NONRESIDENT TRAINING COURSE

August 2009

Master-at-Arms NAVEDTRA 14137A

S/N 0504LP1089250

Notice: NETPDTC is no longer responsible for the content accuracy of the NRTCs. For content issues, contact the servicing Center of Excellence: Center for Security Forces (CENSECFOR); (757) 462-2189 or DSN: 253-2189. DISTRIBUTION STATEMENT A: Approved for public release; distribution is unlimited.

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Although the words “he,” “him,” and “his” are used sparingly in this course to enhance communication, they are not intended to be gender driven or to affront or discriminate against anyone.

THE LINKS: Links contained through out this manual are made to assist you in finding the specific material quicker. Due to network speeds, connectivity, file sizes and server settings, the embedded links may not always open on your computer. Chapter 10 contains the DoD and Service web sites where the detailed references are maintained. Some links direct you to Navy Knowledge Online (NKO). Hovering your mouse over the link will tell you if the file is located on NKO or not. It is strongly recommended that you log into NKO prior to clicking on any links to facilitate in file downloads.

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PREFACE

By enrolling in this self-study course, you have demonstrated a desire to improve yourself and the Navy. Remember, however, this self-study course is only one part of the total Navy training program. Practical experience, schools, selected reading, and your desire to succeed are also necessary to successfully round out a fully meaningful training program.

THE COURSE: This self-study course is organized into subject matter areas, each containing learning objectives to help you determine what you should learn along with text and illustrations to help you understand the information. The subject matter reflects day-to-day requirements and experiences of personnel in the rating or skill area. It also reflects guidance provided by Center for Security Forces Learning Center and other senior personnel, technical references, instructions, etc., and either the occupational or naval standards, which are listed in the Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068.

THE QUESTIONS: The questions that appear in this course are designed to help you understand the material in the text.

VALUE: In completing this course, you will improve your military and professional knowledge. More importantly, it can also help you study for the Navy-wide advancement in rate examination. If you are studying and discover a reference in the text to another publication for further information, look it up. ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS: This course was prepared by the Center for Security Forces (CSF) with the input and assistance of numerous Master-at-Arms, Security Officers (6490/7490), and retired MA/SECO Subject Matter Experts. Input, review, and endorsement was also provided by TYCOM Security Representatives. Without their help, the production of this manual would have not been possible.

Sailor’s Creed

“I am a United States Sailor.

I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States ofAmerica and I will obey the orders of

those appointed over me.

I represent the fighting spirit of the Navy and those who have gone before me to defend freedom and

democracy around the world.

I proudly serve my country’s Navy combat team with honor, courage and

commitment.

I am committed to excellence and the fair treatment of all.”

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CONTENTS

CHAPTER Page

i. Introduction xi-xii 1. Installation Security 1-1 2. Expeditionary Security 2-1 3. Shipboard Security 3-1 4. Corrections 4-1 5. Strategic Weapons Facility 5-1 6. Strategic Aircraft 6-1 7. Protective Service Detail 7-1 8. Staff Duty 8-1 9. Weapons and Use of Force 9-1 10. Organization, Legal Issues, and Professional Training 10-1

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SCOPE OF RATING: Master-at-Arms (MA) provide waterborne and land security, aircraft and flight line security, strategic weapons and cargo security, maritime security and platform protection; conduct customs operations, corrections operations, detainee operations, and protective service operations; perform antiterrorism, force protection, physical security and law enforcement; organize and train personnel in antiterrorism, force protection, physical security, law enforcement, and weapons proficiency; develop plans for physical security and force protection enhancement of Navy bases, installations, property, and personnel; and assist commands in conducting terrorist threat analysis and implementing defensive measures.

The Master-at-Arms rating was established in 1973 for duties which were primarily related to good order, discipline and safety. The MA rate saw its largest growth as a result of the attacks against the USS COLE and the September 11th terrorist attacks, going from approximately 1,800 billets to over 10,000 billets. Today, the MA rate provides the Navy with trained, professional security forces in a variety of mission areas.

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Chapter 1: Installation Security 1. Installation Security a. Administration: Administration represents the machinery by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities. In practice, administration is comprised of certain fundamental elements including planning, organization, command and control, and communications. OPNAVINST 3120.32C Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy Chapter 1, Paragraph 110-160 (1) Organization Chart NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

b. Positions and Responsibilities (1) Security Officer (SECO). Responsible for the overall management of a Security Detachment or Department. Supervises the patrol and security function of an installation

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AT/FP program including law enforcement, physical security, antiterrorism, and force protection.

• Manages Navy Security Force (NSF) • Directs command’s security forces • Assists Antiterrorism Officer in developing AT plans, SOP’s,

instructions and training plans • Assists commanding officer in maintaining good order and

discipline • Coordinates security requirements • Plans for changes to threat or FPCON • Develops Physical Security and Law Enforcement Plans

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force Employment and Operations NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (2) Assistant Security Officer (ASECO)/Precinct Commander: For security departments having a total combined strength (military and civilian including contract security personnel) of 100 or more personnel, an assistant security officer/operations officer should be considered for assignment to run the department’s day to day operation. This allows the security officer to be available for command duties, program review, and coordination with other base elements; same duties and responsibilities, tasks and functional areas as the Security Officer apply. (3) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). The ATO develops and manages the AT program, is the lead member on the Antiterrorism Training Team, and manages AT/FP resources.

• Develops and manages the AT Plan • Prepares, updates and implements AT/FP plans • Manages resources that may include watchstander gear,

security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment • Oversees/manages AT/FP training as the head of the

command’s Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) /Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)

• Review, plan, and analyze security and crises management capabilities

OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program

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SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism (AT) Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 6, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection (4) Investigations/Protective Service. Investigators conduct interviews/interrogations; conduct crime scene management; collect, seize, preserve, document and store evidence; conduct surveillance and counter-surveillance operations, and conduct investigations on criminal matters. Protective Service Personnel protect assigned personnel, inspect buildings and travel routes, and plan protective service missions.

• Complete investigative reports • Conduct command authorized searches • Conduct crimes against persons/property investigations • Conduct suspect interviews and interrogations • Conduct victim and witness interviews • Respond to serious incidents • Conduct protective services for Very Important Personnel

(VIP) and High Risk Personnel (HRP) • Conduct protective service mission exercises, analysis and

planning • Identify and establish security measures along primary and

secondary travel routes OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 3 & 7, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program Manual for Courts-Martial United States NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix J, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (5) Operations. The jobs below will normally be found within a shore Security Department. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (a) Security Operations Officer. Responsible to the Security Officer for the day to day operations and job execution of unit’s Security Forces providing law enforcement, physical security, and force protection services. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (b) Watch Commander. Responsible for supervising all watch section responsibilities to include: Patrol, sentries,

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emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor, harbor security, and the armory. This position is usually assigned to senior member of watch team.

• Conducts incident management • Coordinates assigned units in threat response • Manages and trains assigned security forces • Inspects posts to ensure proper security operations and

standards are maintained OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.4, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (c) Patrol Supervisor. Responsible for mobile supervision of patrols and sentries, and acts as back up relief for the watch commander. Duties include:

• Assisting Watch Commander in assigned duties • Conducts Post Inspections • Supervises mobile and fixed posts

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.6, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (d) Patrol Officer. Patrol Officers are assigned to positions with primary duties involving law enforcement. Law enforcement operations can include detention, apprehension, rights advisement, interview and interrogations, and preliminary investigations. These duties may be in addition to Sentry duties.

• Administer breathalyzer and field sobriety tests • Advise military and civilian suspects of their rights • Apprehend military suspects • Conduct suspect interviews • Conduct suspect vehicle pursuits • Conduct victim and witness interviews and obtain written

statements • Establish crime scene • Obtain permissive search authorization

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program

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NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.9, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8 & Appendix B, C, E, K, L, M, N, R, S, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (e) Sentry. A sentry is a person whose duties include the requirement to maintain constant alertness, be vigilant, and remain awake in order to observe for the possible approach of the enemy, or to guard persons, property, or a place, and to sound the alert, if necessary.

• Control Access • Detect Surveillance • Detect, Track, and Assess Potential Threats • Report to the Chain of Command • s Take Immediate Action to protect personnel/asset

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 thru 5.3.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Antiterrorism OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (f) Vehicle/Boat Inspector. Assigned to inspect different types of vehicles including passenger vehicles, commercial vehicles, and vessels. These duties may be performed at a fixed location (i.e. inspection station) or as a mobile team.

• Verify credentials for access • Verify vehicle/vessel documents for authenticity • Operate screening and detection equipment • Operate Commercial Vehicle Inspection Station

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 and 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 6, Tactical Boat Operations OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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(g) Harbor Security Boat Coxswain. Normally in charge of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for the overall operation of security boat in situations where a boat officer is not assigned.

• Operate harbor security boat • Conduct suspect vessel pursuits • Maintain threat, warning and assessment security zones

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (h) Harbor Security Boat Crew Member/Gunner. A harbor security boat crewmember/gunner may be assigned to positions whose duties include working as a member of a security boat team, or manning a crew-served weapon to provide protective fire during security boat operations.

• Operate small arms and crew-served weapons • Use authorized warning shot tactics • Verify vessel credentials • Identify and track potential waterborne and subsurface

threats • Maintain threat, warning and assessment security zones

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.7.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 3-10, Tactical Boat Operations NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (i) Emergency Dispatcher and Electronic Security Systems Monitor. Provide link between the community and emergency services, provide information to and dispatch responding services, and monitor electronic security systems used.

• Monitor communication systems • Monitor electronic security systems

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• Analyze available information, prioritize available resources and dispatch appropriate response forces

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.5, 5, Appendix C.4, M, N, Q, R, S, & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (j) Armory/AA&E Supervisor. Responsible for security, safety, accountability, classification, maintenance, requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper disposal of arms and ammunition.

• Conducts inventory of assigned weapons • Manages maintenance on assigned weapons • Tracks ammunition expenditure and initiates ammunition

requests when required OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (k) AA&E Custodian/Armorer. Maintains the security unit armory or ready for issue room; conducts inspection of unit assigned weapons, ammunition and storage spaces; performs maintenance on unit issued and authorized weapons, armory and range equipment; maintains records for arms and ammunition accountability, requests necessary forms/logs pertaining to mechanical functioning, maintenance, trouble shooting and field repair; and maintains a master listing of all security unit weapons and the assignment of those weapons. OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (l) Military Working Dog (MWD) Handler (NEC: 2005). The MWD Handler is trained to utilize an MWD for patrol, explosive or drug detection in numerous types of security operations and operations in support of real world events. Maintains and documents all training proficiency for assigned

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MWD assets. The MWD handler is responsible for the daily care and grooming of his MWD and Kennel Facilities. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 5585.2B Military Working Dog Manual OPNAVINST 5585.1 Single Manager for DoD Military Working Dog Program DoD Directive 5200.31E DoD Military Working Dog Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

(m) Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master (NEC: 2005 or 2006). The Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master exercises direct leadership over the MWD units at their command and is responsible to the security officer for managing and operating the MWD kennels. The Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master must know the threats and vulnerabilities of resources being protected by MWD teams and prepare local operating procedures and instructions for team assignments. They must ensure assigned MWD teams are skilled in their duties by implementing realistic training and frequent proficiency trials. They must ensure adequate provisions are made for the health, safety and well-being of assigned MWDs. Regional Kennel Master NEC: 2006. The regional kennel master exercises managerial supervision over the MWD units in their respective region and is responsible to the regional security officer and fleet kennel master for managing the MWD units. They must know the mission and develop short/long range mission readiness requirements for each of the commands and advise the regional commanders of the best use of MWD teams.

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 5585.2B Military Working Dog Manual OPNAVINST 5585.1 Single Manager for DoD Military Working Dog Program DoD Directive 5200.31E DoD Military Working Dog Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (n) Reaction Force Leader. Leads reaction forces. May be a primary duty or a collateral duty while on patrol/sentry posts. Tactically leads Reaction Force to objectives.

• Execute small unit tactics

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• Operate and manage multiple response teams • Plan and execute reaction force training

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (o) Reaction Force Member. May be primary or collateral duty. Primarily responds to heightened security states including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.

• Respond appropriately to a security alert/incident • Augment fixed posts • Cover Entry Control Point withdrawal • Conduct tactical movement to critical spaces/areas under No

Light, Low Light, and Bright Light conditions • Take immediate action while en route to an incident • Shoot while moving • Assess the tactical situation and make reports • Control entry and enforce perimeters

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8, 5, Appendix B, K, L, Q, R, & T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (p) Chief of the Guard/Waterfront Security Supervisor. Responsible to the Watch Commander/Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer for the proper operation of assigned posts. Serves in supervisory/management position over assigned posts.

• Supervise Pier access and control • Operation of vehicle check points • Clearing barrel supervisor • Verify watch stander qualifications • Conducts security briefs

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• Inspects assigned posts and equipment NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2.4 and 5.3.4, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.7, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S, T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (q) On-Scene Commander. Senior security operations member at the scene of an incident, unless otherwise designated by the Security Officer, who possesses the required tactical skills. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.10, Appendix B, F, G, K, L, N, Q, R, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (r) Field Training Officer. The watch section field training officer (FTO) is directly responsible to the patrol watch commander for training purposes. Unless a patrol unit is adequately manned to provide a person to act solely as the FTO, the most qualified patrolman in the section will act in that capacity. Training focuses on patrol/law enforcement duties, unless member is also qualified as an Antiterrorism Training Supervisor or Non-Lethal Weapon Instructor. (Although not required, it is recommended that FTO attends Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026)).

• Train newly arriving personnel for patrol duties • Conduct required training for Patrol Section personnel • Manage and track Patrol Section PQS qualifications

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program Manual for Courts-Martial, United States NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.5, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S, T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (6) Training. Manage the commands’ security and AT training, the Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel Qualification System (PQS) programs. Typically a graduate of Antiterrorism Training Supervisor Course.

• Plan, conduct, and assess security force drills • Coordinate training and security planning • Train security forces

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 3500.34F Personnel Qualification Standards Program NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism

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NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.5, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S, T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection (7) Planner. Manages the command’s Antiterrorism/Force Protection program along with (or as) the Antiterrorism Officer. Additionally, responsible for the day to day AT plan, and vulnerability assessments for command.

• Reviews, plans and analyzes command security and crises management capabilities

• Conducts vulnerability assessments • Helps determine operating budgets • Develops security requirements for new construction • Develops standard operating procedures, post orders and

memorandums of agreement OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 2, 4, 6, Appendix A, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism (AT) program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix N, O, P, R, U & W, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (8) Evidence Custodian. Maintains, stores, processes, inventories and transfers custody of evidence.

• Maintains custody of evidence in secure environment • Reviews Chain of Custody document to ensure legal

admissibility of evidence is maintained OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 3, Paragraph 0308, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix G, H, I, J & V, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (9) Special Events: Provide Security for Concerts, Air shows and Military functions (10) Train Shore Patrol parties. c. Orders / Procedures (1) Status of Force Agreements (SOFAs):

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Establish the rights and obligations of the U.S. and Host Nations where our forces are stationed: Applicability of Foreign Law to U.S. Ops, Authority for Forces to Enter/Depart Host Nation (HN), Jurisdiction over offenses by U.S. Forces (including civilians), Claims and taxation of U.S. Goods and Materials. U.S. is Party to almost 100 bi- and multilateral SOFAs. DoD Directive 5525.1 Paragraph 1, Status of Forces Policies and Information DoD Instruction 5525.03 Criminal Jurisdiction of Service Courts of Friendly Foreign Forces and Sending States in the United States SECNAVINST 5820.4G Status of Forces Policies, Procedures, and Information (2) Post Orders. Post orders will specify the limits of the post, the hours the post is manned, and the special orders, duties, uniform, arms and equipment prescribed for members of the security force and detail information for changes of all FPCONs. NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix C, D, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations d. Forms and Reports. Forms for use can be found at http://navalforms.daps.dla.mil/web/public/home, http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/formsprogram.htm, and in the FORMS section. 2. Ashore Installation/AT/FP Overview: Antiterrorism is the defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorists acts to include limited response and containment by local military forces. The antiterrorism program is one of several security-related programs that fall under the overreaching Force Protection and Combating Terrorism programs. An antiterrorism program is a collective effort that seeks to reduce the likelihood that Department of Defense personnel, their families, facilities and material will be subject to a terrorist attack, and to prepare a response to the consequences of such attacks if they occur.

• Deter – Visible security measures to create a “hard target” to disrupt terrorist cycle of operations through the use of Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAM)

• Detect – Alert, well-trained, and well-equipped watchstanders armed with current intelligence to recognize and report incidents of preoperational surveillance and track potential threats.

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• Defend – Measure and procedures commensurate with the threat level; and based on a recent vulnerability assessment; protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure and personnel; and identify, classify, and neutralize threats through well-rehearsed preplanned responses.

• Mitigate – Measures and procedures that minimize consequences of a terrorist attack.

• Recover – Measures that restore mission effectiveness.NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism Force Protection NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 2.1, Antiterrorism CNIINST 3440.17 NAVY INSTALLATION EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT (EM) PROGRAM MANUAL DoD Directive 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program DoD Instruction 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards DoD Instruction 5200.08 Security of DoD Installations and Resources DoD O-2000.12-H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program OPNAVINST 3300.56 Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Strategic Plan (SIPRNET ONLY) SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism (AT) Program a. Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) and Measures: (1) FPCONs (a) FPCON Normal – Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture. (b) FPCON Alpha – Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. FPCON Alpha must be capable of being maintained indefinitely. (c) FPCON Bravo – Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining FPCON Bravo measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capabilities and relations with local authorities. (d) FPCON Charlie – Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of FPCON Charlie measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel. (e) FPCON Delta – Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. This FPCON is normally declared as a

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localized condition. FPCON Delta measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods. (2) FPCON Measures. Specific measures shall be developed by Commanders as part of their AT/FP plan which details the required actions at each FPCON. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.4, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 2.7, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection DoD O-2000.12-H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook Antiterrorism Force Protection for Naval Operations Commander’s Guide Rev A DoDI 2000.16, Enclosure 4, DoD Antiterrorism Standards b. Duties and Responsibilities of Auxiliary Security Force (ASF). The ASF augments the installation’s permanent security force during increased FPCONs or when directed by the host installation commander. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5.2, Antiterrorism OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program CNICINST 5530.4, Auxiliary Security Force Instruction c. Antiterrorism Protection Plan. Specific measures and procedures to deter, detect, mitigate, and recover from terrorist attacks will be developed based on careful analysis of threat courses of action (see Figure 1-1 for a historical summary of terrorist attack methods and events.) AT/FP should be considered a Navy core competency and therefore a critical part of every mission area. Planning for all operations should include considerations for AT/FP in order to maintain the readiness and effectiveness of Naval Forces. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 1, Paragraph 1.5, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5 & 6, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection

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d. Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection Training Team (FPTT). (1) ATTT/FPTT, headed by the ATO, has three functions: (a) Conducts individual and team training for the command’s security forces and unit personnel (b) Plans and conducts command antiterrorism exercises to include the following functions:

• Initiate scenarios and respond to watchstander actions

• Role play commands such as higher authorities or adjacent units

• Record and critique watchstander and team performances

• Ensure exercises are conducted safely (c) Continuously assesses the command’s AT program, plans, and exercises. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 & 3.4.2, Antiterrorism NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, 306 Antiterrorism Training Team Member, AT Common Core e. Inspections. Chief of Naval Operations Integrated Vulnerability Assessment (CNOIVA), Joint Staff Integrated Vulnerability Assessment (JSIVA). Discrepancies and corrections logged into Core Vulnerabilities Assessment and Management Program (CVAMP). Accessed through Antiterrorism Enterprise Portal on SIPRNET.

