




5. Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I : Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes.

Statement II : Penicillium and Spirogyra are fungi.

(1) Only Statement I is true. (2) Only Statement II is true.

(3) Both Statements I and II are true. (4) Both Statements I and II are false.

Ans. (1)

Spirogyra is an example of green algae.

6. You find a herbaceous flowering plant growing in your school garden having leaves with parallel venation.Choose the correct additional features the given plant would be possessing.

(I) It has no secondary vascular tissues.

(II) Its flower possesses three sepals.

(III) It possesses tap root.

(IV) Its embryo has 2 cotyledons.

(1) I and II (2) I and III (3) II and IV (4) III and IV

Ans. (1)

Given plants belongs to monocot.

7. Varieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower have been produced from a wildcabbage species. Such process of producing new varieties of living organisms is called.

(1) Natural selection (2) Artificial selection

(3) Speciation (4) Genetic drift

Ans. (2)

Artificial selection is the intentional reproduction of individual in a population on that have desirabletraits.

8. Which of the following are pairs of analogous organs?

I. Forelimbs of horse – Wings of bat

II. Wings of bat – Wings of butterfly

III. Forelimbs of horse – Wings of butterfly

IV. Wings of bird – Wings of bat

(1) I and II (2) II and IV (3) III and IV (4) II and III

Ans. (2)

Analogous organ are those organ, who show similar function but have different structure.

[ 28 ]




9. Which of the following organisms is used as a biopesticide ?

(1) Azolla (2) Anabaena (3) Rhizobium (4) Trichoderma

Ans. (4)Trichoderma considered as biopesticide.

10. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). All F1 plants showed tall phenotype.

Which of the following correctly defines a test cross?

(1) TT (F1) x Tt (P) (2) Tt (F1) x Tt (P)

(3) tt (F1) x Tt (P) (4) Tt (F1) x tt (P)

Ans. (4)The crossing between individual of F1 generation with recessive parents of P generation is called“Test cross”.

11. Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct?

I. Leishmania – Sleeping sickness

II. Nematode – Elephantiasis

III. Trypanosoma – Kala azar

IV. Staphylococcus – Acne

(1) I & II (2) II & III (3) II & IV (4) III & IV

Ans. (3)Leishmania causes kala azar.

12. Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme. Which among the following combination is correct?

(1) pepsin and lipase. (2) amylase and pepsin

(3) pepsin and trypsin. (4) trypsin and lipase.

Ans. (4)Enzyme pepsinogen secereted from gastric juice.

13. You discover a new species of a plant. You also discover that it produces motile sperms and dominantgeneration has diploid cells. It belongs to

(1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm (3) gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte

Ans. (4)Pteridophytes have diploid body as dominant phase of life & produce motile sperm.

14. At every 20 minutes, one bacterium divides into two. How many bacteria will be produced after twohours, if one starts with 10 bacteria?

(1) 25 x 10 (2) 25 x 105 (3) 26 x 10 (4) 26 x 106

Ans. (3)

Because after 120 minutes, 10 bacteria will become 640 in number.

[ 29 ]




15. The metal (M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be

(1) M2N3 (2) MN (3) M2N (4) M3N2

Ans. (2)Valency of Metal M is 3Nitride (N3–)

M N

3 3

MN

16. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a solution?

(1) Milk (2) Smoke (3) Brass (4) Face Cream

Ans. (3)Alloys are Homogenous mixture of two or more metals or non metals.Brass (cu + zn)

17. 1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in thesolution is

(1) 12.405 x 1023 (2) 12.405 x 1022

(3) 6.022 x 1023 (4) 6.022 x 1022

Ans. (1)For glucose

Given MassNo. of mole =gram molecular wt.

1.80= 0.01180

Total No. of molecules = 0.01 x NA

Total no. of ‘O’ atom = 0.01 x NA x 6 = 0.06 NA

For water

No. of mole = 3618

Total No. of molecules = 2 x NA

Total No. of ‘O’ atom = 2 x NA x 1.Total No. of oxygen atom in the soln = (0.06 + 2) NA

= 2. 06 x 6.022 x 1023

= 12.405 x 1023

[ 30 ]




18. 35Cl and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. If the isotope ratio isreversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine will be –

(1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u (3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u

Ans. (4)Ratio of 35Cl and 37Cl is 1 : 3

Average atomic mass = 35 1 37 3

4

= 36.5 u19. The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution of -

(1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate.