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NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix C, Antiterrorism 3. Ashore Installation/Physical Security. Navy wide Physical Security programs address the protection of personnel and property (as such it is inseparably intertwined, but not exclusively limited to, AT/FP). Such protection is accomplished by identifying the property requiring protection, determining jurisdiction and boundaries, assessing the threat, and committing resources. The physical security program is defined as the part of security concerned with active and passive security measures designed to prevent unauthorized access to personnel, equipment, installations, material and documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage, and theft. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix C, D, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations a. Installation/Asset Critical Infrastructure Responsibilities: (1) Physical Security Division personnel are the primary installation asset who identify any and all possible discrepancies and maintain all outer and interior perimeters, fencing, water security barriers, traffic control portable barriers, fixed barriers, hydraulic barriers, lighting systems, Security vehicles, Harbor Patrol Vessels, Entry Control Points, surveillance equipment, Security weapons storage alarm systems, duress alarms, and all Sentry structures. (2) The Physical Security Department may be tasked with the repair and or the funding of all vital installation security infrastructure assets and equipment. b. Physical Security Surveys. Local survey conducted annually which updates the command on what needs protecting, what security measures are in effect, what needs improvement, and provides a basis for determining security priorities. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 2, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix C, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix O & U, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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c. Additional Surveys (1) AA&E Survey (2) Residential Survey (3) Barracks Survey (4) MWR Facilities upon request (5) Flight line (6) Harbor (7) Crime Prevention Survey (8) Lighting Survey OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix C, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations d. Access Control/Pass and ID. Regional and Installation commanders shall develop a system of personnel and vehicle movement control in accordance with the sensitivity, classification, value and operational importance of the area and the requirements of OPNAVINST 5530.14 (series). These regulations include a process for removal of, or denying access to, persons who are not authorized or represent a criminal threat. Clearly define the access control measures required to safeguard facilities and ensure accomplishment of the mission. These measures will be identified in installation AT plans, and will be included in applicable departmental Rules, Regulations and Procedures (RRP). OPNAVINST 5530.14E Appendix A, Paragraph 7, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 5560.10B, Standard Procedures For Registration And Marking Of Non-Government Owned Motor Vehicles NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations The following are some of the access control procedures which may be used. NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (1) During Heightened Force Protection Conditions, access control is tightened and limited access measures are in place. Installation-specific guidance will be contained in the Anti-Terrorism Plan.

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(2) Automated Entry Control Systems (AECS) operated gates to be activated by security personnel at the ECP, or from an emergency dispatch center, or by a card/badge reader using either contact or preferably contactless technology. (3) Closed Circuit Television (CCTV) with the capability to display full-facial features of a driver (pedestrian) and vehicle characteristics on the monitor at the security emergency dispatch center. (4) An intercom system located in a convenient location for a driver/pedestrian to communicate with the ECP sentry or security emergency dispatch center. (5) Bollards or other elements to protect the security booth and gates against car crash. (6) Sensors to activate the gate, detect vehicles approaching and departing the gate, activate a CCTV monitor displaying the gate, and sound an audio alert in the emergency dispatch center. (7) Signs to instruct visitors and employees. (8) Water Boundaries: Water boundaries present special security problems. Such areas should be protected by barriers and marked with appropriate signage. In addition to barriers, patrol craft shall be used at activities whose waterfronts contain critical assets. In inclement weather, such patrols cannot provide an adequate degree of protection, which may be supplemented by increased waterfront patrols, watchtowers, MWD teams, and other appropriate waterside security systems. e. Key and Lock Control Program. Navy activities have established key and lock control program for all keys, locks, padlocks and locking devices used to meet security and loss prevention objectives. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 2, Paragraph 0209, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix P.7, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations 4. Ashore Installation Training: Training consists of various personnel who have obtained the Navy Enlisted Classification Codes (NECs) of 9501 (Training Supervisor), 9502 (Journeyman Instructor), 0812 (Small Arms Instructor), and 0814 (Crew Served Weapons Instructor). This

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division is responsible for the overall training and qualification system at each location. They manage various programs throughout the command and ensure update guidance and orders are available for those performing in the field. The following lists the duties and responsibilities of the training division. OPNAVINST 1500.75A Safety Policy And Procedures for Conducting High-Risk Training OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, Antiterrorism Common Core PQS a. Training/Planner Supervisor: (1) Long Range Training Plan Coordinate and implement Long Range Training Plan. This is designed to document the quarterly and annual training to be conducted. (2) Recording Security and Law Enforcement Training OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (3) Annual Training Required to conduct annual training and refresher training to individuals in various areas to meet the commands mission. Examples of: CPR, BLS, breathalyzer usage, AT Level I, Annual sustainment training, etc. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement 5. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your command mission. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course

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and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW OPNAV 1500.75 Series. b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses, reporting, special operations and supplementary examinations. c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-830-0019). Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the knowledge and skills needed for patrol and detector dogs. Training includes search techniques in buildings, aircraft, vehicles, warehouses, and open areas. Also includes maintenance of dogs' proficiency, legal aspects of searches, security and procurement of drug training aids, maintenance of kennels and equipment, explosives safety, and procurement and security of explosive training aids. d. Military Working Dog Kennel Master (NEC 2006) (CIN A-830-0009). Provides training in manpower, disease prevention, first aid, care of dog kennel and equipment, training and utilization, procurement, reports, forms and records, principals of conditioning, veterinarian support services, and inspection procedures. e. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management and teaching techniques. f. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics at all ashore facilities and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course.

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g. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew-served weapons operator and the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training. h. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. i. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. j. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. k. Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. l. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray).

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m. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT/ATTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. n. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs as described in OPNAVINST 3300.55, and DODINST 2000.16. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and execution. o. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. p. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The Security First Responder Course is designed to provide the patrol officer responding to various law enforcement/crisis situations on Naval installations with effective techniques for dealing with such situations. Some major topics include: Use of Force, Building Searches, Domestic Violence, Apprehension, Serious Incident Response, and Crimes in Progress.

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q. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy and crime prevention. r. Level II Coxswain – Operations and Tactics (CIN A-062-0050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is designed to train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF). Tactical boat operations include interdiction, screening, herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, anti-swimmer techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense around shipping and other objects designated as vital to national security. Day and night underway evolutions are conducted on various security craft and the course culminates in a final battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing force craft. s. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The student will learn the knowledge, skills and proper procedures necessary to record and manage ammunition assets. Training includes the generation and management of records relating to requisitions, receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory management and control, Notice of Ammunition Reclassifications (NARS), ammunition reporting, and other pertinent technical safety information. t. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Force Protection duties. In Surveillance Detection; allowing commands to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program. To train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup and conduct overt surveillance detection operations, comply with DoD standardized reporting procedures, and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include Surveillance Detection Program overview, Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix, conducting a Target Analysis,

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Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well. u. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) (Local/Regional). This course is designed to train licensed personnel to operate an emergency vehicle (EV) in varying circumstances and conditions. Covers legal topics relating to EV operation, physical factors that affect EV operation, and vehicle specific requirements. Qualification requires successful navigation through tight turns and maneuvers while operating an EV under simulated emergency conditions. v. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) Instructor (CIN A-493-0203). The course is a set of activities/topics in the classroom and on the driving range which cover: Emergency Vehicle Operation, Due Regard while Operating an Emergency Vehicle, Concepts of Managing Visibility and Time, Classroom and Range Procedures, Adult Learning Techniques, Driving Range set up, Testing techniques, Certification/Re-certification Process and Risk related to the driving task. w. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The course provides training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional system development process, preparation and use of training documents, instructional aids and materials, and student measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop, and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or performance methods of instruction. 6. Qualifications The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, and 3M) appropriate with rank. a. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9) 301 – Antiterrorism Watch Officer b. Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E) 301 – Sentry 302 – Reaction Force Member 303 – Reaction Force Team Leader 304 – Antiterrorism Training Supervisor 305 – Chief of the Guard 306 – Antiterrorism Training Team Member 307 – Antiterrorism Officer c. Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D) (Varies depending on specific duties)

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d. Small Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F) 301 - Bow Hook and Stern Hook 302 - Small Boat Engineer 303 - Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) Coxswain 304 - Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (11m RHIB) Coxswain 305 - Small Boat Officer 7. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by CNIC, BUMED and NETWARCOM. This list is not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. 8. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Law Enforcement Operations Security Operations

Chapter 2: Expeditionary Security 1. Expeditionary Security

NECCNECC Adaptive, Responsive, ExpeditionaryAdaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary

NECC Forces

Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support Group (NAVELSG)Navy Expeditionary Guard Battalion (NEGB)Maritime Civil Affairs Group (MCAG)Expeditionary Training Command (ETC)Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center (ECRC)

First Naval Construction Division (1NCD)Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD)Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF)Navy Expeditionary Intelligence Command (NEIC)Combat Camera (COMCAMLANT)

Key: (Total)

(AC/RC/CIV)

[IA / ILO/ADHOC]NECC

USFFC

NAVELSGNEIC COMCAM NEGB(357)

(246/59/4)(85)

(49/36)(3607)

(359/3248)(591)

Riverine 1NCD EOD MESF(15339)

(6394/8945)(2482)

(2198/293)(6557)

(2506/4051)(712)

MCAG ETC(75)

(50/25)(110)(66/44)

[~5000-7500]

(431)(191/240)

Current capabilities

Future capabilities

EXP MedicalECRC

Back a. Naval Expeditionary Combat Command (1) First Naval Construction Division:

(a) Provides contingency construction support to include:

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• Forward operations base construction and operation • Bridge and airfield construction/repair • Fleet hospital set up and operations • Security, Stabilization, Transition, and Reconstruction

Operations (SSTRO) • Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief

(2) Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support

• Worldwide expeditionary logistics • Provides support for:

o Port and air cargo handling missions o Customs inspections o Contingency contracting o Fuels distribution o Freight terminal and warehouse operations o Postal services o Ordnance reporting and handling

(3) Explosive Ordnance Disposal Group

• Special Operations • Fleet operations with CSG, ESG, and shore stations • Force Protection • Mine Countermeasures

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(4) Naval Coastal Warfare Group/Maritime Expeditionary Security Force

• Scalable and sustainable security teams capable of

defending mission-critical assets in worldwide near-coast, in-shore, and embarked environments

• Provide maritime and in-shore surveillance, security, antiterrorism, ground and afloat defense, Visit, Board, Search & Seizure (VBSS) Level III and C4I support in harbors and ports

• Wide range of secondary tasks from detention operations to law enforcement

(5) Riverine Group:

• Combat arms force provides maritime operations in rivers

and waterways • Denies terrorists use of the maritime environment as venue

for attack or for illegal purposes • Ensures continuance of legitimate trade • Keeps lines of communications open

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(6) Maritime Civil Affairs Group

• Assess, plan and coordinate civil/military operations in

the maritime environment o Major combatant and non-combatant evacuations o Maritime operations o Humanitarian assistance and disaster relief o Refugee operations

• Regionally aligned and focused • Host nation interagency coordination • U.S. Country Team coordination

(7) Expeditionary Training Command

• Provides timely, focused, and customized maritime

capabilities training at host nation request • Increases global maritime security capabilities • Increases host nations’ capacity to govern and protect

themselves • Supports Global Maritime Partnership concept

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(8) Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center

• Train, equip, certify, deploy, and redeploy IA In-Lieu-Of,

and Ad Hoc forces • Provide administrative oversight and reach-back functions • Conduit of information for family members • Provide support network • Ensure critical and appropriate training • Warrior Transition

(9) Combat Camera

• Operations support

o Counterterrorism o Psychological operations o Information operations

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o Battle damage assessment o Force protection o Public affairs

• Medical support • Investigative support • Historical documentation • Intelligence gathering support

(10) Expeditionary Intelligence

• Provide flexible, capable, and ready maritime expeditionary

intelligence forces • Maritime Interdiction Operations Intelligence Exploitation

Team (MIO-IET) • Navy HUMINT Teams (NHT) • Expeditionary Intelligence Support Element (EISE)

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b. Battle Space Interoperability

NECCNECC Adaptive, Responsive, ExpeditionaryAdaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary

NECC BattlespaceAdaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary

c. Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (1) Mission Areas (a) Small Craft Operations:

• Mission Description - Units conduct force protection of strategic shipping and naval vessels operating in the inshore and coastal areas, anchorages and harbors, and from bare beach to sophisticated port facilities. Missions could include Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS), High Value Asset (HVA) escorts, point defense, harbor approach and harbor defense, coastal surveillance, and Search and Rescue Support.

NTTP 3-20.6.29M Small Craft Operations Page 1-5 NTTP 3-20.6.29M, Chapter 4, Small Craft Operations NTTP 3-10.1, Naval Coastal Warfare Para 1.5.1 (b) Embarked (Vessel) Security Teams:

• Mission Description - 12-man Embarked Security Teams provide protection for Military Sealift Command (MSC) ships and their civilian crews as they ferry food, equipment, and other supplies to troops throughout the world.

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NTTP 3-10.1, Chapter 9, Naval Coastal Warfare (c) Sea Raven:

• Mission Description - The Sea Raven program ensures an acceptable level of close-in security for aircraft transiting airfields where security is unknown, or additional security is needed to counter local threats.

NTTP 3-10.1 Chapter 6, Naval Coastal Warfare AFI 31-104, Chapter 1, USAF Raven Program (d) Forward Operating Bases (FOB):

• Mission Description - A Forward Operating Base (FOB) is any secured forward position used to support tactical operations. A FOB may/may not contain an airfield, hospital, or other facilities. The base may be used for an extended period of time. FOBs are traditionally supported by main operating bases that are required to provide backup support to them. A FOB also reduces reaction time and

increases time on task to forces operating from it.Joint Forward Operations Base Force Protection Handbook Joint Contingency Operations Force Protection Handbook (e) Convoy Security Elements 1. Mission Description: To provide security for a convoy in transit through potentially hostile zones against unknown enemy forces. 2. Team Composition a. Convoy Commander b. Lead Vehicle Commander c. Vehicle Commander d. Driver/"A" driver e. CSW Operator f. Designated Marksman g. Combat Life Saver h. Litter Carriers i. Landing Zone Team j. Assault Team k. Recovery Team l. Gun Trucks m. Security Personnel NTTP 4-01.3, Chapter 1, Tactical Convoy Operations (f) Helo Vessel Boarding Search and Seizure (HVBSS)

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1. Mission Description: Maritime boarding actions and tactics designed to capture enemy vessels; to combat terrorism, piracy and smuggling; and to conduct customs, safety, and other inspections as employed by modern navies, marine and maritime services, military and police forces. 2. Team composition a. Officer-in-Charge/Boarding Officer b. Assistant Boarding Officer c. Designated Marksman (DM) d. Boarding Squad Leaders e. Coxswain f. Boat Engineer g. Breachers h. Boarding Team Members i. Hospital Corpsman j. Intelligence Officer k. Supply (Logistics) l. Communications Specialist m. Operations Specialist NTTP 3-07.11 Maritime Interception Operations COMNAVSPECWARCOMINST 3000.3B, Air Operations Manual (g) Detainee Operations:

• Mission Description - Provide for the treatment, care, accountability, legal status, and administrative procedures for Enemy Prisoners of War, Civilian Internees, Retained Persons, and Other Detainees.

OPNAVINST 3461.6 - Enemy Prisoners of War, Retained Personnel, Civilian Internees, and Other Detainees (h) Special Events:

• Mission Description - Provide point defense security for all designated events requiring the specialized training, equipment, and defensive tactics contained within MESF. Events including Fleet Weeks, Ship and Submarine commissioning and decommissioning ceremonies, air shows, VIP visits, and high profile facility closures.

(2) Equipment (a) Boats 1. 25 ft Oswald Class Secured Around Flotation Equipment (SAFE) Boat (S9008-ES-BIB-010)

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2. 34 ft Dauntless SeaArk S9008-DZ-BIB-010

3. 11 Meter Zodiac RHIB Boat S9008-FP-BIB-010

4. 27 Ft IBU Gen I Security Boat

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5. 32 Ft IBU Gen II Security Boat (Kingston Class)

6. 39 Ft Small Unit Riverine Craft

NTTP 3-20.6.29M, Small Craft Operations

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(b) Communications. Mobility is one of the keys to success on the modern battlefield. All communications must be geared to support a combat force that must repeatedly move to survive and fight the enemy. The single-channel radio is the primary means of communication for command, fire control, exchange of information, administration, and liaison between and within units. The versatility of radio communications makes it readily adaptable to rapidly changing tactical situations. Radio is essential for communications over large bodies of water, territory controlled by enemy forces, and terrain where the construction of wire lines is impossible or impractical. It is also required for air assault operations. FIELD MANUAL FM 24-18 Tactical Single-Channel Radio Communication Techniques / Para 1-1 The following radios are commonly utilized by Naval Expeditionary Forces. 1. Hand Held Radios.

PRC-148 XTS-5000 PRC-152 2. PRC - 117 Radios

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3. PRC - 150 Radios

Army Radio Telephone Operator Handbook NTTP 6-02.2 Joint Service Communications Allied Communications Publication 125F (c) Expeditionary forces utilize a variety of equipment to accomplish their mission specific tasks. Unit equipment or Tables of Allowance (TOA) may be viewed utilizing

ink. the below lUNIT TOAs Once you have navigated to the link, select ABFCVIEW only, then select the ABFC/TOA link on the left hand side of the web page. You will then be able to select a unit from the menu and view their equipment by title, NSN, quantity, and price. As you select facility, assembly, and NSN tabs you will receive more detailed data. (3) Operational Positions (a) Tactical Supervisor (TACSUP): The watch section is overseen by the TACSUP in the Operations Center. The TACSUP’s primary responsibility is ‘big picture’ management of the tactical situation. The TACSUP reports directly to the Mission Commander. NTTP 3-07.2.1, Chapter 5, Antiterrorism/Force Protection (b) Chief of the Guard (COG): Chief of the Guard/Waterfront Security Supervisor. Responsible to the Watch Commander/Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer for the proper operation of assigned posts. Serves in supervisory/management position over assigned posts.

• Supervise Pier access and control • Operation of vehicle check points • Clearing barrel supervisor • Verify watchstander qualifications. • Conduct security briefs • Inspect assigned posts and equipment

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NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2.4 and 5.3.4, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.4.2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines, Paragraph 1.4, 2.3, 3.3, 4.3, 5.3, and 6.3 (c) Reactionary (React) Team: The Reactionary Team responds to security threats, augments and reinforces sentries on post to deter and defend against threats. They provide riot control, weapons support, counter-surveillance, and command and control support. A Reactionary Team member may be a primary or collateral duty. Primarily responds to heightened security states including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.

• Respond appropriately to a security alert/incident • Augment fixed posts • Cover Entry Control Point withdrawal • Conduct tactical movement to critical spaces/areas under No

Light, Low Light, and Bright Light conditions • Take immediate action while en route to an incident • Shoot while moving • Assess the tactical situation and make reports • Control entry and enforce perimeters

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines (d) Patrol Leader: The Patrol Leader exercises local control of assigned small boats and associated personnel and reports directly to the TACSUP. (e) Coxswain: The boat coxswain has ultimate responsibility for his craft and crew, including the employment of crew-served and personal weapons aboard the craft. Normally in charge of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for the overall operation of security boat in situations where a boat officer is not assigned.

• Operate harbor security boat • Conduct suspect vessel pursuits

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• nes Maintain threat, warning, and assessment security zoNTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29M Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, C, D, J, H, L, O, R, S & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (f) Engineer: The Engineer is responsible for the operations, care, and maintenance of all propulsion, auxiliary machinery, damage control, communication systems, electrical, and electronic devices. (g) Crewman/gunner: All crewmen have look-out responsibilities as well as being assigned as a gunner. Gunners are responsible for the operation and maintenance of craft weapons and weapons employment against threats. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29M Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, C, D, J, H, L, O, R, S & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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d. Riverine Force (1) Force Structure:

4

Pre-Decisional – Draft Working Papers

United States Fleet ForcesUnited States Fleet Forces Operational Readiness, Effectiveness, PrimacyOperational Readiness, Effectiveness, Primacy

Command RelationshipsCommand Relationships

River Squadron 1 River Squadron 2 River Squadron 3

Riverine Group One

NECC

CFFC

ADCON

OPCON

•Three (AC) squadrons meet current theater requirement of one squadron deployed within OPNAV PERSTEMPO, and supports a full FRTP and short duration engagement (TSC) missions.•TACON as determined by mission.*RIVGRU deployed based on size and complexity of mission.

Deployed River Squadron(s)

Riverine Group One *(Riverine Task Group)

NCC/JFMCC

COCOM

(2) Mission Areas: Serve as a ready force for the Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander. Each Riverine Squadron (Active Component) consists of specially designed craft configured to operate in a hostile riparian environment. Water crafts will have multiple crews for near continuous operations and lift capacity for a small tactical unit. Manning, training, and equipment will support operations against a Level II threat and include organic Command, Control, Communications, Computers and Intelligence, Force Protection, and Logistics.

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(3) Equipment (a) Riverine Patrol Craft (RPC) – SURC

(b) Riverine Assault Craft (RAC) SOC-R

(c) Riverine Command Boat (RCB)

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e. Expeditionary Training Group (ETG) (1) Mission Areas: Primarily a staff command which develops, manages, and provides adaptive force packaged staff training. Coordinate delivery of common team training; integrate NECC Force Participation in Joint/Fleet Exercises. Provide centralized support to, and coordination of, training services from outside the enterprise. (2) Manning: Master-at-Arms will primarily serve in the Training Branch and is responsible for developing standardized exercise and certification procedures for common tasks. Develops and conducts training for AT/FP Staffs. f. Expeditionary Training Command (ETC)

(1) Force Structure:

(2) Mission Areas: ETC will deliver to a worldwide audience maritime expeditionary core capability training and instruction in the areas of naval construction, maritime civil affairs, maritime expeditionary security, riverine, expeditionary logistics, explosive ordnance disposal, mobile diving and salvage, naval coastal warfare, and skill sets external to NECC. The goal will be to complement efforts of U.S. forces across the full spectrum of military operations.

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This mission will be carried out by teams of ETC personnel with the subject matter expertise to train foreign audiences at a basic to intermediate level. ETC’s mission is to provide training in foreign locations and give local nationals the expertise to govern and protect themselves and their areas of responsibility (AOR) from enemies. The training will target foreign country military, civil, and security personnel. (3) Equipment: ETC equipment inventory mirrors MESF. (4) Training: Language Training, Cultural Competency, Instructor Training, Advisory Skills Training and other advanced Subject Matter Expertise (SME) related training. (5) Manning: ETC is comprised of subject matter related training teams to support Weapons, Patrol Craft Operations, VBSS/MIO, ATFP, Maritime Security, Construction/Maintenance and Leadership/Professional Development. g. Mission Planning MCWP 3-11.2, Appendix C, Marine Rifle Squad (1) BAMCIS (a) Begin planning (b) Arrange for the reconnaissance (c) Make the reconnaissance (d) Complete the plan (e) Issue the order (implementing the training) (f) Supervise (supervising and evaluating the performance) (2) Employ the troop leading steps BAMCIS: (a) Begin planning 1. Plan use of available time 2. Begin analyzing the operational mission, including factors such as: a. The mission b. Information concerning the enemy c. The terrain and weather

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d. Information about troops e. Available fire support 3. Formulate a preliminary plan of action for accomplishing the mission. (b) Arrange for reconnaissance and coordination. 1. Arrange for where, when, and how unit will be moved. 2. Prepare a schedule for reconnaissance, as time and situation permit. 3. After the platoon commander’s briefing, make arrangements to coordinate with adjacent unit leaders, leaders of supporting units, and other unit leaders as necessary. (c) Make a reconnaissance. 1. Continue the estimate of the situation. 2. Complete terrain analysis to include: a. Key terrain b. Observation and fields of fire c. Cover and concealment d. Obstacles e. Avenues of approach 3. Note the effects of the terrain on the preliminary plan. 4. Reject, adopt, and alter the plans, as necessary. (d) Complete the plan. 1. Review the preliminary plan. 2. Prepare notes to use when issuing the order. 3. Use the following to make final decisions:

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a. Routes of approach b. Location and strength of available squad security c. Where the enemy will be located d. Method of attack (e) Issue the order 1. Brief the subordinate leaders on the terrain. 2. Issue the order, to include: a. Description of the situation (1) Enemy forces (2) Location and mission of friendly forces (3) Unit attachments and detachments b. Brief statement of the mission c. Execution of the mission d. Instructions and information pertaining to administration and logistics e. Commands and signals f. Coordinate the supervision of the execution of the order (f) Coordinate and issue guiding instructions to ensure the mission is accomplished correctly and on time. MCWP 3-11.2, Appendix C, Marine Rifle Squad h. Execution (1) Mobility (a) Load Planning

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(b) Inventory (c) Theater and Diplomatic Clearances (2) Security Plans (a) Status of Forces Agreement (b) Rules of Engagement (c) Structural Assets (d) Manpower/Defensive Fighting Positions (e) Support (Medical, Water, Sanitation) (3) Convoy Operations (a) Gun Trucks/Armament (b) Route 1. Waypoints 2. Safe havens 3. Threats (4) Mission Operations (a) Security 1. Site Establishment a. Perimeters b. Defensive Positions c. Entry Control Point(s) 2. Random Antiterrorism Measures (5) Retrograde/Return to Base i. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. (1) Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216). Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force

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Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. (2) Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217). Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. (3) Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018). Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. (4) Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its crew members; whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility; from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats; whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means of penetrating a unit; under emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. (5) Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum, to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques and safe employment, and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). (6) Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (Course Identification Number A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this

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course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the unit’s FPTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. (7) Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management, and teaching techniques. (8) Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, and the M240 Series Machine Gun, as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics, at all ashore facilities and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a prerequisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course. (9) Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew served weapons operators, and provide them with the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training. (10) Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and execution. (11) Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF)

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assets, determine ATFP readiness status, and implement, organize, and oversee all NSF/ATFP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/ATFP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train and equip the NSF to conduct ATFP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the ATFP plans. (12) Correctional Specialist Navy Ashore (NEC 9575) (CIN A-831-0001). To provide selected Petty Officers with a working knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are required for the administration, operation, and supervision of Navy Brigs/Correctional Custody Units. (13) Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course trains VBSS Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant vessel while maintaining control over crew members. This course is designed to train an entire team together in the operation of specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics and techniques. (14) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer (CIN A-2E-0085). Prepare the VBSS Boarding Officer (BO), Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO), Security Team Leaders (STL), Liaison Officer and Intelligence Specialist (IS) to plan, execute, and teach the biometrics collection/equipment and debrief VBSS Procedures (Compliant and Non-Compliant Low Freeboard) in support of Maritime Interception Operations (MIO). (15) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher (CIN A-830-0022). Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team personnel to perform mission planning and target analysis duties as a mechanical breacher, utilizing appropriate breaching tools and techniques against various target sets in support of Maritime Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard. (16) Customs Border Clearance Agent – Afloat (CIN J-551-0050). Defines procedures, responsibilities, and outlines customs and certain agricultural inspection and entry requirements to eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs, and other contraband into the United States through DoD channels. This course follows guidelines set forth in DoD 5030.49R.

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(17) Expeditionary Combat Skills (CIN: A-830-0030). The Expeditionary Combat Skills (ECS) course is designed to provide eligible personnel with basic expeditionary combat skills training necessary to professionally and safely perform high risk security operations when assigned to Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) organizations. This course will provide NECC personnel with the necessary individual knowledge, skills and abilities to perform Basic Expeditionary First Aid, don and wear Individual Combat Equipment (ICE) and CBR gear, function safely in a field and CBRNE environment, learn basic Land Navigation, understand basic radio communications procedures and reports, understand Counter-Improvised Explosive Devices (C-IED) operations, and conduct range live fire, missions, and ammunition handling safely with minimum risk. The ECS course will allow personnel to demonstrate, qualify and become comfortable with both primary and secondary weapons. Students will perform basic movement while engaging targets, transitioning from primary to secondary weapon, executing vehicle emergency egress procedures, and conducting live-fire exercises in a controlled environment. Additionally, students will become familiar with the psycho/physiological effects induced during deadly force or life threatening confrontations and measures to effectively minimize their impact on engagement decision making during Judgment-Based Engagement Training (JET). (18) Riverine Crewman (CIN: A-062-0052). To provide Riverine Crewmembers instruction on safety, navigation, communications, operator maintenance, high speed maneuvering and handling, weapons and weapons employment, tactical boat operations and other individual and collective skills unique to riverine crafts operating in a riverine environment. (19) Level II Coxswain-Operations and Tactics (CIN: A-062-0050). To train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force actively providing security zones around shipping and other objects designated as vital to national security. j. Qualifications The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, and 3M) appropriate with rank. (1) Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9) 301 – Antiterrorism Watch Officer

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(2) Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E) 301 – Sentry 302 – Reaction Force Member 303 – Reaction Force Team Leader 304 – Antiterrorism Training Supervisor 305 – Chief of the Guard 306 – Antiterrorism Training Team Member 307 – Antiterrorism Officer (3) Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D) (Varies depending on specific duties) (4) Small Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F) 301 - Bow Hook and Stern Hook 302 - Small Boat Engineer 303 - Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) Coxswain 304 - Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (11m RHIB) Coxswain 305 - Small Boat Officer (5) Tactical Craft Operations (NAVEDTRA 43911) 301 - Craft Crewman 302 - Craft Engineer 303 - Craft Navigator / Telecommunications Officer 304 - Craft Coxswain 305 - Craft Patrol Leader k. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by NECC. This list is not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. l. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Security Operations Corrections and Detainee Operations

Chapter 3: Shipboard Security 1. Shipboard Security Responsible for law enforcement, physical security, and AT for the activity to which assigned. Navy Security Force primary mission and purpose is to conduct operations and maintain readiness to deter, defeat, and defend against criminal and terrorist activities in order to defeat and mitigate the effects of such activities on designated assets, installations, and facilities. Also, they shall maintain and support a lawful, orderly, and safe operating environment. NSF shall protect life, property, and information; enforce laws, rules, regulations, and statutes; deter, detect, delay, deny, disrupt, and defeat criminal and enemy activity; and prevent theft and other losses caused by fire damage, accident, trespass, sabotage, espionage, etc. a. Administration (Shipboard). Organizational positions and relationships vary depending on platform type. COMNAVSURFOR ships follow the NTTP 3-07.2.1 organizational charts (below).

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Commanding Officer

ATTWO

Contact Sentry

Chief of the

Guard

Reaction Force LeaderPOOW

Picket Boat

Shipboard

Fixed/Roving Post

OOD

RF

BRF

SRF

Landward Fixed/ Roving

Post

Cover Sentry

ATO/ Security Officer

(649x/749x)

COMNAVAIRFOR commands (carriers) follow the CNAFINST 3300.53A command structure (below) based on the position of the Security Officer (either as a Department Head or as a Division Officer).

SECURITY OFFICER AS DEPARTMENT HEAD

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SECURITY OFFICER AS DIVISION OFFICER

CNAFINST 3300.53A, Antiterrorism Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Antiterrorism b. Positions and Responsibilities (1) Sentry. A sentry is a person whose duties include the requirement to maintain constant alertness, be vigilant, and remain awake in order to observe the possible approach of the enemy; or to guard persons, property, or a place; and to sound the alert, if necessary.

• Control Access • Detect Surveillance • Detect, Track, and Assess Potential Threats • Report to the Chain of Command • Take Immediate Action to protect personnel/assets

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 thru 5.3.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Antiterrorism

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OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Manual NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (2) Patrol Officer (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Patrol Officers are assigned to positions whose primary duties involve law enforcement. Law enforcement operations can include detention, apprehension, rights advisement, interview and interrogations, and preliminary investigations. These duties are normally assigned in addition to Sentry duties.

• Administer field sobriety tests • Advise military and civilian suspects of their rights • Apprehend military suspects • Conduct suspect interviews • Conduct victim and witness interviews and obtain written

statements • Establish crime scene • Secure the scene of an incident and protect/collect

evidence • Obtain permissive search authorization

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.9, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8 & Appendix B, C, E, K, L, M, N, R, S, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (3) Vehicle/Boat Inspector. Assigned to inspect different types of vehicles including cars, commercial vehicles, and vessels. These duties may be performed at a fixed location (i.e. inspection station) or as a mobile team.

• Verify credentials for access • Verify vehicle/vessel documents for authenticity • Operate screening and detection equipment • Operate Commercial Vehicle Inspection Station

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 and 5.3.10, Antiterrorism OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program

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NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (4) Harbor Security Boat Coxswain. Normally in charge of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for the overall operation of security boat in situations where a boat officer is not assigned.

• Operate harbor security boat • Conduct suspect vessel pursuits • Maintain threat, warning, and assessment security zones

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (5) Harbor Security Boat Crew Member/Gunner. A harbor security boat crewmember/gunner may be assigned to positions whose duties include working as a member of a security boat team or manning a crew-served weapon to provide protective fire during security boat operations.

• Operate small arms and crew-served weapons • Use authorized warning shot tactics • Verify vessel credentials • Identify and track potential waterborne and subsurface

threats • Maintain threat, warning, and assessment security zones

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.7.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (6) Emergency Dispatcher and Electronic Security Systems Monitor (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Provide link between the community and emergency services, provide information to and dispatch responding services, and monitor electronic security systems used.

• Monitor communication systems

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• Monitor electronic security systems • Analyze available information, prioritize available

resources, and dispatch appropriate response forces OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.5, 5, Appendix C.4, M, N, Q, R, S, & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (7) Armory/AA&E Supervisor. Responsible for security, safety, accountability, classification, maintenance, requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper disposal of arms and ammunition.

• Conducts inventory of assigned weapons • Manages maintenance on assigned weapons • Tracks ammunition expenditure and initiates ammunition

requests when required OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (8) AA&E Custodian/Armorer. Maintains the security unit armory or ready for issue room; conducts inspection of unit assigned weapons, ammunition, and storage spaces; performs maintenance on unit issued and authorized weapons, armory, and range equipment; maintains records for arms and ammunition accountability; requests necessary forms/logs pertaining to mechanical functioning, maintenance, trouble shooting, and field repair; and maintains a master listing of all security unit weapons and the assignment of those weapons. OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (9) Reaction Force Leader. Leads reaction forces. May be a primary duty or as a collateral duty while on patrol/sentry posts. Tactically leads Reaction Force to objectives.

• Execute small unit tactics

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• Operate and manage multiple response teams • Plan and execute reaction force training

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (10) Reaction Force Member. May be primary or collateral duty. Primarily responds to heightened security states including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.

• Respond appropriately to a security alert/incident • Augment fixed posts • Cover Entry Control Point withdrawal • Conduct tactical movement to critical spaces/areas under No

Light, Low Light, and Bright Light conditions • Take immediate action while en route to an incident • Shoot while moving • Assess the tactical situation and make reports • Control entry and enforce perimeters

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8, 5, Appendix B, K, L, Q, R, & T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (11) Watch Commander (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Responsible for supervising all watch section responsibilities to include: Patrol, sentries, emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor, harbor security, and the armory. This position is usually assigned to senior member of watch team.

• Conducts incident management • Coordinates assigned units in threat response • Manages and trains assigned security forces

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• Inspects posts to ensure proper security operations and standards are maintained

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.4, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (12) Chief of the Guard. Responsible to the Watch Commander/Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer for the proper operation of assigned posts. Serves in supervisory/management position over assigned posts.

• Supervise Pier access and control • Operation of vehicle check points • Clearing barrel supervisor • Verify watch stander qualifications • Conduct security briefs • Inspect assigned posts and equipment

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2.4 and 5.3.4, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.7, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S, T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (13) On-Scene Commander. Senior security operations member at the scene of an incident who possesses the required tactical skills, unless otherwise designated by the Security Officer. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.10, Appendix B, F, G, K, L, N, Q, R, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (14) Security Operations Officer (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Responsible to the Security Officer for the day to day operations and job execution of unit’s Security Forces providing law enforcement, physical security, antiterrorism, and force protection services. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (15) Patrol Supervisor (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Responsible for mobile supervision of patrols and sentries and acts as back up relief for the watch commander. Duties include assisting Watch Commander in assigned duties.

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• Conducts Post Inspections • Supervises mobile and fixed posts

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.6, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (16) Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP NEC 9501)/Field Training Officer. Manage the command security and AT training, the Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel Qualification System (PQS) programs. Typically a graduate of Antiterrorism Training Supervisor Course. The watch section field training officer (FTO) is directly responsible to the patrol watch commander for training purposes. Unless a patrol unit is adequately manned to provide a person to act solely as the FTO, the most qualified patrolman in the section will act in that capacity.

• Plan, conduct, assess security force drills • Coordinate training and security planning • Train security forces • Train newly arriving personnel for patrol duties • Conduct required training for Patrol Section personnel • Manage and track Patrol Section PQS qualifications

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program Account registration for ATG ATG Tactical Scenario Exercise Guide COMNAVSURFORINST 3502.1D, Chapter 3, Section 1, Tab C, Surface Forces Training Manual OPNAVINST 3500.34F Personnel Qualification Standards Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection Manual for Courts-Martial, United States (17) Command Investigator. Investigators conduct interviews/interrogations; conduct crime scene management; collect, seize, preserve documents and store evidence; conduct surveillance and counter-surveillance operations; and conduct investigations on criminal matters.

• Complete investigative reports • Conduct command authorized searches • Conduct crimes against persons/property investigations

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• Conduct suspect interviews and interrogations • Conduct victim and witness interviews • Respond to serious incidents

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 3 & 7, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix J, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations Manual For Courts-Martial United States (18) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). The ATO develops and manages the AT/FP program, is the lead member on the Force Protection Training Team, and manages AT/FP resources.

• Develops and manages AT Plan • Prepares, updates, and implements AT/FP plans • Manages resources that may include watchstander gear,

security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment • Oversees/manages AT/FP training as the head of the

command’s Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection Training Team Member (FPTT)

• Review, plan, and analyze security and crises management capabilities

OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism Program (SIPRNET ONLY) SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy Antiterrorism Program CNAFINST 3300.53A, Antiterrorism Program CNSFINST 3300.1B, Antiterrorism/Force Protection Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/ForceProtection (19) Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (ATTWO). The ATTWO tactically employs command assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port, similar in function to the tactical action officer when underway. When in port at a U.S. Navy installation, the ATTWO coordinates integration of waterborne and shoreside AT/FP assets into installation security forces. The COG and other potential watchstanders, such as security boats, report to the ATTWO.

• Analyzes threats • Directs security forces • Manages security posture of ship

CNAFINST 3300.53A, Antiterrorism Program CNSFINST 3300.1B, Antiterrorism/Force Protection Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2.2, Antiterrorism

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(20) Independent Duty Master-at-Arms. Manages the command AT and Force Protection program, trains security forces, plans and conducts security force drills, assesses security force capabilities, conducts vulnerability assessments, tactically deploys security assets to neutralize threats, conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, manages the command physical security and law enforcement program, and conducts customs inspections. (See AT Training Supervisor NEC 9501)

• Develop and conduct Reaction Force and Ship’s Self Defense Force training

• Develop and conduct non-lethal weapon training • Develop Pre-Planned Responses • Monitor and train armed watchstanders • Act as security Subject Matter Expert • Liaison with other law enforcement agencies • Manage and conduct law enforcement functions • Develop Law Enforcement and Physical Security plans

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program CNSFINST 3300.1B, Antiterrorism/Force Protection Program NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines DoDD 2000.12 Dated August 18, 2003, DoD Antiterrorism Program DoDI 2000.16 Dated October 2, 2006, DoD Antiterrorism Standards DoD O-2000.12H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix N, O, P, R, U & W, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (21) Security Officer (SECO). Responsible for the overall management of a Security Detachment or Department. Supervises the patrol and security function of a command’s AT/FP program including law enforcement, physical security, antiterrorism, and force protection.