(3) sodium sulphate (4) ferric chloride

Ans. (1)Turmeric solution will turn Red by an aqueous soln. of potassium acetate (CH3COOK)

20. A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as its sulphide ‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts into itsoxide ‘Y’ and a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal ‘M’ is produced. ‘X’ and ‘Y’respectively are –

(1) ‘X’ = cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ = cuprous oxide

(2) ‘X’ = cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ = cupric oxide

(3) ‘X’ = sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ = sodium oxide

(4) ‘X’ = calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ = calcium oxide

Ans. (1)Self Reduction process -

2 2 2 22 30 2 2 Cu S Cu O SO

2 2 22 6 0 Cu O Cu S Cu S

‘X’ = Cuprous sulphide ‘y’ = cuprous oxide21. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about graphite and diamond?

(1) Graphite is smooth and slippery.

(2) Diamond is good conductor of heat.

(3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

(4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different.

Ans. (4)Incorrect statement is :Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different

[ 31 ]




22. The functional group present in the following compound are –

(1) alcohol ketone and ester (2) ester and carboxylic acid

(3) carboxylic acid and ketone (4) ester and alcohol

Ans. (2)Carboxylic group and Ester group

23. A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in which the alphabets represent the symbolsof elements.

Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent compound –

(1) RQ2 (2) AT (3) JQ (4) JX2

Ans. (1)R & Q Both are Non metalCovalent bond Formed between (Non metal + Non metal).

24. A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’, to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gasturns lime water milky. When ‘X’ reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated H2SO4, asweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’ is –

(1) C2H4O (2) C2H4O2 (3) C2H6O (4) C2H6O2

Ans. (2)

2 4

Conc3 3 3 3 2H SOCH COOH+CH OH CH COOCH +H O

X is CH3COOH or C2H4O2

[ 32 ]




25. The schematic diagram is given below.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) A and E are chemically same. (2) A and D are chemically same.

(3) D and E are chemically same. (4) C and E are chemically same.

Ans. (4)

NH Cl4 Heat NH3

CoolVapour(A)

(B)

+ HClVapour

Heat NaOH (aq)

NH3

Cconc.HCl

NH Cl4

(D)

H O2

Shakewell

HClE(aq)

(acidic solution)

26. Which of the following is a feasible reaction ?

(1) 2 4 4Ba s K SO aq BaSO aq 2K s

(2) 3 3 2Zn s 2AgNO aq Zn NO aq 2Ag s

(3) 2 4 4Mg s Na SO aq MgSO aq 2Na s

(4) 4 4Cu s MgSO aq CuSO aq Mg s

Ans. (2)

Zinc is more Reactive than silver

Displacement Reaction – More Reactive Element displace less Reactive Element from its compound.

[ 33 ]




27. Some ice pieces kept at a temperature -5°C are heated gradually to 100°C in a beaker. The temperaturesof the contents are plotted against time. The correct plot is -

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (3)

A

B C

D E

BC = Latent Heat of fusionDE = Latent Heat of Vaporisation

28. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below:

Which one of the following graphs represents the acceleration (a) – time (t) graph for the abovemotion?

[ 34 ]




(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (1)

For time 0-1s velocity is increasing with time hence the graph has a postive slope with constant andpositive acceleration.

For time 1s – 2s, velocity is constant, hence slope is zero, thus, acceleration is zero.

For time 2s – 3s, velocity decreases with time, slope is negative, hence acceleration is negative andconstant.

a

0 t12 3

Hence correct option is (1)

29. To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m fromthe poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one of thefollowing lens may be used to correct the defective vision?

(1) A concave lens of 0.5 D (2) A concave lens of 1.0 D

(3) A concave lens of 2.0 D (4) A convex lens of 2.0 D

Ans. (3)

Given, u = – 2 m

v = – 0.4 m

1 1 1v u f

[ 35 ]




1 1 10.4 2 f

5 1 12 2 f

1f m.2

P 2.0 D

A concave lens of 2.0 D is required.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

30. A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5 m s-1

and reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is the net displacement of the ball from its initial position after1.5 s ?

(g = 10 m s-2)

(1) 1.25 m (2) 3.75 m (3) 5.00 m (4) 6.25 m

Ans. (2)

Let the time taken by ball to reach ground from t = 0 be t1 s. Then time taken to reach from C to D be(1.5 – t1)s.

For upward motion :

vi = 5 m/s

vf = 0

a = – g = – 10 m/s2

t = 0 u = 0A

t1

B C

D

t = (1.5 – t1)s

vf = vi – gt

or 0 = 0 – 10 (1.5 – t1)

= 5 – 15 + 10 t1

[ 36 ]




t1 = 1 s.