• Manages Navy Security Force (NSF) • Directs command’s security forces • Assists Antiterrorism Officer in developing AT/FP plans,

SOPs, instructions, and training plans • Assists commander in maintaining good order and discipline • Coordinate security requirements • Plan for changes to threat or FPCON

OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program

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SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force Employment and Operations NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (22) Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection Training Team Member (FPTT). The ATTT/FPTT will be comprised of the most knowledgeable and experienced personnel on the ship and will conduct antiterrorism and force protection training as directed by the ATO. The team shall consist of, but is not limited to: ATO, Security Officer, Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (ATTS), Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (SAMI), and select members of the ship’s Security Force (NSF).

• Conducts individual and team training for the command’s security forces and unit personnel

• Plans and conducts command antiterrorism exercises • Continuously assesses the command’s AT program, plans, and

exercises NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 & 3.4.2, Antiterrorism NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, 306 Antiterrorism Training Team Memeber, AT Common Core 2. Antiterrorism a. Antiterrorism Plan. Commanders will transform general measures and procedures contained in each FPCON into specific measures and procedures to protect their critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure, and personnel. The classification of an AT/FP plan is dependent upon its content, current policy, and the specifics of a unit’s situation. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 2 & Appendix A, Antiterrorism DoDD 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism Program DoDI 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism Standards DoD O-2000.12H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook b. Entry Control Point (ECP). The ECP, as the point of first contact with security forces for those seeking access, is the most critical part in the installation’s defense in depth. ECPs include access points to installations, piers, flightlines, and other restricted areas. It is here that potential terrorists are detected and neutralized. An ECP can include the following watchstanders:

• Contact sentry • Cover sentry • Inspection team

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• Weapons team The senior member at the ECP serves as the supervisor and reports to the COG/WSS or patrol supervisor. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism c. Inport Security Plan (ISP). Ships and aviation squadrons typically develop ISPs/force protection plans (FPPs) whenever entering a port/airfield not located within a U.S. Navy installation. These plans supplement the standing AT/FP plans by providing event-specific CONOPS and procedures. The format is similar to the five-paragraph SMEAC format common to all U.S. military services. NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix B, Antiterrorism d. Antiterrorism Standards. DoD & CNO Standards directing Commanders to take certain steps in the safeguarding of resources. OPNAVINST 3300.53B, Encl 1, Navy Antiterrorism Standards DoDD 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism Program DoDI 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism Standards DoD O-2000.12H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook e. Force Protection Condition (FPCON) Measures. Measures designed to detect, defend, deter, and mitigate against terrorist attacks. Commanders are required to tailor DoD FPCON Measures to local conditions. Both shore installation and shipboard FPCON Measures are covered. DoDI 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism Standards 3. Physical Security. Physical security is the overall security posture at an activity including policy and resources committed to safeguard personnel, protect property, and prevent losses. Physical security is concerned with means and measures designed to achieve force protection and AT readiness. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, CHAP 2 & 4, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix D, P, Q, R, U & W, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations a. Physical Security Plan. Plan laying out all measures and resources to be used in its over all security program. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, CHAP 2 & 4, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix D, P, Q, R, U & W, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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b. Crime Prevention. Program designed to reduce the crimes against persons and property by prevention through deterrence, training, and surveys. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 3, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix O & P, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations 4. Training OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program a. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW). NLW add more options in the Use of Force continuum allowing for a less than lethal response to threats which do not warrant the use of deadly force. NLW categories include: strikes, holds, takedowns, baton/striking devices, and Oleoresin Capsicum spray. Use of some NLW may be limited or restricted overseas in accordance with local Status of Forces Agreements. The Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (NEC 9501) (AT TRASUP) is responsible for ensuring all personnel assigned to Security duties are properly qualified in the use of NLW by completing the required curriculum. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6 & 8, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.3.2, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal Weapons NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 14, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, K, L & T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations b. Weapons. Security Forces who regularly perform law enforcement and security duties shall be armed. No person will be armed unless currently qualified in the use of assigned weapons. The Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) and the Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) are responsible for qualifying personnel on assigned weapons. More information can be found in Chapter 10, Weapon and Non-Lethal Weapon Training. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6 & 8, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix B, L & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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c. Antiterrorism Level 1 Annual Training (AT Level 1), AOR SPECIFIC. The Antiterrorism Officer course graduates (CIN J-830-0015) are qualified to teach the AT Level 1 (annual requirement) or area specific brief (required when traveling on leave or official duties overseas). Personnel may also complete the online course of instruction for AT Level 1 on NKO or at https://atlevel1.dtic.mil/at/. OPNAVINST 3300.53B, Encl 1, CNO Standard 21, Navy Antiterrorism Standards d. NSF Apprentice and Sustainment Training Standards. Taught by qualified FTO’s to security patrol personnel on larger ships who have law enforcement responsibilities. No formal qualification exists. Preapproved training presentations can be found on Center for Security Forces Curriculum page within NKO. (https://wwwa.nko.navy.mil/portal/securityforces/censecforcurriculum/home?paf_default_view=true) OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program e. School Requirements. AT/FP School requirements can be found on the Navy Training Managements and Planning System (NTMPS)(http://www.ntmps.navy.mil). Unit Training Officers should have log on to pull AT/FP specific school requirements. COMNAVSURFORINST 3502.1D, Tab C, Surface Force Training Manual 5. Additional Duties a. Physical Security Review Board/Committee b. Customs Defense Travel Regulations 4500.9-R, DoD Customs Program c. Non-judicial punishment (NJP) and Courts Martial Procedures MANUAL FOR COURTS MARTIAL, Section V JAGINST 5800.7E, Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) d. Personnel Escorts 6. Duty Assignments 1. FFG/DDG/CG/LPD – MA1-MACS 2. LHA/LHD/CVN – MASR-MACM 7. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your command or platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log on to CANTRAC Volume II.

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a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Antiterrorism, Force Protection, and Basic Law Enforcement to include but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1(Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series. b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses, reporting, special operations, and supplementary examinations. c. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides navy personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management, and teaching techniques. d. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics at all ashore facilities and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course. e. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command antiterrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew served weapons operators, the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training.

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f. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. g. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. h. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. i. Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its crew members; whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility; from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats; whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means; from penetrating a unit under emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. j. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). k. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and assists with Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response

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procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. l. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Antiterrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments, and execution. m. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets; determine AT/FP readiness status; implement, organize, and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train, and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. n. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The Security First Responder Course is designed to provide the patrol officer responding to various law enforcement/crisis situations on Naval installations with effective techniques for dealing with such situations. Some major topics include: Use of Force, Building Searches, Domestic Violence, Apprehension, Serious Incident Response, and Crimes in Progress. o. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency

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vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy, and crime prevention. p. Level II Coxswain – Operations and Tactics (CIN A-062-0050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is designed to train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as a member of Naval Coastal Warfare (NCW) or waterborne security patrol units. Tactical boat operations include interdiction, screening, herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, anti-swimmer techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense around shipping and other objects designated as vital to national security. Day and night underway evolutions are conducted on various security craft and the course culminates in a final battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing force craft. q. Naval Coastal Warfare Tactical Supervisor (CIN A-062-0051). Topics addressed in this course include knowledge of battle space management from a tactical/operational perspective - developing skills for battlespace situational awareness; operational coordination and control via orders development and dissemination; C3, EOD, and host nation integration; and rules of engagement/self defense for AT/FP and NCW. Practical exercises include development of an in-port security plan and simulated watchstanding exercises emphasizing Tactical Supervisor decision making, boat driving, and protection of the HVA. r. Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course is designed to train VBSS Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant vessel while maintaining control over crew members. This course is designed to train an entire team together in the operation of specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics, and techniques. s. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer (CIN A-2E-0085). This course is designed to prepare the VBSS Boarding Officer (BO), Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO), Security Team Leaders (STL), Liaison Officer, and Intelligence Specialist (IS) to plan, execute, and teach the biometrics collection/equipment and debrief VBSS Procedures (Compliant and Non-Compliant Low Freeboard) in support of Maritime Interception Operations (MIO). t. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher (CIN A-830-0022). Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team personnel to

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perform mission planning and target analysis duties as a mechanical breacher utilizing appropriate breaching tools and techniques against various target sets in support of Maritime Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard. u. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The student will learn the knowledge, skills, and proper procedures necessary to record and manage ammunition assets. Training includes the generation and management of records relating to requisitions, receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory management and control, Notice of Ammunition Reclassifications (NARS), ammunition reporting, and other pertinent technical safety information. v. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Protection duties in Surveillance Detection allowing commands to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program to train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup and conduct overt surveillance detection operations; comply with DoD standardized reporting procedures; and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include Surveillance Detection Program overview, Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix, conducting a Target Analysis, Operational Planning, and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well. w. Customs Border Clearance Agent – Afloat (CIN J-551-0050). Defines procedures, responsibilities, and outlines customs and certain agricultural inspection and entry requirements to eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs, and other contraband into the United States through DoD channels. This course follows guidelines set forth in DoD 5030.49R. x. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). Provides training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional system development process, preparation and use of training documents, instructional aids and materials, and student measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop, and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or performance methods of instruction.

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8. Qualifications The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, 3M) appropriate with rank. a. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9) 301 – Antiterrorism Watch Officer b. Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E) 301 – Sentry 302 – Reaction Force Member 303 – Reaction Force Team Leader 304 – Antiterrorism Training Supervisor 305 – Chief of the Guard 306 – Antiterrorism Training Team Member 307 – Antiterrorism Officer c. Deck Watches in Port (NAVEDTRA 43397-D) 302 – Pier Security 307 – Duty Master-at-Arms d. Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D) (Varies depending on platform) 9. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by COMNAVSURFOR and COMNAVAIRFOR. These lists are not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. 10. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Law Enforcement Operations Security Operations

Chapter 4: Navy Corrections Program 1. Correctional Philosophy a. The philosophy of naval corrections is based on recognition of the fact that, whether it be confinement or in some other form, punishment alone is seldom corrective. Confinement is punishment because it denies members their liberty and separates them from their families, friends, and most normal activities. It means loss of status and disapproval of the individual offender by the military society. Confinement sharply limits the prisoners' privileges, freedom of action, and opportunities for personal satisfaction. More significantly, it also lowers their self-respect. b. Confinement facilities provide a climate conducive to positive change, with programs tailored to the needs of prisoners and the service, and a system which recognizes and rewards acceptable behavior while disciplining unacceptable behavior. Confinement facility program recognizes the critical role of the staff members as role models of successful behavior. c. Where facilities permit, newly admitted prisoners shall be housed separately from the general population until indoctrination in prisoner regulations and other administrative details of reception are completed. During this period of orientation, prisoners shall be objectively evaluated and a custody classification assigned prior to transfer to the general population. d. Correction Specialist. Performs specialized correctional duties including the responsibility for security, control, supervision, support, health and care of prisoners. Knowledgeable on correctional programs and administration. e. Members are sentenced to confinement as punishment; they are not confined for punishment by any member of the staff of a confinement facility except as provided for by law and regulation. Hazing, harassment, unauthorized exercises, unnecessary restrictions or deprivations, and demeaning treatment serve no useful purpose and are prohibited. The friction they cause creates tension between staff and prisoners and leads to acts of aggression, retaliation, and serious individual or mass disturbances. Prisoners forced to comply with unreasonable, unnecessary, and unmilitary routines lose respect for the authority which imposes them.

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f. As a Correction Specialist you will control and supervise prisoner movement, work details, mess decks, special quarters, and disciplinary segregated prisoners. Conduct tours and inspect perimeter grounds, dormitories, special quarters, and surrounding buildings. The responsibility for receiving and releasing of prisoners falls under three categories: SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 7, Section 7102, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (1) Detained. A prisoner who has been charged with an article of the UCMJ, but not convicted. (2) Adjudged. A prisoner who has been awarded a sentence from Courts-Martial. (3) Sentence. An authorized legal punishment awarded to an adjudged prisoner. g. The Corrections Specialist may also deal with the confinement of Enemy Prisoners of War (EPW). OPNAVINST 3461.6, Enemy Prisoners of War, Retained Personnel, Civilian Internees, and Other Detainees h. As First responders you may be required to provide first aid and/or CPR or execute crowd control procedures and forced cell movements to major incidents of noncompliant prisoners. Corrections specialists (ashore facilities only) can also be tasked with processing and supervising members awarded correctional custody via UCMJ Article 15, as well as carrying out any other special orders given by the Commanding Officer. OPNAVINST 1640.10, Chapter 3 Manual for Operation of a Navy Correctional Custody Unit (CCU) 2. Corrections Operations Ashore a. Shore Confinement Facility. A shore confinement facility is a place of confinement established as an activity, or at a local command of the shore establishment, and designated by the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) as a naval place of confinement. Shore brigs are further classified as follows: SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 2, Section 2101, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (1) Consolidated Brig/Level II Confinement Facility. Provide confinement and rehabilitation opportunities for prisoners who will be discharged or transferred to the United States Disciplinary Barracks (USDB) or to Federal prisons if

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their offenses and sentences, after the appellate process, allow such a transfer. Department of Defense (DoD) guidance reference(s), directs the maximum sentence length for a Level II Facility. Consolidated Brigs/Level II Confinement Facilities may provide local pretrial confinement, if economically warranted. Where economies and efficiencies are present, and through coordination with the DoD Corrections Council, COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1) or CMC (PSL Corrections) may designate facility classifications as appropriate. (2) Waterfront Brig/Level I Confinement Facility. Located on operating Navy or Marine Corps installations to service local needs and normally contain a correctional custody unit (CCU) and a short-term confinement facility that houses pretrial detainees; prisoners who will return to duty; or prisoners who are being discharged after serving short sentences, usually less than a year. Programs emphasize military discipline, training, work, and skills needed to succeed in the military environment. (3) Detention Facilities. Personnel may be detained in a detention space or a holding cell. COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1) or Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) (PSL Corrections) shall be notified in writing, via the chain of command, when a detention space or a holding cell has been established or disestablished. OPNAVINST 1640.9A, Chapter 2 Guide for Operation and Administration of Detention Facilities (4) Pretrial Confinement Facility. Pretrial Confinement Facilities may be established in areas where: a confinement facility is not readily accessible, there is a need for pretrial and very short-term post-trial confinement, average number of detainees/prisoners does not justify more than 20 confinement spaces, and the full range of correctional programs provided by confinement facilities is not required. Commander Navy Personnel Command (PERS-00D1) or Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) (PSL Corrections) shall establish programs and staffing guidance separately. These facilities, when designated by SECNAV as a naval place of confinement, may be used for extended pretrial confinement and, as a matter of necessity in some cases, post-trial confinement up to 30 days. b. Operations Department. Responsible for the daily operations of the brig.

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(1) Billet Titles and Functions. Following billet titles shall be used in preparing manpower authorizations and tables of organizations established for Marine Corps confinement facilities and Navy waterfront brigs/CCUs. Some titles vary at consolidated brigs due to unique specialization of billets. Those billet titles are separately approved by COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1). (a) Brig Duty Officer (Navy)/Duty Brig Supervisor (Marines). Brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor is responsible for supervising the security force, maintaining good order and discipline, carrying out the Plan of the Day, and ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners. When the Brig Officer is absent, the next senior staff member available is in charge of the general operation of the confinement facility watch during normal business hours; after normal business hours, the brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor is in charge. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5b), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (b) Control Center Supervisor. Control center supervisor is responsible to the brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor for maintaining the prisoner accountability and security system. This position is the hub of the communications system and coordinates information and activities concerning prisoners and prisoner movements. They are responsible for storage, issue, and inventory of security equipment such as keys, instruments of restraint, etc. Personnel selected for this post shall be carefully screened by the Brig Officer due to responsibilities and high demands associated with these duties. Additionally, the CCS is responsible for the execution of all emergency bills for the facility to include: Hostage, Escape, Riot, Fire, and Natural Disaster. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5d), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (c) Quarters Supervisor. Quarters supervisor is responsible to the brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor for maintenance of good order and discipline, sanitation, and accountability and welfare of prisoners in an assigned berthing area or special quarters. All berthing watchstanders report to the Quarters Supervisor, for example, block and dormitory supervisors. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5d), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual

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(d) Receiving and Release Supervisor. Receiving and release supervisor is responsible for processing prisoner intake and release; relevant records and supplies, including health and comfort (H&C) items; prisoner personal property; clothing issue; and storage. The R&R supervisor is the first point of contact for prisoners during intake to the facility; he/she is responsible for ensuring that all confinement and release paperwork is accurate and complete. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (4b), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (e) Correctional Custody Unit (CCU) Supervisor. When authorized and established, CCUs will be co-located at waterfront/Level 1 correctional facilities. Correctional custody is the most serious deprivation of liberty established as a punishment under UCMJ, article 15. UCMJ, article 15 is designed to be a means of disposing of minor infractions of discipline without having to stigmatize a service member with a court-martial conviction. Correctional custody in the Navy will attempt to correct negative attitudes and motivations of junior enlisted personnel through a regimen of hard work, offense-related programming, intensive counseling, and physical training. The correctional custody program, ideally, will emulate a well-run shipboard environment with staff personnel fulfilling leadership roles and acting as positive influences. It is designed to have the greatest positive impact on the first-term Sailor who has not yet fully developed self-discipline, a sense of responsibility, and an understanding of Navy's fundamental standards of acceptable behavior. Correctional custody is specifically designed for Sailors returning to duty and will not

ocessing. be used for personnel who are pending administrative prSECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 13, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual OPNAVINST 1640.10, Chapter 1 Manual for the Operation of a Correctional Custody Unit (CCU) c. Programs (1) Correctional Counselors (NEC 9516). Correctional counselors provide direct and indirect, individual and group counseling to no more than 40 prisoners and assist in their program development, performance, and evaluations. Where this person is a para-professional, problems requiring professional attention shall be referred, through the chain of command, to a professional with the required competency. Counselors have a variety of responsibilities, some of which include the following: computations, good conduct, earned time and

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special/work abatement, as well as being a liaison with the prisoner’s command and lawyer. MA OCCSTDS Functional Area: None. This NEC is specifically prohibited to Master-at-Arms (2) Training. Training supervisor is responsible for scheduling and providing staff and escort training and maintenance of staff training records. In smaller confinement facilities, this person may conduct prisoner reception and maintain prisoner training records. In smaller facilities, the training department will coordinate and supervise the Restoration program which is organized and equipped to provide selected offenders training with a view toward their honorable restoration to duty or possible reenlistment. COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1) and CMC (PSL Corrections) shall publish implementing policy by separate instruction. They also maintain a pre-release program for offenders being discharged from service which educates them how to become a productive member of society. An academic education program will be made available to all prisoners in confinement facilities that routinely hold prisoners in excess of 3 months. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 6, Section 6102.3, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (3) Work Details. Work supervisor is responsible for planning and coordinating of work projects and working parties employing prisoners. Major functions include maintaining liaison with area coordinators, installation commanders, and immediate superiors in command in identification and assignment of productive work projects suitable for prisoners; ensuring work parties are supervised by trained and qualified escorts; monitoring work parties on or away from the confinement facility; providing maintenance and general sanitation of confinement facilities and grounds; and coordinating employment of installation custody and minimum custody prisoners on individual assignments to other commands. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 6, Section 6309, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual d. Admin (1) Classification and Assignment. A C&A board shall be established at each confinement facility and shall be responsible for establishing the individual prisoner's program upon completion of orientation. C&A board is concerned with custody, work assignment, special training, and other phases of corrections such as the Incentive program, which is a system of

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incentives provided to encourage positive behavior. Incentives shall recognize both group and individual attainment. Awarding of incentives for prisoners shall be accomplished on a stringent and selective basis. Ultimate goals are to build self-discipline in the individual, reward positive behavior, and improve functioning of the confinement facility. This board shall be composed, at a minimum, of the next senior staff member to the CO/OIC, BRIG OFFICER, CPOIC or designated representative, one senior staff member from security, one from programs, and any other members appointed by the CO/OIC. At consolidated brigs, a mental health specialist and chaplain shall be assigned. In larger confinement facilities, C&A board may be established at the unit level where the prisoner is berthed. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 6, Section 6303, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (2) Disciplinary and Adjustment Board. A D&A Board will be convened for the purpose of evaluating all facts and circumstances surrounding alleged prisoner misconduct, infractions, violations of confinement facility rules, and make recommendations of punishment to the Commanding Officer. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 5, Section 5102 (4b), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (3) Funds and Valuables. Funds and valuables custodian/assistant shall collect, receipt for, and ensure safekeeping of prisoner personal funds and valuables. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (4f), Department of the Navy Corrections Manual 3. Corrections Operations Afloat a. Afloat. A ship’s brig is authorized for confinement of personnel attached to, or embarked in, a ship and may be used for periods of confinement of up to 30 days. Persons with a sentence by court-martial of 31 days or more confinement, or who are awarded a punitive discharge and confinement time as part of a court-martial sentence, shall be delivered to a shore confinement facility for confinement. Pretrial confinement onboard a vessel at sea may continue only until the individual can be transferred to a confinement facility ashore. Such transfer shall be accomplished at the earliest opportunity permitted by the operational requirements and mission of the vessel. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 11, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual

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OPNAVINST 1640.8A Manual for the Operation and Administration of Afloat Brigs b. Afloat Correction Facility Classification. Afloat brigs are operated in CVN, LHA, and LHD class ships. However, when authorized by Fleet Commanders, afloat confinement facilities may be operated in other smaller ships. OPNAVINST 1640.8A Chapter 2 Manual for the Operation and Administration of Afloat Brigs (1) Operations. Responsible for the daily operations of the ship’s brig. The shipboard Corrections Specialist will process and handle the confinement of adjudged, detained, and sentenced prisoners, as defined earlier, and may also deal with the confinement of Enemy Prisoners of War (EPW), see reference OPNAVINST 3461.6 or Army Regulation 190-8. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 11, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (a) Brig Officer. Brig Officer shall be a naval officer, but no other restrictions to this assignment apply. Brig Officer shall be appointed in writing by the Commanding Officer. OPNAVINST 1640.8A Chapter 3 Manual for the Operation and Administration of Afloat Brigs (b) Brig Supervisor. Brig supervisor is responsible for supervising brig staff, maintaining good order and discipline, carrying out plan-of-the-day, and ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 11, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (c) Control Center Supervisor. (Same as CCS ashore) Control center supervisor is responsible to the brig supervisor for maintaining the prisoner accountability and security system. This position is the hub of the communications system and coordinates information and activities concerning prisoners and prisoner movements. They are responsible for storage, issue, and inventory of security equipment such as keys, instruments of restraint, etc. Personnel selected for this post shall be carefully screened by the brig supervisor due to responsibilities and high demands associated with these duties. (d) Quarters Supervisor. Quarters supervisor is responsible to the brig supervisor for maintenance of good order

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and discipline, sanitation, and accountability and welfare of prisoners assigned to ships brig. SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 11, Department of the Navy Corrections Manual (e) Escorts. Escorts will be ship’s personnel assigned at an approximate ratio of one escort to three confined personnel, based on the average usage of the brig, and shall be trained at a local shore brig if a local shore facility is available. Escorts are responsible for movement and accountability of prisoners while outside the brig facility for activities such as prisoner going to chow, work outside the brig facility, and conduct physical training. OPNAVINST 1640.8A Manual for the Operation and Administration of Afloat Brigs 4. Detainee Operations. The Department of the Army has been designated as the Executive Agent in charge of all Detainee Operations. Specialized training identified by DOA provides guidance for Navy Detainee Operations. AIR FORCE INSTRUCTION 31-205 The Air Force Corrections System CJCSI 3290.01B Program for Detainee Operations DOD DIRECTIVE 2310.01 The Department of Defense Detainee Program DoD Directive 3115.09 DoD Intelligence Interrogations, Detainee Debriefings, and Tactical Questioning DOD INSTRUCTION 2310.4 Repatriation of Prisoners of War (POW), Hostages, Peacetime Government Detainees and Other Missing or Isolated Personnel DoD INSTRUCTION 2310.08E Medical Program Support for Detainee Operations 5. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. a. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). b. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7

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and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs as described in OPNAVINST 3300.55, and DODINST 2000.16. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments, and execution. c. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize, and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train, and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. d. Correctional Specialist Navy (NEC 9575 / 2008) (CIN A-831-0001) To provide selected Petty Officers (NEC 9575) and Master at Arms (NEC 2008) with a working knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are required for the administration, operation, and supervision of Navy Brigs/Correctional Custody Units. e. Brig Staff Afloat (CIN A-831-0003). To provide selected petty officers with a working knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are required for the administrating, operating, and supervising of Navy Brigs Afloat. 6. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by COMNAVSURFOR and COMNAVAIRFOR for the operation of Afloat Brigs. These lists are not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. 7. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Corrections and Detainee Operations

Chapter 5: Strategic Weapons Facilities 1. Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF) Mission. Provide security for national strategic assets at Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF) as approved by the Chief of Naval Operations in coordination with the Commandant of the Marine Corps, and, when directed, conduct other short term military and emergency operations. SWF locations include: a. Strategic Weapons Facility Pacific, Bangor, WA. b. Strategic Weapons Facility Atlantic, Kings Bay, GA. 2. Special Qualifications. Personnel assigned to SWF duty must be able to successfully pass a Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) screening and hold a Secret clearance. The purpose of the PRP is to prevent the possibility of an action that could lead to nuclear weapon damage or cause the unauthorized launch of a nuclear missile or the unauthorized detonation of a nuclear weapon. Qualifying standards for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) are as follows: physical competence, mental alertness, and financial responsibility, positive attitude toward nuclear weapons and nuclear components and good dependability. Disqualifying standards include but not limited to: drug abuse, alcohol abuse, financial irresponsibility, poor attitude/lack of motivation toward nuclear weapons and duty, negligence or delinquency in the performance of duty, conviction of or involvement in a serious incident, mental, emotional, or other significant medical condition, suicide attempt or threats and loss of confidence. Individuals assigned to PRP duties are responsible for monitoring the reliability of others performing PRP duties as well as their own at all times. SECNAVINST 5510.35, Nuclear Weapon Personnel Reliability Program 3. Organization. MAs assigned to a Marine Corps Security Force Battalion (MCSFBn) operate in conjunction with Marine Corps Security Forces under the operational control of the MCSFBn Commanding Officer (CO). The MCSFBn CO is responsible to the SWF CO for providing security personnel to secure the national strategic assets under his control in a Main Limited Area (MLA), a Waterfront Restricted Area (WRA), and an Explosive Handling

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Wharf (EHW). The SWF CO is responsible to Director of Strategic Systems Programs (SSP) for overall policy, maintenance and security of his command. Application of security policies and procedures are accomplished by qualified individuals to assist the CO in positions as noted below: a. Administrative positions. (1) Company Commander: Responsible for the overall operation of guard force personnel (Navy and Marine) and the execution of MCSFBn missions in all Areas of Responsibility (AOR). (2) Company Executive Officer: Assists the Guard Officer in coordination and control of guard force personnel and all matters pertaining to the administrative/logistical support, training, and employment of the guard force personnel. (3) Company Clerk: Assist the Guard Chief with administrative/logistical support and database entry of all required training and employment of the guard force personnel.

XO

MCSF BNNORFOLK SWFPAC

USMCADMIN

OPERATIONSLOGISTICS

SAFETY

Special Staff

NAVYADMIN

NBC

LA

ORIENTATION

WRA

BAECONTRACTSUPPORT

MILITARYWORKING

DOGS

WRASECTION

A

RECAPTURETACTICS

TEAM

HARBORSECURITY

BOATS

WRASECTION

B

LASECTION

A

LASECTION

B

SUPPLY

MOTORTRANSPORT

COMM ARMORY

SENIOR NAVAL

OFFICER

Marine Corps Security Force BattalionOrganization

SGTMAJMACM

PRP

MED

CO

UNCLASSIFIED

LegendOPCONADCONDirect Support

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b. Operational positions. (1) Sentries (a) Tower Sentry. Provides and maintains continuous security and surveillance of the Main Limited Areas (MLA) and the surrounding vicinity, clear zones, and immediate airspace; and uses surveillance equipment such as night vision goggles, spotlights, and infrared cameras to visually assess perimeter Electronic Security Surveillance (ESS) alarms. Provides situational reports of all suspected or actual unauthorized activity/personnel to guard force supervisory personnel. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (b) Vehicle Inspection Sentry (VIS). Conducts a thorough inspection of all exterior/interior vehicles, contents, and compartments entering and exiting the MLA, WRA and EHW. Equipment to assist sentries in their mission will include, but is not limited to, itemizer/vapor tracers, mirrors, and overhead and undercarriage video cameras. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (c) Roof Sentry. Provides lookout for hostile aircraft and cover for operating forces at ground level by scanning surrounding areas. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (d) Security Response Teams (SRT). A continuous mobile vehicle patrol which provides physical security of alarmed structures and is responsible for initial response to security alerts in their assigned areas. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (e) Entry Control Point (ECP) Sentry. Controls entry and exit of all personnel, material, equipment, and vehicles; and provides deterrence, detection, and denial in order to prevent sabotage or destruction of strategic assets. The ECP sentry may operate electronic handheld personnel identification devices, metal detectors, itemizers/vapor tracer, fixed lighting, and various delay/denial and entry/exit mechanical systems. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (f) Temporary Entry Control Point (TECP)/Escort Sentry. Sets up temporary ECPs and controls all entry/exit of personnel, material and vehicles at restricted areas/structures,

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or when additional measures are required to support equipment/structural maintenance. During an accident/incident, escort sentries may be used to escort outer agency emergency response personnel into restricted areas and may be manned during increased threat conditions. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (g) Alarm Monitor/Control Center- Responsible for monitoring and operating the ESS equipment, cameras, and secure communication systems. Dispatches and assists the AOR Supervisors in the deployment of guard force personnel to all potential/actual threats to national strategic assets and structures. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (2) Supervisors (a) Company Officer of the Day (COD). Directly responsible for coordination and execution of guard force personnel and resources between all MCSFBn AORs. Contacts and coordinates with CO’s subordinate units, tenant commands and outside supporting agencies. Serves as the direct representative of the MCSFBn CO regarding all personnel and security matters. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (b) Officer of the Day (OOD). Responsible to the MCSFBn CO via the Company Officer of the Day (COD) for the efficient functioning and employment of guard force personnel within their applicable AOR. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (c) Assistant Officer of the Day (AOOD). Assists the OOD with the efficient functioning and employment of guard force personnel within their applicable AOR. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (d) Division Commanders. Responsible to the MCSFBn CO for the training, discipline, and administration of their divisions. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (e) Static Post Supervisor (SPS). Supervises/directs static posts and SRTs within their applicable AOR. Assists the OOD and the Sergeant of the Guard (SOG) during security alerts/incidents. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS

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(f) Assistant Static Post Supervisor (ASPS). Assists the SPS for the efficient functioning of static posts and SRTs within their AOR. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS (g) TECP Petty Officer in Charge (POIC). Responsible to the SPS for the training, guard mount, deployment, and supervision of all TECP sentries. COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS c. Operational support positions: (1) Armorer. Responsible for the issue and accountability, and minor maintenance of all mission associated weapons. OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (2) Supply/Logistics. Responsible for receipt/issue and accountability of all organizational clothing, Nuclear-Biological-Chemical (NBC) gear and tactical gear. 3. Asset Protection. The primary mission of MAs assigned to SWFs is the protection of national strategic assets. The following additional defense in-depth postures are utilized to provide for the protection: a. Harbor Security Boats (HSB). Assigned to MCSFBN, coxswains and gunners are responsible for ensuring the integrity and security of restricted waterways, beaches, and the facilities within the WRA and will respond to all potential or actual threats. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.10, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 – 7.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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b. Military Working Dogs (MWD). Assigned to MCSFBN, handlers and their MWD are responsible for explosives and intruder detection and act as a deterrent in all AORs. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 5585.2B Military Working Dog Manual OPNAVINST 5585.1 Single Manager for DoD Military Working Dog Program DoD Directive 5200.31E DoD Military Working Dog Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations 3. Weapons. A variety of weapons are utilized to ensure appropriate amount of deterrence and firepower is readily available to engage a specific, identified threat. a. Typical weapons utilized by security force personnel: (1) M16 service rifle

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(2) M500 shotgun (3) M9 9MM service pistol (4) M240 medium machine gun (5) M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) (6) M2HB .50 caliber heavy machine gun (7) M203 grenade launcher (8) MK19 40MM automatic grenade launcher (9) M67 fragmentation hand grenade (10) M7A2 CS riot control hand grenade 4. Training. The training requirements of an MA assigned to a SWF are extensive. A SWF MA can be expected to receive continuous training in addition to Naval Security Force Sustainment Training: a. General Training: OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (1) Use of Force/Deadly Force (2) Weapons handling, weapons safety, general weapons data, weapons exchange procedures. (3) Entry Control Point (ECP) (a) Personnel Identification (b) Package Inspections (c) Vehicle Inspections (4) Personnel internal movement control (5) Overview and characteristics of ESS operations/duress systems (6) Communications

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(7) Adversary motivations and objectives (8) Security awareness/vigilance (9) Recognition of Sabotage b. Security Skills: (1) Qualification with primary weapons (2) Rules of engagement (3) Operation of surveillance equipment (Night vision/ range finders/Forward Looking Infrared/spotlights (4) Tactical Antiterrorism response (5) Field tactics (6) Small unit combat tactics (7) Surveillance/detection (8) Site defense plan (9) Airborne threat engagement (10) Escort vehicle procedures (11) Emergency preparedness and response (a) Bomb threat response (b) Hostage situation (c) Civil disturbances c. Transportation Security: (1) Convoy techniques (2) General action to threats (3) Isolation of shipments (4) Emergency action procedures

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(5) Emergency transfer of shipments d. Specialized training: (1) Recapture/recovery tactics (2) Combat first aid/CPR (3) Armored vehicle operator (a) High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle (HMMV) (b) Bearcat

(4) Marine Corps Martial Arts Program (MCMAP)/Empty hand combat (5) Force on Force/Practical Applications to engage an enemy force (6) Marine Corps Basic Security Guard Course (7) Second Class Swimmer (8) Level 1 Combat Coxswain (CIN R-062-0028) (9) Boat Operator ATFP Training (CIN A-062-0050) (9) Federal Law Enforcement Training Center (FLETC) Security Coxswain e. Supervisor training (in addition to above): (1) Motivation of security personnel (2) Evaluation of intelligence (3) Emergency reporting

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(4) USMC Leadership Course f. SWF has a requirement for several Naval Enlisted Classifications (NEC) to accomplish the above training requirements: (1) Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (2) Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (3) Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) 5. Collateral Duties a. The following collateral duties will be performed by SWF security force personnel: (1) Training Petty Officer/Supervisor (2) Range Safety Officer (RSO) 6. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your command mission. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW OPNAV 1500.75 Series. b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses, reporting, special operations and supplementary examinations. c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-830-0019). Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the

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knowledge and skills needed for patrol and detector dogs. Training includes search techniques in buildings, aircraft, vehicles, warehouses, and open areas. Also includes maintenance of dogs' proficiency, legal aspects of searches, security and procurement of drug training aids, maintenance of kennels and equipment, explosives safety, and procurement and security of explosive training aids. d. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management and teaching techniques. e. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics at all ashore facilities and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course. f. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew-served weapons operator and the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training. g. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. h. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above),

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constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. i. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. j. Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. k. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). l. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT/ATTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. m. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as

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Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and execution. n. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. o. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy and crime prevention. p. Level II Coxswain – Operations and Tactics (CIN A-062-0050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is designed to train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF). Tactical boat operations include interdiction, screening, herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, anti-swimmer techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense around shipping and other objects designated as vital to national security. Day and night underway evolutions are conducted on various security craft and the course culminates in a final battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing force craft. q. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The student will learn the knowledge, skills and proper procedures necessary to record and manage ammunition assets. Training

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includes the generation and management of records relating to requisitions, receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory management and control, Notice of Ammunition Reclassifications (NARS), ammunition reporting, and other pertinent technical safety information. r. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Force Protection duties. In Surveillance Detection; allowing commands to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program. To train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup and conduct overt surveillance detection operations, comply with DoD standardized reporting procedures, and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include Surveillance Detection Program overview, Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix, conducting a Target Analysis, Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well. s. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) (Local/Regional). This course is designed to train licensed personnel to operate an emergency vehicle (EV) in varying circumstances and conditions. Covers legal topics relating to EV operation, physical factors that affect EV operation, and vehicle specific requirements. Qualification requires successful navigation through tight turns and maneuvers while operating an EV under simulated emergency conditions. t. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) Instructor (CIN A-493-0203). The course is a set of activities/topics in the classroom and on the driving range which cover: Emergency Vehicle Operation, Due Regard while Operating an Emergency Vehicle, Concepts of Managing Visibility and Time, Classroom and Range Procedures, Adult Learning Techniques, Driving Range set up, Testing techniques, Certification/Re-certification Process and Risk related to the driving task. u. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The course provides training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional system development process, preparation and use of training documents, instructional aids and materials, and student measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan,

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develop, and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or performance methods of instruction. 7. Qualifications The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, and 3M) appropriate with rank. a. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9) 301 – Antiterrorism Watch Officer b. Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E) 301 – Sentry 302 – Reaction Force Member 303 – Reaction Force Team Leader 304 – Antiterrorism Training Supervisor 305 – Chief of the Guard 306 – Antiterrorism Training Team Member 307 – Antiterrorism Officer c. Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D) (Varies depending on specific duties) d. Small Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F) 301 - Bow Hook and Stern Hook 302 - Small Boat Engineer 303 - Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) Coxswain 304 - Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (11m RHIB) Coxswain 305 - Small Boat Officer 8. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by SSP. These lists are not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. 9. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Security Operations Note: Guard Orders listed can be found on station at SWF Commands.

Chapter 6: Strategic Aircraft Security 1. TACAMO History a. TACAMO is a U.S. military term meaning "Take Charge and Move Out.” TACAMO refers to a system of survivable communication links designed to be used in nuclear war to maintain communications between decision makers, National Command Authority (NCA), and the triad of strategic nuclear weapon delivery systems. CJCS OPORD 2-CY Annex K, Paragraph 2 (CLASSIFIED) 2. Components

a. The U.S. Navy Strategic Communications Wing One based at

Tinker Air Force Base (AFB), OK, contains two operational and one training Fleet Air Reconnaissance Squadrons (FAIRECONRON) VQ-3, VQ-4 and VQ-7, respectively. Commander Strategic Communications Wing 1 (CSCW-1) is under the operational control of Commander, United States Strategic Command (CDRUSSTRATACOM). The Wings Alert TACAMO Relay missions are conducted at Travis AFB, CA, on the West Coast and at NAS Patuxent River, MD, on the East Coast. The Wing also performs the USSTRATCOM Airborne Command Post (ABNCP) alert mission at Offutt AFB, NE.