Hence, time taken by ball to reach on top after rebounding from ground = 0.5 s

HCD = ut – 12

gt2 = 21 55 0.5 10 (0.5) m2 4

For down ward motion :

HAB = 12

gt2 21 10 (1) 5 m

2

Net displacement 55 m 3.75 m4


31. A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of waterfrom the jet is ‘ ’, the diameter of the jet is ‘d’ and the density of water is 'ρ' , then the force exerted onthe wall by the jet of water is

(1)π 24

d (2) 2π 24

d (3) 2π 2d πυ8

(4) 2π 2d υ2

Ans. (2)Force = time rate of change in momentum

v m/s

d2

f i

d0 v t v4P P 0 mv

t t t

2 2d vForce4


32. Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless surface asshown in the figure. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. The force exerted by B onA is

(1) 1.5 N (2) 3.0 N (3) 4.5 N (4) 6.0 N

Ans. (2)

[ 37 ]




Here,

2

1 2

F 15a 1.5 m / sm m 10

15 N

15 N

A

8 kg2 kg

B

R

1.5 m/s2

ANow,

15 – R = 8 × 1.5

15 – R = 12

R = 3 N

Hence option (2) is correct

33. A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g mass isimmersed partially in water using a spring balance as shown in the figure. If the spring balance reads300 g, what will be the reading on the platform balance?

(1) 200 g (2) 300 g (3) 500 g (4) 800 g

Ans. (3)

Fspring = kx = 300 g × 10 m/s2 = 3 N

mg = 800 g × 10 m/s2 = 8 N

FB kx

mgSince, block is inequilibrium, so,

FB + kx = mg

FB = 5 N

Now, the same buoyant force acts as reaction force on water hence the reading on the platform ofbalance is 500 g.


34. An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped on the surface of the earth. How long would it takefor the same object to fall through the same distance on the surface of a planet whose mass andradius are twice that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance.)

(1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s (3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s

Ans. (3)

[ 38 ]




ee 2

e

GMgR

2

p ep e2

p e

GM G.2M 1g g2R 4R

Now, time of fall, e

2Ht 50s.g

time of fall for planet, pp

2Ht 2 50s 70.7 sec.g

Hence, option (3) is correct.35. A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and then into air. Which of

the following statements about the frequency (f) and the wavelength is correct as sound passes

from water to air?

(1) f remains unchanged by decreases. (2) f remains unchanged but increases.

(3) remains unchanged but f decreases. (4) remains unchanged but f increases.

Ans. (1)Water being denser medium than air, hencevelocity of sound in water is greater than velocity of sound in air.

v f

hence, if increases, velocity of sound increases.

So, as waves travel from water to air, its velocity decreases and hence wavelength decreases.But frequency remains unchanged.So, option (1) is correct.

36. The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its original value by stretching it. If its intial resistanceis R, what would be its resistance after reduction of the diameter?

(1)625R

(2)25R

(3) 25R (4) 625R

Ans. (4)

2 41 2 2

2 1 1

R A rR A r

41

2

R r / 5R r

2R 625R


[ 39 ]


37. An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘u’ collides with a heavier mass ‘M’and gets embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (m + M) keeps moving in the samedirection then which of the given options is true?

(1) The kinetic energies before and after collision are same.

(2) The kinetic energy after collision is 212

M m u .

(3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy equal to 2 21

2 m u

M m

(4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy equal to 21

2 Mm u

M m

Ans. (4)

From principle of conservation of momentum

m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

mu + 0 = (M + m) v

muvM m

K.E. after collision 21 M m v2

2 2

21 m uM m2 (M m)

2 21 m u2 (M m)

Loss in K.E. 2 2

2 21 1 m u 1 mmu mu 12 2 M m 2 M m

221 M m m 1 Mmumu

2 M m 2 (M m)




[ 40 ]


38. A vessel is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessel isincident on the oil-air interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index of theoil is close to –

(1) 1.41 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.63 (4) 1.73Ans. (4)

2

1

sinisinr

1 sinisin90

2 2

1 12 12sini43312 17

1.73

Hence, option (4) is correct.39. A charged particle placed in an electric field falls from rest through a distance d in time t. If the charge

on the particle is doubled, the time of fall through the same distance will be

(1) 2t (2) t (3)t2 (4)

t2

Ans. (3)F = ma = qE

qEam

Now, 21 qEd t

2 m

2dmtqE

Again, if charge is doubled then2dm tt2qE 2




[ 41 ]


40. AB is a long wire carrying a curret I1, and PQRS is a rectangular loop carrying current I2 (as shown inthe figure).

A

B

P

Q R

S

I1

I2

Which among the following statements are correct?