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3. Mission. TACAMO E-6 Mercury aircraft and personnel provide sustained survivable command, control, and communications support in the execution of war plans from the President, Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to the nation’s nuclear forces. CJCS OPORD 2-CY Annex K, Paragraph 2 (CLASSIFIED) 4. E-6B Aircraft Specifications E-6B Mercury Introduced in 1997 to VQ-3 Wing span: 145 feet, 9 inches Length: 153 feet Height: 42 feet, 5 inches Weight at gross takeoff: 342,000 pounds Ceiling: 42,000 feet, patrol altitude: 25,000-30,000 feet Speed: 512 knots Range unrefueled: 6,700 nautical miles with 16 hours on-station endurance Power plant: CFM International F-108-CF-100 (CFM 56-24-2) turbofan engines Crew: Four flight crew, five mission crew Contractor: Boeing

Ref: Aircraft characteristics obtained from Naval Aviation History Office website. 5. TACAMO Security Force Mission. The Navy Security Force provides continual physical security for all Fleet Air Reconnaissance Squadron (TACAMO) aircraft under its protection, and assists in facilitating the security required to safeguard the command and control of the nation’s nuclear forces. AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 14 Paragraph 14.1, 14.3, & 14.5

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6. Organization. The TACAMO community works closely with the Air Force under Navy Chain of Command. A brief synopsis of TACAMO security can be compared with sentry functions guarding one particular asset. a. Strategic Communications Wing One/Task Force 124 (1) Commodore (2) Deputy Commodore (3) Wing Department Heads (a) Administration (b) Operations (Security and Antiterrorism fall under the Operations Officer) (c) Logistics and Supply (d) Communications b. FAIRECONRON Three, Four, and Seven Squadrons (1) Commanding Officer (2) Executive Officer (3) Administration (4) Maintenance (5) Operations (6) Security CSCW-1 Instruction 5400.1C Enclosure 1, Section 3, Paragraph 2328, 2333, & 2334 c. FAIRECONRON Detachments Three and Four SCW-1 Detachment Offutt. (Reports to the squadron chain of command of applicable squadron) (1) Officer in Charge (2) Assistant Officer in Charge (3) Security Officer (SECO). In addition to normal duties, the SECO approves Compound Entry Access Lists (EAL). OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force Employment and Operations NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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(4) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). Responsible for managing the AT program and coordination of all AT planning. OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism (AT) Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Antiterrorism NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 6, Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force Protection d. Security Department Divisions (1) Operations. Conducts day to day watchstanding and patrol functions. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program (a) Operations Chief (b) Watch Commanders. Responsible to the Operations Chief for oversight of all watch operations 1. Brief daily Alert Launch Numbers and Duress Word 2. Brief Aircraft Status 3. Conduct communications inventory and operational functions check 4. Validate and distribute EAL OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 9 Paragraph 9.10 NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.4, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (c) Patrol Supervisors. Responsible to the Watch Commander to complete forms and reports and conduct daily guard mount. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 9 Paragraph 9.10 NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.6, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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(d) Dispatchers. Duties include: 1. Completes Desk Journal entries 2. Makes command notifications 3. Liaises with base security and local law enforcement 4. Liaises with Air Traffic Control Tower 5. Completes forms and reports 6. Monitors communication equipment 7. Dispatches Response Forces 8. Monitors Intrusion Detection System OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.5, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.5, 5, Appendix C.4, M, N, Q, R, S, & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (e) Duty Armorers. Duties require qualification as Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor, NEC 0812. Additionally, they: 1. Qualify personnel on weapons 2. Complete Weapons paperwork 3. Perform as Range Safety officers 4. Manage Ready for Issue equipment 5. Inventory, issue, and receive Arms and Ammunition 6. Supervise clearing barrel procedures OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (f) Field Training Officers (FTO). Conduct section training on: 1. Daily guard mount 2. Information Gathering and Incident Reporting 3. Rules of Engagement (ROE) and Use of Force Continuum (UoF) 4. Vehicle Inspection and Entry Control Procedures 5. Interpersonal Communications 6. Situational Awareness

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OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program Manual for Courts-Martial, United States NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.5, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S, T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (g) Sentries. Sentry duties include: 1. Verify credentials against EAL 2. Use sign/countersign for aircrew access 3. Use 10 codes and other means of communication 4. Respond to Security Alerts 5. Conduct Searches 6. Conduct Administrative Vehicle Inspections 7. Conduct Random Antiterrorism Measures NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 thru 5.3.8, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Antiterrorism OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R, S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (h) Reaction Force. Reaction Force duties include: 1. Respond to Security Alerts 2. Establish cover and concealment 3. Perform tactical movements 4. Establish incident perimeter 5. Secure egress/ingress routes 6. Evacuate non-essential personnel 7. Conduct search 8. Request back-up 9. Challenge and engage 10. Apprehend and detain 11. Conduct escorts 12. Secure weapons and evidence OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.11, Antiterrorism NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 8, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines

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NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8, 5, Appendix B, K, L, Q, R, & T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (i) Alert Area Entry Controllers 1. Control entry to alert compound 2. Conduct credential check of personnel entering alert area 3. Verify credentials of personnel listed on the EAL and those requiring escort 4. Conduct vehicle and package searches, as required, of personnel and vehicles entering the area AFI 31-101 (FOUO), Chapters 9 & 14 DoD S5210.41M, Chapter 16 (Classified) (j) Aircraft Close-In-Sentry/Entry Controller 1. Control entry to the close in security area of the aircraft 2. Ensure all aircrew/battlestaff personnel entering close in area are on EAL 3. Enforce 2-person policy within the area for ABNCP configured aircraft 4. Maintain constant surveillance over all approaches of the close in area 5. Notify dispatch and request armed response in the event of an emergency (suspicious activity, invalid badge, etc.) AFI 31-101 (FOUO), Chapters 9 & 14 DoD S5210-41M, Chapter 16 (Classified) (k) Close Boundary Sentry 1. Maintain constant surveillance over all approaches to the close in area 2. Notify dispatch and request armed response in the event of an emergency (suspicious activity, invalid badge, etc.) 3. Attempt to apprehend/detain personnel attempting unauthorized entry to enter the area by way of the boundary and not ECP 4. Enforce 2-person policy within the area for ABNCP configured aircraft AFI 31-101 (FOUO), Chapters 9 & 14 DoD S5210-41M, Chapter 16 (Classified)

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(l) Watch sections 1. Review post orders 2. Stand post per post orders (2) Training/Planning. Manage the command security and AT training, the Field Training Officer (FTO) and Personnel Qualification System (PQS) programs; plans, conducts, and assesses security force drills; coordinates training and security planning with other services and agencies; trains security forces; reviews, plans, and analyzes command security and crises management capabilities; conducts vulnerability assessments; prepares operating budgets; develops security requirements for new construction; develops standard operating procedures, post orders and memorandums of agreement. In addition to standard training topics, the following areas are included: (a) National Defense Areas (b) Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (c) Chemical, Biological, Radiological Defense (d) Airfield Licensing OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 – 3.5, Antiterrorism NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 2 & Chapter 6, Force Protection Weapons Handling Procedure and Guidelines (3) Administration. Conducts routine Administrative Division duties (4) Physical Security (a) Physical Security Plans (b) Physical Security Surveys (c) Vulnerability Assessments (d) Key Control OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 2, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix P, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (5) Supply. Conducts routine Supply Division duties

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7. Security Force Member Requirements: a. Rated Master-at-Arms (MA) b. Complete Security Reactionary Force (SRF) Basic course (Required only if MA “A” School completed prior to September 2006) OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Paragraph 0601, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program c. Successfully screen for the Personal Reliability Program d. Obtain/Maintain a Secret clearance SECNAVINST 5510.35A Enclosure 23 SECNAVMAN 5510.30 Chapter 6, Paragraph 6-8n (2) 8. Deployment Operations a. Team Composition: (1) Team Leader (2) Team Members b. Pre-deployment requirements: (1) Team roster and muster report (2) Number of aircraft deploying (3) Multiple Threat Alert Center (MTAC) notice and area specific AT brief (4) Establish ROE and UoF (5) Establish points of contact (6) Serial number inventory of weapons (7) Lot number inventory of ammunition (8) Inventory communications equipment c. In Transit: (1) Pre-stage weapons and ammunition (2) Individual gear check (3) Team gear check (4) Security gear check (5) Communications check (if approved in flight) (6) Secure EAL Mission Commander (7) Guard mount brief (8) Area threat assessment (9) MTAC alerts (10) State department warnings

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(11) ROE and UoF brief (12) Watch bill dissemination (13) Liberty limits and/or boundaries d. Upon Arrival: (1) Disembark (2) Establish aircraft security perimeter (3) Post sentries AFI 31-101 (FOUO), PARTS 1, 2, & 3 DoD S5210.41M (Classified) Chapter 16, Paragraph C16.7.1 – C16.7.1.3 OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program 9. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your command mission. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series. b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses, reporting, special operations and supplementary examinations. c. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor, for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force,

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weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management and teaching techniques. d. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, and the M240 Series Machine Gun, as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics, at all ashore facilities and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course. e. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command anti-terrorism (AT) watch standers as a crew served weapons operator and the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in the development and conduct AT exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training. f. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. g. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. h. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. i. Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, it's mission, and it's crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at a air facility from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency

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conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. j. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). k. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and assist with Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties; to include armed sentry watch-standing procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness, to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. l. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DOD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DOD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and execution. m. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for

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assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. n. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The Security First Responder Course is designed to provide the patrol officer responding to various law enforcement/crisis situations on Naval installations with effective techniques for dealing with such situations. Some major topics include: Use of Force, Building Searches, Domestic Violence, Apprehension, Serious Incident Response and Crimes in Progress. o. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy and crime prevention. p. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism / Force Protection duties. In Surveillance Detection allowing commands to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program. To train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup and conduct overt surveillance detection operations, comply with DoD standardized reporting procedure s, and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include Surveillance Detection Program overview, Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix, conducting a Target Analysis, Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well. q. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) (Local/Regional). This course is designed to train licensed personnel to operate an emergency vehicle (EV) in varying circumstances and conditions. Covers legal topics relating to EV operation, physical factors that affect EV operation, and vehicle specific requirements. Qualification requires

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successful navigation through tight turns and maneuvers while operating an EV under simulated emergency conditions. r. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) Instructor (CIN A-493-0203). The course is a set of activities/topics in the classroom and on the driving range which cover: Emergency Vehicle Operation, Due Regard while Operating an Emergency Vehicle, Concepts of Managing Visibility and Time, Classroom and Range Procedures, Adult Learning Techniques, Driving Range set up, Testing techniques, Certification / Re-certification Process and Risk related to the driving task. s. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). Provides training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional system development process, preparation and use of training documents, instructional aids and materials, and student measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or performance methods of instruction. 10. Qualifications The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, and 3M) appropriate with rank. a. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9) 301 – Antiterrorism Watch Officer b. Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E) 301 – Sentry 302 – Reaction Force Member 303 – Reaction Force Team Leader 304 – Antiterrorism Training Supervisor 305 – Chief of the Guard 306 – Antiterrorism Training Team Member 307 – Antiterrorism Officer c. Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D) (Varies depending on specific duties) 11. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by STRATCOMWING. This list is not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks.

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12. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Security Operations

Chapter 7: Protective Service Operations 1. Introduction. a. Protective operations are an integral part of the NCIS mission and provide a vital service to the Department of the Navy (DON), the Department of Defense (DoD), and the United States Government. The term “protective operations” is generally defined to be all security and law enforcement measures taken to identify threats or vulnerabilities to specific principals and to provide security for those principals. This ranges from personal security training to the assignment of a Personal Security Detail (PSD). NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-1b, Protective Operations 2. Authority. a. NCIS is the executive agent for all Protective Service matters within the DON. As such, NCIS executes exclusive jurisdiction and authority to conduct and coordinate Protective Service Operations for designated DON High Risk Billets (HRB) and other designated individuals except as otherwise authorized by a Combatant Commander. In addition, NCIS performs the following related functions: SECNAVINST 5430.107, Paragraph 7.b.(11), Mission and Function of the Naval Criminal Investigative Service (1) Participates in the review and validation of DON HRBs as Subject Matter Experts. (2) Conducts Personal Security Vulnerability Assessments for designated DON HRBs to determine the level of risk and vulnerability from terrorist or criminal activities and to determine the appropriate level of protection. (3) Executes primary jurisdiction within the DON for support to the United States Secret Service and to DoD and non-DoD agencies conducting Protective Service Operations for U.S. government and foreign Officials. 3. Protection Detail Establishment. a. NCIS protective operations program involves a wide range of support to DON, DoD, and non-DoD agencies. Protective operations may be undertaken for the following reasons:

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(1) When recommended by a Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment. A PSVA is an assessment to determine the vulnerability of a particular individual to attack. It identifies specific areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, or deter acts of violence or terrorism against the individual. PSVAs are initiated within 90 days of an official’s assignment to a permanent High Risk Billet (HRB) and will be reviewed annually and updated by threat, vulnerabilities, or terrorism threat level changes. (2) Due to an increase in the general threat within an area or region. (3) In response to a specific threat to an individual. (4) Following a request for support from DoD, DON, or another U.S. Government agency. (5) In response to special circumstances or events (when approved by NCISHQ). NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-1, Protective Operations DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2.7, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel 4. Designation of High Risk Billets (HRB). a. HRB - Authorized personnel billets based on grade, assignment, travel itinerary, or symbolic value may make a person filling it an attractive or accessible target to terrorists. HRBs are normally reserved for the rank of General, Admiral, or Senior Executive Service equivalent assigned in a country with a Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) terrorist threat level of “Significant” or higher. DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel (1) Note: High Risk Personnel (HRP) in combat zones and areas outside of the United States where contingency or expeditionary operations are underway which are not limited HRP protection and do not require prior authorization for protective support. Commands located in a combat environment may use military personnel serving at their command to provide protection for HRPs. Sailors serving in these Combat Security Elements (CSE) do not require the 2009 NEC. DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel

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5. High Risk Personnel. a. There are three levels of HRPs. Each level is assigned varying degrees of protection based upon the threat associated with the HRP to include PSD support. (PSDs are trained and armed protective security officials capable of providing continuous protection for a designated individual.) Description of the HRP protection levels are provided below: (1) HRP Level One Protection - PSD support provided to an official who requires continuous protection as recommended by the Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment (PSVA). DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel (2) HRP Level Two Protection - PSD support provided to an official who requires protection during periods of official duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA. (3) HRP Level Three Protection - Support provided to an official who requires advanced individual antiterrorism awareness and personal protection training. 6. Permanent HRBs. DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E3, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel a. The following positions are designed as permanent level 1 protection HRBs: (1) Secretary of Defense (2) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (3) Deputy Secretary of Defense b. The following Permanent positions may be Level 1 or 2 designated based on approval of the Deputy Secretary of Defense: (1) Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (2) Secretaries of the Military Departments (3) Service Chiefs (4) Combatant Commanders

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(5) Director, National Security Agency

7. Protection Providing Organization. (PPO) a. The term PPO refers collectively to the various DoD entities authorized to carry out protective operation missions and includes the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (CID), the Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS), the U.S. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI), the Defense Criminal Investigative Service (DCIS), the Pentagon Force Protection Agency (PFPA), and the National Security Agency (NSA). DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel b. NCIS is the PPO for the DON and is responsible to ensure Master-at-Arms performing protection have successfully completed the military occupational specialty or classification training required for PSSs. This training is provided by NCIS and includes the Protective Service Operations Training Program at the Federal Law Enforcement Training Center in Glynco, Georgia and the United States Army PSD School at Fort Leonard Wood, Missouri. Credentials are also issued by NCIS at the local field office in which a person performs assigned duties via NCISHQ. 8. Protective Service Details (PSD). a. A PSD is the highest level of protection afforded in a graduated response to increasing threat and vulnerability and is activated when there is a credible threat that the principal is a specific target. b. PSD is a full-time operation, requiring 24-hour-a-day, 7-day-a-week coverage. The PSD will accompany the principal at all times, whether on official or personal business. Whenever possible PSDs use armored vehicle support, command posts, vehicle trackers, personal body armor (for the PSD and the principal), and a full range of NCIS weapons and technical support. NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-12 A-C, Protective Operations DoD O-2000.22, NEED CHAPTER/PARAGRAPH, Designation and Physical Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel

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9. PSD Structure. a. Protective operations encompass a varying range of personnel and techniques including walking formations and motorcade movements. When resources allow, the suggested minimum protective support package for a motorcade is comprised of the following five positions: NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-14, Protective Operations (1) Personal Security Advisor (PSA) - The PSA is a critical element of the NCIS Protective Operations Program. After the completion of a PSVA that recommends PSA support, NCISHQ will select an NCIS Special Agent PSA. PSA responsibilities vary with the nature of each protective billet. The primary role of the PSA, as the name implies, is that of an advisor. The PSA is the NCIS conduit and focal point for the flow of NCIS information and support relative to the personal security of the principal. The operational functions of the PSA are as provided: NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-11 A(1-6), Protective Operations (a) Provide security advice to the principal, family and staff (b) Provide “close-in” personal security for the principal as required (c) Provide liaison between the principal, NCIS and U.S. and foreign law enforcement and intelligence agencies (d) Provide security support (using sound law enforcement principals) by resolving minor incidents and supporting the cover and evacuation of the principal in major incidents (e) Designate responsibilities for personnel who are supporting the PSAs Protective Operations, whether full-time or temporarily (f) Serve as the Detail Leader for assigned protective service support personnel (2) Limo Driver - Sets the pace for the motorcade and is under the tactical control of the Shift Leader. The Limo Driver follows the commands of the Shift Leader and changes lanes only when directed. It is essential that the Limo Driver maintain complete control of the vehicle at all times and ensure the ride

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is as smooth as possible. The Limo Driver must be intimately familiar with the motorcades routes (primary and alternate), locations of hospitals, safe havens, and any other information pertinent to the movement. NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-16, Protective Operations (3) Follow Driver – Responsible for driving the vehicle directly behind the limo and primarily uses his/her vehicle to screen and block traffic. The follow vehicle can also be used as an evacuation platform in the event the limo is disabled. Because the Follow Driver could assume the role of Limo Driver at any time he/she must be equally as knowledgeable of all motorcade routes and information. (4) Shift Leader - While the PSA has overall supervision and responsibility for the protective detail, the Shift Leader has tactical control of the detail. The Shift Leader will determine speed of vehicles (based on input from the Limo Driver/PSA), the use of emergency equipment, the need for blocking, and will direct the motorcade to take evasive actions hen necessary. w (5) Advance - The Advance is the eyes and ears of the detail prior to the principal’s arrival. He/she is responsible for coordinating all security activities, plans and arrangements prior to and in connection with the visit of a principal to a given area. The Advance is also responsible for conducting a ite survey of destinations prior to the principal’s arrival. s 10. Protective Walking Formations. NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-15, Protective Operations a. Once the motorcade arrives at its destination some members of the PSD may be required to dismount the vehicles and escort the principal by foot. Walking formations are dependent on the threat, the availability of personnel, the venue type (secure vice unsecured), and the desires of the PSA/principal. The proximity of protective personnel to the principal will vary depending on the situation. If the principal is moving through a crowd, protective personnel will be closer to the principal. On the other hand, if the principal is in an open area with little pedestrian traffic, protective personnel may need to spread out. Generally, the PSA will always be within an arms reach of the principal when traveling outside of a secured location. The following are the basic types of walking formations:

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(1) Single Escort (PSA) – Protective team member at the right and rear of the principal. (2) Wedge – One protective team member is at the point (lead), one protective team member is at the rear and left of the principal, and the PSA is at the rear and right of the principal. (3) Diamond – The four protective team members are placed in a diamond placement (front, rear, left, right) around the PSA and principal. (4) Defensive Circle – Protective team members are facing outward, arms interlocked (usually for severe crowd situations). (5) Cave In - Protective team members are facing inward and providing cover from airborne objects. (6) Fence–line (modified diamond) – a one-dimensional formation when the principal works a rope-line or fence-line. As the formation approaches the fence line, the point and left flank will be to the left of the principal, with the right flank and rear coming to the right of the principal. The PSA will remain behind the principal, watching the crowd’s interaction. If working a fence line is scheduled or anticipated, it is a good idea to place one or two protective personnel in the crowd, coming through the crowd parallel with the protective detail. b. Walking Formation Guidelines. (1) The detail needs to provide 360-degree security regardless of detail size. (2) The site Advance Agent (when available) will lead the detail during walking movements. (3) The Shift Leader is the tactical control of the formation. The Shift Leader makes sure the gaps are filled, personnel are repositioned as needed, and sets the dispersion of the formation. (4) PSS should continually be thinking about what actions they will take should an attack occur. In the event of an attack upon the principal, PSDs will respond with the following action chain consisting of four main actions. The

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names for those actions are Arm’s Reach, Sound Off, Cover, and Evacuate. (a) Arm’s Reach - If the attacker is within an Arm’s Reach (0-7 feet) of the agent, the PSS should move to disable/neutralize the threat. The remainder of the team will cover and evacuate the principal. (b) Sound-Off - Identify the threat by sounding off with the type of threat and direction it is coming from. When identifying the threat yell what it is (i.e., gun, knife, etc.). Use the standard 12-hour clock positions to identify the direction of the threat (12:00 o'clock is always the direction of movement of the Principle) to identify where the threat is coming from. (c) Cover - Protect the principal with any and all resources available. (d) Evacuate - Expeditiously remove the principal from the area of the threat. 1 Note: The PSD’s primary duty is to ensure the safety of the principal, not to arrest or apprehend the attackers. c. Teamwork is essential. Protective personnel should train together whenever possible. If time permits, team members should walk through a few situations prior to starting a detail. d. While working protective operations in general PSS must constantly be alert to any danger signs and, therefore, must be looking outward and not at the principal. This requires concentration and practice. Personnel working a protective operation must not only become familiar with the habits and idiosyncrasies of the principal. But also be familiar with the behavior and reactions of their fellow support personnel. When accompanying a principal, protective operations personnel must remember the following points: NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-14, Protective Operations (1) Protect yourself in order to protect the principal. (2) Your stance should be focused toward the crowd. (3) Know your initial reaction to a physical assault.