(a) Arm PQ will get attracted to wire AB, and the arm RS will get repelled from wire AB.

(b) Arm PQ will get repelled from wire AB and arm RS attracted to wire AB.

(c) Forces on the arms PQ and RS will be unequal and opposite.

(d) Forces on the arms QR and SP will be zero.

1. Only (a) 2. (b) and (c) 3. (a) and (c) 4. (b) and (d)

Ans. (3)

Current in arm PQ is along the same direction as in wire AB so arm PQ will be attracted.

Where as current in arm RS is in opposite direction to that in wire AB hence arm RS will be repelled.

Also, the distance of wire AB from arm PQ are RS is different, hence forces on arm PQ and RS willbe unequal but opposite.


41. The sum of all the possible remainders, which can be obtained when the cube of a natural number isdivided by 9, is

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9

Ans. (4)Natural numbers are in the form

a = 3n, 3n + 1, 3n + 2

Case (1) a3 = 27 n3

Case (2) a3 = (3n + 1)3 = 27 n3 + 27n2 + 9n + 1

Case (2) a3 = (3n + 2)3 = 27 n3 + 54n2 + 36n + 8

When divided by 9 always leave remainder 0, 1, & 8 respectively

sum of all possible remainders = 0+ 1 +8 =9



[ 42 ]


42. When a polynomial p(x) is divided by x –1, the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by x – 3, theremainder is 5. If r(x) is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (x–1) (x –3), then the value of r (–2) is

(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 4

Ans. (3)

p(1) = 3, p(3) = 5, p(x) = (x–1)(x – 3)×Q(x) + ax +b

p(1) = a + b

a + b = 3 (I)

p(3) = 3a + b

5 = 3a + b (II)

a b 33a b 5

2a 2

a = 1, b = 2

remainder = x + 2

R(x)= x + 2

R(–2) = 0

43. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely manysolutions?

px + 3y – (p – 3) = 0

12x + py – p = 0

(1) 6 (2) –6 (3) 0 (4) 2

Ans. (1)

p 3p 312 p p

1 1 1

2 2 2

a b ca b c

2p 36

p 6

p 6

For p= –6

condition will not satisfy



[ 43 ]


44. Two quadratic equations x2 – bx + 6 = 0 and x2 – 6x + c = 0 have a common root. If the remaining rootsof the first and second equations are positive integers and are in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively, then thecommon root is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. (2)

x2 – bx + 6 = 0 roots , 3

x2 – 6x + c = 0 roots , 4

3 =6

2 (I)

4 c c 8

Second equation x2 – 6x + 8 = 0

(x – 2)(x – 4) = 0

x = 2,4

Common root is 2

45. First term of an arithmetic progression is 2. If the sum of its first five terms is equal to one-fourth of thesum of the next five terms, then the sum of its first 30 terms is

(1) 2670 (2) 2610 (3) –2520 (4) –2550

Ans. (4)

a 2

5 54 a a 4d a 5d a 9d2 2

40 + 40d = 10 + 35d

5d = –30 d 6

3030s 4 29 6 25502

46. A circle C is drawn inside a square S so that the four sides of S are tangents to C. An equilateraltriangle T is drawn inside C with its vertices on C. If the area of S is k times the area of T, then the valueof k is

(1)16

3 3 (2)16

3 (3)32

3 3 (4)32

3



[ 44 ]


Ans. (1)

S

Trc

S = 4r2

2c r

21 3T 3. . r2 2

23 3 r4

S kT

2

2

4r 163 3 3 3r

4

47. Let AP be a diameter of a circle of radius r and PT be the tangent to the circle at the point P such thatthe line AT intersects the circle at B. If PT = 8 units and BT = 4 units, then r is equal to

(1) 4 3 units (2) 4 units (3)43

units (4) 2 3 units

Ans. (1)x

4

8

rA

P

T

B

82 = TA × TB

64 = 4(x + 4)

x = 12

Now, 2r = 2 216 8 8 3 2r

48. If the quadratic equation x2 + bx + 72 = 0 has two distinct integer roots, then the number of all possiblevalues for b is

(1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 18

Ans. (1)

x2 + bx + 72 = 0

1 × 72 = 72



[ 45 ]


72361893

3222

72 = 23 × 32

The number of ways in which 72 can be split into two factors

1 3 1 2 1 62

Total number of all possible value of b = 12 , because , can be both negative integer

49. If the area of a square inscribed in a semicircle is 2cm2, then the area of the square inscribed in a fullcircle of the same radius is

(1) 5 cm2 (2) 10 cm2 (3) 25 2 cm (4) 25 cm2

Ans. (1)

x2= 2 cm2

x 2 cm

p

x

x/2 O

2

22 1op 22

1 522 2

5op2

(radius of circle)

diameter of full circle 10

side of the square inscribed in full circle 5

Area of the square 2 25 5 cm

50. If the discriminants of two quadratic equations are equal and the equations have a common root 1,then the other roots

(1) are either equal or their sum is 2. (2) have to be always equal.

(3) are either equal or their sum is 1. (4) have their sum equal to 1.

Ans. (1)



[ 46 ]


Let the two equations are (x – 1)(x + p) = 0, (x – 1) (x + q) = 0

Now, According to question

D1 = D2

(p – 1)2 + 4p = (q – 1)2 + 4q

(p + q – 2) (p – q) + 4(p – q) = 0

(p – q) (p + q + 2) = 0

p = q, p + q = – 2

Sum of roots = (– p) + (– q) = 2

either equal or their sum is 2.

51. Three circular wires are attached in series such that, if one wire is rotated, other two also get rotated.

If the diameter of a wire is 45

times that of immediate left wire and the left most wire rotates at the

speed of 32 revolutions per minute, then the number of revolutions made by right most wire perminute will be

(1) 40 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 60

Ans. (3)

let the diameter of left most wire = d

The diameter of the wire 2 is 14dd5

12

3

and that of wire 3 is 16d5

Now the number of revolutions of wire 32 d2 40 per minute4d

5

The number of revolution of the wire 3 1

1

40 d 50 per minute4d5

52. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. If the co-ordinates of A are (1,2) and co-ordinates of B are (2,-1),then

(1) C cannot lie in the first quadrant. (2) C cannot lie in the second quadrant

(3) C is the origin (4) C cannot lie in the third quadrant.

Ans. (2)



[ 47 ]


Third co ordinate will be 3 3r 1 r,2 210 10

where 30r2

53. Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume each. Ifthe sides of the solid brick have the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum number of cubes, which can beused, will be

(1) 400 (2) 288 (3) 300 (4) 384

Ans. (4)Let the sides be a, 2a & 3awhere a is a natural number

a.2a.3a 400

3 400a6

maxm value of a = 4

maxm number of cubes = 4.8.12 = 384

54. Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3 groups of 7 integers each, in some particular order.Then the highest possible mean of the medians of these 3 groups is

(1) 16 (2) 12.5 (3) 11 (4) 14Ans. (4)

For highest possible mean of medians the three medians must be 10, 14, 18

10 14 18 42mean 143 3

55. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder in each case. Thesum of the digits of N is

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

Ans. (1)Let the number N2272 = N × K1 + R (I)875 = N × K2 + R (II)eq(I) – eq(II)1397 = N (K1 – K2)factorization of 139711 × 127 = N (K1 – K2)

Three digit number = 127Sum of digits = 10



[ 48 ]


56. A line l passing through the origin makes an angle with positive direction of x-axis such that 3sin5

.

The co-ordinates of the point, which lies in the fourth quadrant at a unit distance from the origin and onperpendicular to l, are

(1)3 4,5 5

(2)4 3,5 5

(3) (3, – 4) (4) (4, – 3)

Ans. (1)

3sinθ5

3tanθ4

Eqn of line l is

3y x4

1

Yl

X

3x 4y 0 ......(i)

Any line parallel to .... (i)

3x – 4y + k = 0 ......(ii)

Now Distance b/w parallel lins

22

k 01 k 5

3 4

line is 3x – 4y – 5 = 0 (only)

and on the line point 3 4,5 5

satisfy

3 43 4 5 05 5

57. The value(s) of k for which x2 + 5kx + k2 + 5 is exactly divisible by x + 2 but not by x + 3 is (are)

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 1, 9 (4) 9

Ans. (4)