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(4) Learn the behavior and impulsive mannerisms of the principal. 11. Master-at-Arms. NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-13, Protective Operations a. Navy Master-at-Arms (MA) who have been trained in Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving (CIN A-840-0001) are assigned the Navy Enlisted (NEC) 2009 Protective Service Specialists (PSS) and are operationally assigned to NCIS offices that have a protective operations mission. b. In instances where MAs are assigned to NCIS, they report directly to the NCIS Personal Security Advisor (PSA). PSS duties include PSD member, security driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles), site advances, protective surveillance, command post functions, and other security related duties as assigned. Trained and experienced PSSs may also be used as Shift Leaders, at the PSA’s discretion. c. When MAs are assigned to a NCIS Protective operations billet, it is the responsibility of NCIS to provide their workspace, annual training, and other administrative functions. PSSs will follow existing NCIS policies regarding weapons and qualifications, use of force, government vehicle policy, etc. 12. Required Training: a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series. b. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force

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Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. c. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. d. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. e. Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving (NEC 2009) (CIN A-840-0001). Provide training in protective services to personnel who conduct Protective Service missions for executive level DoD leaders who are potential targets of terrorism. 13. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical tasks required by NCIS. This list is not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. 14. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Security Operations

Chapter 8: Staff Duty 1. Overview. Principle advisors to the Commander for all Anti-terrorism/Force Protection matters and public safety concerns. 2. Screening. Personnel desiring assignment to staff duty must complete the Flag Officer (Staff) Duty Screening in accordance with MILPERSMAN 1306-945. 3. Location. Staff tour locations vary by assignment. Several locations are listed below: a. Commander, Naval Operations, Arlington, VA b. Commander, U.S. Fleet Forces Command, Norfolk, VA c. Commander, Navy Expeditionary Combat Command, Little Creek, VA d. Commander, Navy Installations Command, Washington, DC e. Commander, Second Fleet, Norfolk, VA f. Commander, Third Fleet, San Diego, CA g. Commander, Fifth Fleet, Manama, Bahrain h. Commander, Sixth Fleet, Naples, Italy i. Commander, Seventh Fleet, Yokosuka, Japan j. Commander, Navy Region Europe (CNRE) Naples, Italy k. Commander, Naval District Washington (NDW), Washington, DC l. Commander, Navy Region Mid-Atlantic (CNRMA), Norfolk, VA m. Commander, Navy Region Northwest (CNRNW), Bremerton, WA n. Commander, Navy Region Southeast (CNRSE), Jacksonville, FL o. Commander, Navy Region Southwest (CNRSW), San Diego, CA p. Commander, Navy Region Hawaii (CNRH), Pearl Harbor, HA q. Commander, Navy Region Japan (CNRJ), Yokosuka, Japan r. Commander, Naval Air Force Atlantic (CNAL), Norfolk, VA s. Commander, Naval Air Force Pacific (CNAP), San Diego, CA t. Commander, Strike Force Training Atlantic (CSFTL), Norfolk, VA u. Commander, Strike Force Training Pacific (CSFTP), San Diego, CA v. Commander, U. S. Naval Forces Southern Command, Mayport, FL w. Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet 4. Assignments. a. Master-at-Arms assigned to staff duty may work in the following core areas:

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(1) Antiterrorism (N3AT). Serve as Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). DoD Directive 2000.12, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program DoD Instruction 2000.16, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards SECNAVINST 5500.29 (Series), Use of Deadly Force and the Carrying of Firearms by Personnel of the DON in Conjunction with Law Enforcement, Security Duties and Personal Protection OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program (a) Provide oversight on N3AT antiterrorism program: 1. Ensure Commanders and Installation Commanding Officers (ICO) have situational awareness concerning their AT programs and their effectiveness. 2. Assist installation ATO in preparing their AT Plan, identifying vulnerabilities, mitigation efforts, and proper documentation. 3. Work with Legal and Contracting Officer to provide guidance to combatant commander in developing AOR and/or country specific contracts to ensure AT security considerations are incorporated into the contracting process. (b) Provide oversight on Antiterrorism (AT) training program: 1. Establish and maintain training standards and ensure requisite skill sets are available at the fleet/installation level. 2. Establish and maintain liaison with Center for Security Forces (CENSECFOR). 3. In cooperation with Training Directorates, identify training and material requirements and program out-year resource funding. The following are documents that will assist commanders and staffs in developing collective and individual training objectives: a. Mission training plans. b. Navy Tactical Reference Publication (NTRP) and Navy Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (NTTP) manuals. c. Deployment or mobilization plans. d. Strategic defense plans. e. Higher headquarters, CENSECFOR, major Navy command, and local regulations.

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f. Local Standing Operating Procedures (SOPs). 4. Coordinate the development of long and short range training plans, ensuring compliance to higher headquarter standards. (c) Provide oversight on fleet/installation AT Exercise program: 1. Develop drills and exercises to assist units/installations in identifying physical security vulnerabilities, pre-planned response shortfalls and training deficiencies. 2. Collect lessons learned and assist installations in compiling self assessments and identified vulnerabilities for Core Vulnerabilities Assessment Management Program (CVAMP) entry. (d) Implement Core Vulnerabilities Assessment Management Program: 1. Provide oversight on installation CVAMP. 2. Ensure training is provided to installations to ensure CVAMP is being utilized correctly and efficiently. Highlights of the CVAMP are: a. Accessed via the Antiterrorism Enterprise Portal (ATEP) on the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET). b. Tracks and manages AT vulnerabilities per DoDI 2000.16.(DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards) c. Generates justification for requirements to resolve vulnerabilities. d. Standardizes and automates AT resource request process; Combating Terrorism Readiness Initiative Funds (CbTRIF) and Unfunded Requirements (UFR) submissions IAW Deputy Secretary of Defense approved funding prioritization. e. Identifies AT readiness shortfalls due to unmitigated vulnerabilities.

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(e) At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with the references listed at the end of this chapter. (f) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM (E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X. (2) Physical Security. Serve as Physical Security Specialist. (a) Provide oversight on physical security programs: 1. Ensure Commanders and ICO have situational awareness of their programs and their effectiveness. 2. Provide guidance to ensure that appropriate physical security considerations are included in the design of facilities. Specific technical expertise in exterior site physical security, building physical security, ballistic attack hardening, standoff weapon hardening, and bomb blast hardening. Specific areas include but, are not limited to: a. Standoff (1) The standoff zone, also referred to as the setback area, is the second tier of defense and includes that space between the outer perimeter of the site and the exterior of what you are protecting. Standoff zones provide time delays and more importantly, abatement of blast effects. (2) To mitigate the effectiveness of a vehicle bomb attack, commanders shall be continually vigilant against allowing vehicle parking near high density buildings and on piers. Every attempt should be made to establish minimum standoff distances, which vary depending on the type of construction, level of protection desired, and proximity of perimeter barriers. It is important to understand that explosive effects decay with increased distance. b. Equipment (1) New technology (2) Training (3) Research and Development (R&D) c. Facilities (1) New construction projects/ rehabilitation (2) Critical Infrastructure Protection (3) Ballistic hardening

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(4) Perimeters (a) Clearly defined (b) Defense in Depth (c) Adequate clear zones (20/30) (d) Mitigation and Waivers/Exception (5) Unified Facilities Criteria (UFC) codes. Used during the engineering design of Department of Defense (DoD) facilities to assure appropriate physical security is included. The guidelines are based upon the best currently available research and test data, and will be revised or expanded as additional research results become available. 3. Projects a. Project Requirements. Project inception and preliminary planning require thoughtful definition of goals and needs (Project Scope), master planning to accommodate anticipated future needs, evaluation of project alternatives, identification of site requirements, funding requirements, budget authorization cycles and/or financial impacts, and project phasing. b. Delivery Methods. There are many approaches to achieve successful project design and construction. These Delivery Methods; which are driven by the project's scope, budget, and schedule; include Traditional (Design/Bid/Build), CM (also called CMc, or Construction Manager as Constructor), Design-Build, Bridging, and Lease/Build. The selection of a delivery method will in turn influence the Delivery Team composition, schedule, budget, and management plan. c. Project Management Plans. A Project Management Plan (PMP) is commonly used to document key management parameters in a central location and is updated throughout the project focusing on recognition of changes in program planning and management of those changes. It includes definition of an owner's program goals, technical requirements, schedules, resources, budgets, and management programs. d. Design Stage Management. Once a design team has been assembled (procured), a high level of owner coordination is needed to manage the entire delivery team through the project's design phases. Design management requires oversight of schedules and budgets, review of key submissions and deliverables for compliance with program goals and design objectives, verification of incorporation of stakeholder review input, verification of incorporation of construction phase

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functional testing requirements, and appropriate application of the owner's design standards and criteria. e. Construction Stage Management (1) Project coordination/communication (a) Request for Information (RFI) (b) Change order management (c) Conflict resolution (2) Inspections (a) Submittal reviews (b) Schedules (c) Payments f. Mitigations (1) Ballistic hardening (2) Barricades (3) Enclaves (b) At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with the references listed the end of this chapter. (c) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM (E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations (3) Military Working Dog (MWD) Program. (a) Provides oversight on MWD program and maintains strict accountability of all assigned assets and kennel facilities. (b) Conduct assessments on MWD handlers and their assigned MWD to ensure personnel, MWDs, and records are complete and are in full compliance with applicable instructions and ready to be employed. OPNAVINST 5585.2B DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY MILITARY WORKING DOG (MWD) PROGRAM (c) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM (E7-E9) with Navy Education Code (NEC) 2006. (4) Policy.

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(a) Acts as a conduit between higher headquarters, the regional commander, and ICO in matters relating to policy or doctrine. (b) Review policy to ensure current mission objectives are met. (c) Assist with Mission Essential Task List (METL) Development. 1. METL Development Process. Battle-focused training programs are based on wartime requirements. Military organizations cannot achieve and sustain proficiency on every possible training task. Therefore, commanders must selectively identify the tasks that are essential to accomplishing the organization's wartime mission. 2. Inputs to METL Development a. There are three primary inputs to METL development: (1) War Plans. The most critical inputs to METL development are the organization's wartime operations and contingency plans. The missions and related information provided in these plans are key to determining essential training tasks. (2) External Directives. External directives are additional sources of training tasks that relate to an organization's wartime mission. In some cases, these directives identify component tasks which make up the wartime mission. In others, they specify additional tasks that relate to the wartime mission (for example, mobilization plans). Some examples are: (a) Mission training plans (MTP) (b) Mobilization plans (c) Installation wartime transition (d) Force integration plans (3) Commander’s Analysis. Commanders analyze the applicable tasks contained in external directives and select for training only those tasks essential to accomplish their organization's wartime mission. This selection process reduces the number of tasks the organization must train. The compilation of tasks critical for wartime mission accomplishment is the organization's METL. To provide battle focus on the most important wartime requirements, the Commander identifies specified and implied mission essential tasks from the larger number of possible training tasks contained in appropriate external directives. This process will concentrate the

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organization's peacetime training efforts on the most important collective training tasks required to accomplish the wartime mission. 3. At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with the references list at the end of this chapter. 4. This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM (E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X (5) Manning (a) Provides regional oversight on security force manning requirements. (b) Act as a conduit between Commander, ICO, and higher headquarters. (c) Initiate procedures for correcting manning shortfalls, manning distribution, and post validation accuracy. (d) Have a clear understanding of the Total Force Manpower Management System (TFMMS). TFMMS provides capabilities for storage and retrieval of historical, current, budget, and out-year manpower data. It also provides access to current manpower data for resource sponsors, claimant, etc. TFFMS is the single, authoritative repository for: 1. Total force manpower requirements 2. Active duty Manpower Personnel 3. Navy/Reserve Personnel 4. Navy manpower authorizations and end strength (e) Be thoroughly familiar with Manpower, Personnel, Training, Research & Development (MPT R&D) Project Officer’s Guide. (f) Be thoroughly familiar with OPNAVINST 5530.14D, Appendix XX, Security Manning Ashore. 5. Schools: a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force

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Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series. b. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT/ATTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. c. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments, and execution. d. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize, and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train, and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations.

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The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. e. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy, and crime prevention. 6. References: (Note: Not all documents are available in electronic format.) a. MILPERSMAN b. Manpower, Personnel, Training Research & Development (MPT R&D) Project Officer’s Guide c. Department of the Navy Implementation Plan for DoD Installations Strategic Plan d. DoD Directive 2000.12, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program e. DoD Instruction 2000.16, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards f. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program g. SECNAVINST 5820.7 (Series), Cooperation with Civilian Law Enforcement Officials h. SECNAVINST 5450.4 (Series), Establishment and Disestablishment of Shore Activities of the DON j. OPNAV NOTICE 5400, Standard Navy Distribution List

• OPNAV NOTICE 5400_0 Forward • OPNAV NOTICE 5400_1 ADMIN FLEET CHAIN OF COMMAND • OPNAV NOTICE 5400_2 SHORE CHAIN OF COMMAND

k. NAVSO P-1000, Navy Comptroller Manual l. DoD C-5210.41-M, Nuclear Weapon Security Manual m. SECNAVINST 5500.29 (Series), Use of Deadly Force and the Carrying of Firearms by Personnel of the DON in Conjunction with Law Enforcement, Security Duties and Personal Protection q. SECNAVINST 5530.4 (series) NAVAL SECURITY FORCE EMPLOYMENT AND OPERATIONS r. MCO 5500.6G, Arming of Security and Law Enforcement (LE) Personnel and the Use of Force (NOTAL) s. DoD 5200.8-R, Physical Security Program t. Unified Facilities Guide u. NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism v. NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations

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w. NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism / Force Protection 7. Critical Task Lists. These skills were designated as critical tasks by the appropriate TYCOM. This list is not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less tasks. AIRFOR BUMED CNIC NCIS NECC NETC NETWAR SPECWAR SSP SURFOR STRATCOM 8. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the Installation Security mission area: Law Enforcement Operations Security Operations

Chapter 9: Weapons & Use of Force 9-1

Chapter 9: Weapons & Use of Force 1. Weapons Overview a. Firearm Safety - The single largest factor in accidents involving firearms is the assumption that the weapon is not loaded. The four cardinal rules in weapon safety are:

• Treat every weapon as if it were loaded • Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to

shoot • Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are

ready to fire • Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire

b. Firearms - NSF who regularly perform law enforcement and security duties shall be armed. No person will be armed unless currently qualified in the use of assigned weapons. Weapons expected to be utilized by qualified personnel are, but not limited to: (1) M9 9mm Pistol (a) Max Effective Range: 50m (b) Max Range: 1800m

(2) M11 Service Pistol (a) Max Effective Range: 46m (b) Max Range: 1800m

Chapter 9: Weapons & Use of Force 9-2

(3) .38 Caliber Revolver (a) Max Effective Range: 59m (b) Max Range: 992m

(4) AN/M8 Pyrotechnic Pistol (a) Max Effective Range: Varies by ammunition (b) Max Range: Varies by ammunition

(5) M500 Shotgun (a) Max Effective Range: 46m (b) Max Range: 604m

(6) MP5 Sub machinegun Operator (a) Max Effective Range: 550m (b) Max Range: 3600m

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(7) M14 Service Rifle (a) Max Effective Range: 460m-700m (b) Max Range: 3725m

(8) M-16 (Series) Service Rifle (a) Max Effective Range: 550m (b) Max Range: 3600m

(9) M203 Grenade Launcher (a) Max Effective Range: 150m (Point Target) (b) Max Range: 400m

(10) M79 Grenade Launcher (a) Max Effective Range: 150m (Point Target) (b) Max Range: 400m

(11) Grenades (MK 3A2) (a) Max Effective Range: Thrown 40m (b) Max Range: 2m casualty Radius (On Land)

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(12) MK46 Mod 0 Light Machinegun/M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) (a) Max Effective Range: 800m (Point Target) (b) Max Range: 3725m

(13) M240 (B/N) Medium Machinegun (a) Max Effective Range: 800m (b) Max Range: 3725m

(14) M60 (Series) Machinegun (a) Max Effective Range: 1100m (b) Max Range: 3725m

(15) M-2 .50 Caliber Heavy Machinegun (a) Max Effective Range: 1829m (b) Max Range: 6767m

(16) MK19 MOD 3 40MM Grenade Machinegun (a) Max Effective Range: 1500m (Point Target)

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(17) MK38 MOD 1 25MM Machinegun (a) Max Effective Range: 2457m (b) Max Range: 6800m

(18) MK44 MOD 0/1 Gun Weapon System (a) Max Effective Range: 914m (b) Max Range: 3200m

(19) M107 Long Range Sniper Rifle (a) Max Effective Range: 2000 yards (b) Max Range: 7450 yards

OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6 & 8, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines c. Nonlethal Weapons (NLW). Today’s world events mandate a need to project non-lethal force across all levels of war to enable our warfighters and leaders to effectively deal with a host of traditional as well as nontraditional threats. Now more than ever, the minimal level of tolerance for collateral damage and loss of human life, coupled with the tendency for the typical adversary to exploit the rules of engagement (ROE) to his benefit, necessitates an effective and flexible application of force through non-lethal weapons. Much like a rheostat switch