Let 2 2f x x 5kx k 5

Acording to question, f(x) is divisible by x+2



[ 49 ]


f(–2)= 0

2 22 5k 2 k 5 0

24 10k k 5 0

2k 10k 9 0 k 9 k 1 0

k 1,9

Also f 3 0

2 23 5k 3 k 5 0

29 15k k 5 0

2k 15k 14 0

k 1 k 14 0

k 1,14

only possible values of k is 9

58. If 4 2sin , cos m then

(1) 1 2 m (2)1 12 m (3)

3 14 m (4)

3 134 16 m

Ans. (3)4 2cos sin m

22 2m 1 sin sin

4 2 2sin 2sin 1 sin

4 2sin sin 1

22 1 1sin 1

2 4

22 1 3m sin

2 4

min max3m , m 14

3 m 14



[ 50 ]


59. Cost of 2 apples, 3 bananas and one coconut is j 26. Also the cost of 3 apples, 2 bananas and twococonuts is j 35. Then the cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconuts is

(1) j 172 (2) j 148 (3) j 143 (4) j 126

Ans. (2)

2x + 3y + z = 26 (I) × 3

3x + 2y + 2z = 35 (II) × 2

Add equation (I) & (II)

6x 9y 3z 786x 4y 4z 70

12x 13y 7z 148

Ans Rs. 148

60. ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral triangle. Two vertical poles of heights 45m and 20m areerected at A and B respectively. The angles of elevation of the tops of the two poles from C arecomplementary to each other. There is a point D on AB such that from it, the angles of elevation of thetops of the two poles are equal. Then AD is equal to

(1)517

12m (2)

102013

m (3)520

13m (4)

101712

m

Ans. (2)

20tan ...(i)x

A B

C

45 m

20 m

k D

x x

90 –

x – k

45tan(90 – ) ...(ii)x

(i) × (ii)

20 451 x 30x x

Now, 20 45 10tan k 20 m

x k k 13



[ 51 ]


61. Arrange the developments related to European history in a chronological sequence.

I. Napoleon invaded Italy.

II. Unification of Italy.

III. Unification of Germany.

IV. Vienna Settlement.

(1) I, III, II and IV (2) I, II, IV and III

(3) I, IV, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV

Ans. (3)

62. Which of the following statements about liberals in 19th century Europe are correct ?

I. They favoured the Catholic Church.

II. They opposed dynastic rule with unlimited power.

III. They were democrats.

IV. They did not want any voting rights for women.

(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) II and IV (4) III and IV

Ans. (3)

63. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. In the beginning Bombay was under the Portuguese control.

II. Control of Bombay passed onto the French in the 17th century.

III. The Marathas replaced the French in Bombay.

IV. Bombay became the capital of the Presidency in early 19th century.

(1) I, II and IV (2) I and IV (3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV

Ans. (2)

64. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. The Chinese introduced printing

II. The Buddhist missionaries introduced printing in Japan.

III. The Chinese developed printing to facilitate their expanding trade.

IV. Printing reached Europe through Italy.

(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV

Ans. (2)


SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (S.ST & HUMANITIES)

[ 52 ]


Direction (Questions 65-72)

Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.

2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.

4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

65. Statement I : During the years of the Great Depression the economic crisis was worse in Germany.

Statement II : The Present of the Weimar Republic had the power to impose emergency.

Ans. (1)

66. Statement I : The Forest Act of 1878 categorized some forests as ‘reserved forests’.

Statement II : They were considered the best forests for people’s use.

Ans. (1)

67. Statement I : Shifting cultivation was widely prevalent in different parts of India is the 19th century.

Statement II : More and more people took to shifting cultivation when forest laws were enacted.

Ans. (1)

68. Statement I : Cricket emerged as a colonial game.

Statement II : Cricket was started in England.

Ans. (3)

69. Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi wished everyone had clothes to wear.

Statement II : He wanted everyone to wear the single loin cloth as he did.

Ans. (1)

70. Statement I : The Spanish conquest of America was not a conventional military conquest.

Statement II : One of the most powerful weapon was the spread of smallpox.

Ans. (3)

71. Statement I : The silk routes led to trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.

Statement II : Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia through this route.

Ans. (3)

72. Statement I : The French used forced labour into Indo-China for building canals.

Statement II : Vietnam became a major exporter of rice in the world.

Ans. (4)



[ 53 ]


73. Match List I (Layers of Atmosphere) and List II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer usingthe code given below.

List I (Layers of Atmosphere)

List II (Characteristics)

A. Ionosphere I. Contains Ozone

B. Stratosphere II. Reflects radio Waves

C. Exosphere III. Fall in

D. Troposphere IV. Extremely low air

density

(1) A - II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Ans. (2)

74. Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Rann of Kachchh is formed by the recession of the sea

II. Kuchaman, Sambhar and Didwana are salt water lakes

III. The land to the east of Aravallis is known as Bagar

IV. The fertile flood plains formed by small streams in Rajasthan are known as Rohi

(1) I, II and IV (2) I, III and IV (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

Ans. (1)

75. Observe the graph given below:

Identify the state with population growth rate marked by ‘X’ in the given graph.

(1) Goa (2) Kerala (3) Sikkim (4) Nagaland

Ans. (2)



[ 54 ]


76. River Alaknanda forms confluences (Prayags) in Uttarakhand. Match the codes given in Figure withTable (Prayags) and select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Ans. (1)

77. Match List I (Original Rock) with List II (Metamorphic Rock) and select the correct answer using thecode given below :

List I (Original Rock)

List II (Metamorphic Rock)

A. Granite I. Diamond

B. Coal II. Marble

C. Limestone III. Slate

D. Shale IV. Gneiss

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Ans. (4)

78. Observe the given map.

Which one of the following statement is NOT ture about the shaded statement indicated on the map?



[ 55 ]


(1) Society predominantly follows right of female ultimogeniture

(2) The state is an example of areas with karst topography

(3) The state is a major producer of potatoes in India

(4) Some parts of the state receive extremely high rainfall.

Ans. (3)

79. Match List I (Mineral Oil Refineries) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codesgiven below.

List I (Mineral Oil Refineries

List II (States)

A. Numaligrah I. Punjab

B. Bathinda II. Andhra Pradesh

C. Tatipaka III. Madhya Pradesh

D. Bina IV. Assam

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Ans. (1)

80. ‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’is known by specific name in different states of India. Match the shadedstates marked in the given map with codes given in the Table (Different names of Slash and BurnAgriculture) and select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Ans. (4)



[ 56 ]


81. Match List I (Industries) with List II (Important Centers) and select the correct answer using the codesgiven below.

List I (Industries)

List II (Important Centers)

A. Cotton

Textile

I. Ludhiana

B. Hosiery II. Rishra

C. Jute III. Coimbatore

D. Silk textile IV. Mysuru

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Ans. (4)

82. Which one of the following island is closest to the equator?

(1) Minicoy (2) Car Nicobar (3) Little Nicobar (4) Great Nicobar

Ans. (4)

83. Which of the following characteristics are true about plantation agriculture?

I. Generally plantation agriculture is considered as an example of subsistence farming.

II. Generally single crop is grown on a large area in plantation agriculture.

III. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.

IV. It uses capital intensive inputs.

(1) I and IV (2) III and IV (3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV

Ans. (4)

84. Match List-I (Vegetation zones) with List-II (Mean Annual Temperature Range) and select the correctanswer using the code given below.

List I (Vegetation Zones)

List II (Mean Annual

Temperature Range) A. Alpine I. Above 24°C

B. Temperature II. 17°C to 24°C

C. Tropical III. Below 7°C

D. Sub_tropical IV. 7°C to 17°C

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Ans. (3)



[ 57 ]


85. ‘In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme,’ Which of the following statement concerningdemocracy in India best reflects this?

(1) The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the political party possessing amajority i the Lok Sabha.

(2) An assembly of elected representatives exercises political authority of behalf of the people.

(3) In case of a difference between the two Houses of Parliament, the final decision is taken in a jointsession of the two Houses.

(4) The permanent executive has more powers than the political executive.

Ans. (2)

86. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the ConstitutionalAmendment in 1992 are false?

I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Schediuled Tribes, and Other Backward Classesin the elected bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.

II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by the Election Commission of India.

III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held regularly after every five years.

IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved for women.

(1) I and III (2) I and II (3) III and IV (4) II and IV

Ans. (4)

87. Match List I (Political Systems) with List II (Nations) and select the answer using the codes givenbelow.

List I (Political Systems)

List II (Nations)

A. Federal,

Presidential,

Republic

I. India

B. Federal,

Parliamentary,

Republic

II. United

Kingdom

C. Unitary,

Parliamentary,

Monarchy

III. Germany

D. Presidential cum Parliamentary

Republic

IV. United States of Americal

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Ans. (1)



[ 58 ]


88. Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are true?

I. The Constitution of India provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between theUnion and the State Governments.

II. Both the Union and the State Governments can legislate on residuary subjects.

III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power-sharing arrangement between the Unionand the State Governments.

IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division of powers between theUnion and the State Governments.

(1) I and III (2) II, III and IV (3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and IV

Ans. (3)

89. Which of the following group of States/Union Territories have only one Lok Sabha constituency?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep

(2) Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(3) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram

(4) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry

Ans. (3)

90. Which of the following statements best reflects the ‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the Consitutionof India?

(1) There are no unreasonable restrictions on how the citizens express their thoughts.

(2) The traditional social inequalities have to be abolished.

(3) Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economicinequalities.

(4) No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

Ans. (3)

91. Which of the following statements about the Indian judiciary is true?

(1) India has an integrated judiciary

(2) The Judiciary in India is subordinate to the Executive.

(3) The Supreme Court is more powerful than Parliament.

(4) The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the Prime Minister.

Ans. (1)



[ 59 ]


92. Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the Right to Education?

(1) Right to Equality (2) Right to Freedom

(3) Cultural and Educational Rights (4) Rights to Constitutional Remedies

Ans. (2)

93. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of economic development?

(1) Increased per capita income

(2) Decreased infant mortality

(3) Increased life expectancy at birth

(4) Decreased women participation in job market.

Ans. (4)

94. The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at j 100 per capita per day. Five Hundred people live in Dinanagar

of whom 50 earn j 30 per capita per day and another 25 earn j 80 per capita per day each. Everybody

else earn more than j 100 per day per capita. What is the minimum amount that the government ofDinanagar will have to spend to completely eradicate poverty?

(1) j 3000 (2) j 3500 (3) j 4000 (4) j 4500

Ans. (3)

95. The local telephone company sells me a landline connection only if I purchase a handset from themas well. Which of the following rights does this practice violate under the Constumer Protection Act1986?

(1) Right to represent (2) Right to information

(3) Right to choose (4) Right to seek redressal

Ans. (3)



[ 60 ]


96. Match List-I (Type of Unemployment) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer usingthe codes given below

List –I (Type of

Unemployment)

List-II (Characteristics)

A. Seasonal I . Occurs during boom

Or recession in the

economy

B. Frictional I I. An absence of

demand for a certain

type of workers.

C. Disguised I II. Occurs when moving

from one job to

another

D. Structural IV. Actual contribution

by the additional

labour is nil

E. Cyclical V. Job opportunities

during certain

months in the year

(1) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-I (2) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-I, E-II

(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V (4) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I

Ans. (1)

97. Suppose Indian Farmers sell wheat at j 50 per kg and the international price of wheat is j 40 per kg.What is the minimum rate of import duty Government of India must impose on imported wheat so thatit does not adversely affect Indian farmers in the domestic market?

(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%

Ans. (3)

98. The wage rate of a worker in a country is j 300 per day. Which of these person(s) would you considerunemployed?

A. Ramu is willing to work at j 300 a day, but cannot find work.

B. Suresh is willing to work only at j 400 a day or more, and cannot find work.

C. Shanti stays at home because she has young children to look after.

(1) Ramu (2) Suresh (3) Ramu and Suresh (4) Ramu and Shanti

Ans. (1)

99. Which of the following can be used as collateral in Indian banks to borrow money?

(1) Bank Passbook (2) Credit Card

(3) Own House (4) Passport

Ans. (3)



[ 61 ]


100. The total agricultural land in a village is 1200 hectares. This is distributed among 320 families whoform four groups in the following pattern. It is assumed that the land is distributed equally within eachgroup. Identify the group of small farmers.

Group Number of

Families

Total amount of land

Owned and operated

By each group (in hectares)

A 100 300

B 180 300

C 30 300

D 10 300

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Ans. (2)



[ 62 ]


MENTAL ABILITY TEST

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (1)8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (3)15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (4)22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (3)29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (3)36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (1)43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4)50. (1)

LANGUAGE TEST (ENGLISH)1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4)15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (2)22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (3)36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4)50. (4)

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TESTSCIENCE DISCIPLINE (BIOLOGY)

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3)

SCIENCE DISCIPLINE (CHEMISTRY)15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (4)22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3)

SCIENCE DISCIPLINE (PHYSICS)28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (3)35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (3)

SCIENCE DISCIPLINE (MATHEMATICS)41. (4) 42. (3) 43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (1)48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (4)55. (1) 56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (2)

SOCIAL STUDIES & HUMANITIES61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (1)68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (1)75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (4) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (4) 81. (4)82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (1) 88. (3)89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (3)96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (2)


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national talent search examination (ntse) … · a cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. ......

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