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in which power can be dialed up or down as desired, NLW provide tools to allow a commander to employ sufficient force to accomplish an objective without requiring the destruction of an enemy or the habitat. The intent of employing NLW is not to add another step in the progression of escalation with an adversary, but to add another tool to use anywhere along that continuum. The Training Supervisor is responsible for ensuring all personnel assigned to Security duties are properly qualified in the use of NLW by completing the required curriculum. OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 6 & 8, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program NTTP 3-07.3.2, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal Weapons NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 14, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard Procedures and Guidelines (1) Examples of nonlethal means include: a show of force, physical obstacles, riot control agents (RCA), noise to create or enhance psychological effects, smoke and obscurants to mask operations or defeat homing and guidance mechanisms, batons, handcuffs/restraints, and use of light to disorient combatants. NTTP 3-07.3.2 Chapter 1, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal Weapons d. Use of Force. CJCSI 3121.01B, Enclosure L, Standing Rules Of Engagement/Standing Rules for the Use of Force for US Forces (1) Serious Bodily Harm. Does not include minor injuries, such as a black eye or a bloody nose, but does include fractured or dislocated bones, deep cuts, torn members of the body, serious damage to the internal organs, and other life-threatening injuries. (2) Deadly Force. Force that a person uses causing, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm. (a) Deadly force is justified only under conditions of extreme necessity and when all three of the following circumstances are present: 1. Lesser means have been exhausted, are unavailable, or cannot be reasonably employed, 2. The risk of death or serious bodily harm to innocent persons is not significantly increased by use, and 3. The purpose of its use is one or more of the following: a. Inherent Right of Self-Defense. Deadly Force is authorized when DoD Unit Commanders reasonably believe that a person poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm to DoD Forces. Unit self-defense includes the

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defense of other DoD Forces in the vicinity. (Unit Commanders always retain the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. Unless otherwise directed by a unit commander as detailed below, service members may exercise individual self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. When individuals are assigned and acting as part of a unit, individual self-defense should be considered a subset of unit self-defense. As such, Unit Commanders may limit individual self-defense by members of their unit.) b. Defense of Others. Deadly Force is authorized in defense of non-DoD persons in the vicinity when directly related to the assigned mission. c. Assets Vital to National Security. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the actual theft or sabotage of assets vital to national security. (For the purposes of DoD operations, defined as President-designated non-DoD and/or DoD property, the actual theft or sabotage of which the President determines would seriously jeopardize the fulfillment of a national defense mission and would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm. Examples may include, but are not limited to, nuclear weapons; nuclear command and control facilities; and designated restricted areas containing strategic operations assets, sensitive codes or special access programs.) d. Inherently Dangerous Property. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the actual theft or sabotage of inherently dangerous property. (Property is considered inherently dangerous if, in the hands of an unauthorized individual, it would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm. Examples may include, but are not limited to: portable missiles, rockets, arms, ammunition, explosives, chemical agents and special nuclear materials. On-scene DoD commanders are authorized to classify property as inherently dangerous.) e. National Critical Infrastructure. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the sabotage of national critical infrastructure. (For the purposes of DoD operations, defined as President-designated public utilities, or similar critical infrastructure, vital to public health or safety, the damage to which the President determines would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm.) f. Serious Offenses Against Persons. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the commission of a serious offense that involves imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm

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(for example, setting fire to an inhabited dwelling or sniping), including the defense of other persons, where deadly force is directed against the person threatening to commit the offense. Examples include murder, armed robbery and aggravated assault. g. Escape. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the escape of a prisoner, provided there is probable cause to believe that such person(s) have committed or attempted to commit a serious offense, that is, one that involves imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm, and would pose an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm to DoD Forces or others in the vicinity. h. Arrest or Apprehension. Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears necessary to arrest or apprehend a person who there is probable cause to believe has committed a serious offense. (3) Continuum of Force. The minimum force necessary shall be used by armed sentries to compel compliance and prevent further actions by an aggressor. If escalation of force is necessary, there are two distinct Use of Force Continuums listed in the following references: (a) NTTP 3-07.2.1, Chapter 7.2 states: 1. Professional Presence 2. Verbalizations 3. Restraining/Detaining Techniques 4. Compliance Techniques 5. Intermediate Force 6. Lethal Force (b) NTRP 3-07.3.2, Chapter III-28 states: 1. Presence 2. Communication 3. Physical Control a. Soft Techniques b. Hard Techniques 4. Nonlethal Force 5. Deadly Force e. Warning Shots (1) Naval Message 150158Z SEP 07 SUBJ/USE OF WARNING SHOTS AGAINST SURFACE WATERBORNE THREATS outlines the use of warning shots.

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(2) This guidance applies to naval vessels, naval service vessels (including military sealift command, government-owned and United States flag time-chartered vessels), harbor security boats (HSB), picket boats and piers, and units under USN control only. Units under USCG control will follow the use of force policy for warning shots as issued by the commandant USCG, per 14 USC 637. (3) Warning shots are authorized from crew-served weapons and rifles in the territorial seas and internal waters of the United States, its territories, and possessions. (4) Commanders Intent. (a) Determining the intent of an approaching or in close vessel is critical. When time and circumstances permit, in order to facilitate the determination of hostile intent, watchstanders must take quick and decisive action to warn vessels away, but have a limited toolset (ship's whistle, flares, bullhorns, bridge-to-bridge radios, etc.) with which to accomplish this. (b) Warning shots are an additional tool in the watch stander's toolbox. A warning shot used against a waterborne vessel does not constitute deadly force when correctly employed, and a failure to heed a warning shot is usually a clear indication of hostile intent. Therefore, a warning shot is an effective way to both communicate a warning and determine intent. The use of warning shots, however, should be limited to circumstances when there exists no other reasonable means available to determine the intent of the approaching craft without increasing the threat to U.S. Navy, naval service vessels and personnel. Furthermore, the use of deadly force to protect a ship and its crew against a small boat attack is not contingent on firing a warning shot. A warning shot represents the last option in the continuum of actions prior to the use of deadly force and should be employed as such. (5) Weapons authorized for warning shots:

• M-14/M-16 Rifles • M-60/M-43 Medium Machine Gun • M-240 Medium Machine Gun • M2 50 Caliber Heavy Machine Gun • M-46 Light Machine Gun

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150158Z SEP 07 SUBJ/USE OF WARNING SHOTS AGAINST SURFACE WATERBORNE THREATS 3-07.2.1_(NTTP) Antiterrorism-Force Protection CJCSI 3121.01B Standing Rules Of Engagement/Standing Rules for the Use of Force for US Forces MCWP 3-15 Machine Guns and Machine Gun Gunnery NTTP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Maritime Interception Operations COMNAVSPECWARCOMINST 3000.3B, Air Operations Manual f. Standing Rules Of Engagement (SROE) for US Forces: (1) Purpose and Scope: (a) The purpose of the SROE is to provide implementation guidance on the application of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise of self-defense. The SROE establish fundamental policies and procedures governing the actions to be taken by US commanders during all military operations and contingencies and routine Military Department functions. This last category includes Antiterrorism/Force Protection (AT/FP) duties, but excludes law enforcement and security duties on DoD installations, and off-installation while conducting official DoD security functions, outside US territory and territorial seas. SROE also apply to air and maritime homeland defense missions conducted within US territory or territorial seas, unless otherwise directed by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). (b) Unit commanders at all levels shall ensure that individuals within their respective units understand and are trained on when and how to use force in self-defense. To provide uniform training and planning capabilities, this document is authorized for distribution to commanders at all levels and is to be used as fundamental guidance for training and directing of forces. (c) The policies and procedures in CJCSI 3121.01B are in effect until rescinded. Supplemental measures may be used to augment these SROE. (d) US forces will comply with the Law of Armed Conflict during military operations involving armed conflict, no matter how the conflict may be characterized under international law, and will comply with the principles and spirit of the Law of Armed Conflict during all other operations. (e) US forces performing missions under direct control of heads of other USG departments or agencies (e.g.,

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Marine Corps Embassy Security Guards and other special security forces), operate under use of force policies or ROE promulgated by those departments or agencies, when authorized by the SecDef. US forces always retain the right of self-defense. (f) US Forces Operating With Multinational Forces: 1. US forces assigned to the operational control (OPCON) or tactical control (TACON) of a multinational force will follow the ROE of the multinational force for mission accomplishment, if authorized by SecDef order. US forces retain the right of self-defense. Apparent inconsistencies between the right of self-defense contained in US ROE and the ROE of the multinational force will be submitted through the US chain of command for resolution. While a final resolution is pending, US forces will continue to operate under US ROE. 2. When US forces, under US OPCON or TACON, operate in conjunction with a multinational force, reasonable efforts will be made to develop common ROE. If common ROE cannot be developed, US forces will operate under US ROE. The multinational forces will be informed prior to US participation in the operation that US forces intend to operate under US ROE. 3. US forces remain bound by international agreements to which the US is a party even though other coalition members may not be bound by them. (g) International agreements (e.g., status-of-forces agreements) may never be interpreted to limit US forces' right of self-defense. (2) Policy: (a) Unit commanders always retain the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. (b) Once a force is declared hostile by appropriate authority, US forces need not observe a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent before engaging the declared hostile force. (c) The goal of US national security policy is to ensure the survival, safety, and vitality of our nation and to maintain a stable international environment consistent with US national interests. US national security interests guide global objectives of deterring and, if necessary, defeating armed

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attack or terrorist actions against the US, including US forces, and, in certain circumstances, US persons and their property, US commercial assets, persons in US custody, designated non-US military forces, and designated foreign persons and their property. (d) Combatant Commander Theater-Specific ROE: 1. Combatant commanders may augment these SROE as necessary by implementing supplemental measures or by submitting supplemental measures requiring SecDef approval to the CJCS. 2. US commanders shall notify the SecDef, through the CJCS, as soon as practicable, of restrictions (at all levels) placed on Secretary of Defense-approved ROE/RUF. In time critical situations, make SecDef notification concurrently to the CJCS. When concurrent notification is not possible, notify the CJCS as soon as practicable after SecDef notification. CJCSI 3121.01B Standing Rules Of Engagement/Standing Rules for the Use of Force for US Forces g. Lautenburg Amendment. (1) The Lautenberg Amendment was an amendment to the Gun Control Act of 1968. It expanded the group of firearm prohibited persons to those who have ever been convicted of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence. The effect is to make it a felony for anyone with any DV conviction to own or even handle any firearm or ammunition. It does not matter if the DV conviction occurred before the 1996 enactment of the Lautenberg Amendment. (2) The impact on those in the military is particularly significant. There is no exception for those in the military during the scope of their official duties. (3) Lautenberg also made those under a domestic restraining order into prohibited persons.

2. Qualification Criteria for Pistols.

a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a pistol are required to qualify on the Navy Handgun Qualification Course. Category II and above personnel are additionally required to qualify on the Handgun Practical Weapons Course and Handgun Lowlight Course annually. Due to safety concerns, there are no requirements to fire the Handgun Lowlight Course or the Handgun Practical Weapons Course while at sea. For IA's and deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be

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extended until 2 months after return to unit when a range or simulator is not available. Before each qualification shoot, all personnel shall receive Marksmanship/Safety/Weapon Familiarization Training. If available, the Handgun Practical Weapons Course and Handgun Lowlight Course of Fire (COF) shall be accomplished on a simulator programmed with these COF’s. Personnel performing annual qualification in this manner shall perform the complete live-fire qualification requirement at their next semi-annual sustainment point. Training records shall record and highlight that limited live fire training and simulator training was used to fulfill the qualification requirement as specified in this paragraph. b. Sustainment Criteria. All personnel must requalify with live fire annually. All personnel are also required to undergo semiannual sustainment training between qualification shoots, not to exceed 8 months after the last live fire qualification. The requirements for semiannual sustainment training are outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1. c. Marksmanship Awards. The Navy Pistol Marksmanship Ribbon, Navy Sharpshooter Award, and Navy Expert Pistol Medal may be earned on the Navy Handgun Qualification Course. d. Service Pistol Condition Codes:

• CONDITION 1: Magazine Inserted, Slide Forward, Round in Chamber, Safety ON (M9)

• CONDITION 2: Not Applicable to M9 or M11 pistol • CONDITION 3: Magazine Inserted, Slide Forward,

Chamber Empty, Safety ON (M9) • CONDITION 4: Magazine Removed, Slide Forward,

Chamber Empty, Safety ON (M9) OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification enclosure 3 3. Qualification Criteria for Rifles. a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a rifle are required to qualify on the Rifle Qualification and rifle low light Courses. This enclosure specifically addresses the MI4 and MI6 (series) rifles, to include the M4A1, M727, and Mk-18 Carbines. Due to safety concerns, there is no requirement to fire the Rifle Lowlight Course while at sea. For IA's and deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be extended until 2 months after return to their unit when a range

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or simulator is not available. If available, the Rifle Lowlight Course of Fire (COF) shall be accomplished on a simulator programmed with this COF. Before each qualification shoot, all personnel shall receive Marksmanship/Safety/Weapon Familiarization Training. Personnel performing annual qualification in this manner shall perform the complete live-fire qualification requirement at their next semi-annual sustainment point. Training records shall record and highlight that limited live fire training and simulator training was used to fulfill the qualification requirement as specified in this paragraph. b. Sustainment Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a rifle must requalify annually on the Rifle Qualification Course and the Rifle Lowlight Course. All Navy personnel armed with a rifle must also undergo semiannual sustainment training between qualification shoots, not to exceed 8 months after the last live fire qualification. The requirements for semiannual sustainment training are outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 4 paragraph 7. c. Marksmanship Awards. The Navy Rifle Marksmanship Ribbon, Navy Sharpshooter Award and Navy Expert Rifle Medal may be earned on the Rifle Qualification Course. The Navy Rifle Marksmanship Ribbon, Navy Sharpshooter Award, and Navy Expert Rifle Medal must be earned using a rifle equipped with iron sights or non-telescopic dot type sights. The use of scoped rifles is prohibited. d. Service Rifle Condition Codes:

• CONDITION 1: Magazine Inserted, Bolt Forward, Round in Chamber, Safety ON

• CONDITION 2: Not Applicable • CONDITION 3: Magazine Inserted, Bolt Forward, Chamber

Empty, Ejection Port Cover Closed, Safety ON • CONDITION 4: Magazine Removed, Bolt Forward, Chamber

Empty, Ejection Port Cover Closed, Safety ON OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification enclosure 4 4. Qualification Criteria for Shotguns. a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with the shotgun are required to qualify on the Shotgun Practical Weapons Course. Before each qualification shoot, all personnel

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shall receive training per OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 5 paragraph 4. Due to safety concerns, there are no requirements to fire a qualification or sustainment course with the shotgun while at sea. However, at every opportunity, trainers shall ensure that personnel are qualified at a shore-based range. For IA's and deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be extended until 2 months after return to their unit when a range or simulator is not available. b. Sustainment Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a shotgun must requalify annually on the Shotgun practical Weapons Course. All personnel armed with a shotgun must also undergo semiannual sustainment training between qualification shoots, not to exceed 8 months. The requirements for semiannual sustainment training are outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 5 paragraph 6. c. Service Shotgun Condition Codes:

• CONDITION 1: Magazine Tube Filled, Round in Chamber, Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapons on Safe

• CONDITION 2: Not Applicable • CONDITION 3: Magazine Tube Filled, Chamber Empty,

Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapon on Safe • CONDITION 4: Magazine Tube Empty, Chamber Empty,

Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapon on Safe OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification enclosure 5 5. Qualification Criteria for Light, Medium and Heavy Machine Gun Performance Evaluation. a. Weapons. M60 and MK43 (variants) 7.62MM medium machine guns, M240 (variants) 7.62MM medium machine guns, and MK46 Mod 0 (M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)) 5.56MM light machine guns. b. Performance Evaluation Criteria. All Category II Navy personnel armed with light and medium machine guns must successfully pass the Performance Evaluation Standard annually per OPNAVINST 3591.1E enclosure 6. For IA’s and deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be extended until 2 months after return to their unit when a range or simulator is not available. All Navy personnel who employ machine guns with the bipod or in a mounted "free gun" mode shall shoot the "Light and Medium Machine Gun Performance Evaluation Course" as well as attend prescribed training. All Navy personnel that employ

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machine guns with a tripod/T&E mechanism may also shoot the "Machine Gun Performance Evaluation Course - Tripod/T&E" Mechanism. c. Pre-requisites. Classroom training must be conducted before any sustainment, simulator, blank fire, or live fire training evolution. d. Required Sustainment Training. All Navy personnel armed with light and medium machine guns are required to undergo semiannual sustainment training, not to exceed 8 months. Sustainment training shall include, but is not limited to, classroom instruction, dry fire training, weapons manipulation drills utilizing dummy rounds, simulator training, blank fire training, and/or additional live fire training when feasible. e. Medium Machine Gun Condition Codes:

• CONDITION 1: Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt Locked to Rear, Weapon on Safe, Cover Closed.

• CONDITION 2: Not Applicable. • CONDITION 3: Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt Forward on

Empty Chamber, Weapon on Fire, Cover Closed • CONDITION 4: Feed Tray Clear, Bolt Forward on Empty

Chamber, Weapon on Fire, Cover Closed OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 6

Chapter 10: Organization, Legal Issues, and Professional Training

1. Legal a. United States Navy Regulations. U.S. Navy Regulations cover those regulations applicable to Commands, Commanding Officers, Officers, and Enlisted personnel. The chapters describe specific responsibilities. Chapter 1 - Statutory Authority for U.S. Navy Regulations Chapter 2 - Department of the Navy (Description) Chapter 3 - Secretary of the Navy (Duties and Authority) Chapter 4 - Chief of Naval Operations (Duties and Authority) Chapter 5 - Commandant of the Marine Corps (Duties and Authority) Chapter 6 - U.S. Coast Guard (Positional Relationship when operating under U.S. Navy) Chapter 7 - Commanders In Chief and Other Commanders (Duties) Chapter 8 - Commanding Officers (Duties and Authority) Chapter 9 - Senior Officer Present (Duties and Authority) Chapter 10 - Precedence, Authority and Command (Authority of Officers, Executive Officers, Department Heads, Non-Commissioned Officers, Petty Officers, Sentries, and junior personnel in relation to other Sailors and other military services) Chapter 11 - General Regulations (Administration of Discipline, Standards of Conduct, Official Records, Duties of Individuals, and Rights and Restrictions) Chapter 12 - Flags, Pennants, Honors, Ceremonies and Customs (Honors to National Anthems and National Ensigns, Hand Salutes and Other Marks of Respect, Gun Salutes, Passing Honors, Official Visits and Calls, Formal Occasions Other Than Official Visits, Display of Flags and Pennants, Special Ceremonies Anniversaries and Solemnities, Deaths and Funerals) b. Standard Organization and Regulation Manual of the U.S. Navy. The Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORM), OPNAVINST 3120.32, is applicable to all members of the U.S. Navy. Its purpose is to issue regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the U.S. Navy. c. Jurisdiction. All personnel performing law enforcement work for the Navy in the continental United States or overseas need a basic understanding of the legal concepts of jurisdiction and authority to apprehend. Both of these areas are complex legal subjects, susceptible to change by legislation or court decision. Personnel with specific legal and policy questions should be referred to the local staff judge advocate for

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guidance and resolution. Jurisdiction is defined in the judicial sense as the power of a court, military or civilian, to consider a controversy and render a valid judgment. To have such power, a court must have jurisdiction over several areas. The sources of jurisdiction are: (1) The Constitution. The power of a court-martial to try service persons is contained in Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution, which gives Congress authority to make rules and regulations for the Armed Forces. Article II of the Constitution makes the President of the United States the Commander in Chief of the Armed Forces. The Congress has exercised its rule-making power by enacting the UCMJ: Title 10, U.S. Code, Sections 801-940. The President has exercised his constitutional power by issuing the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM). Both the UCMJ and the MCM discuss and define courts-martial jurisdiction. (2) Federal Statutes. The federal statutes of the United States, as well as the Constitution, are sources of jurisdiction. Article III of the Constitution established the United States Supreme Court and also authorized the Congress, by federal statutes, to establish the lower courts. Magistrate and district courts are established under federal statutes. Military law-enforcement officials will often come into contact with civilian violators of federal law. (3) Jurisdiction Over the Person. To try a person, a court must have authority “over his person.” Courts-martial normally have no authority or power over civilians. Thus a court martial could not try a civilian, even though his or her conduct might have been criminal and directly detrimental to the military. (4) Jurisdiction Over the Offense. To try a person for an offense, a court must have jurisdiction over the offense. All courts are limited in the classes of offenses that they may hear and decide. For example, a federal or state civilian court has no authority to try a military person for unauthorized absence from his or her unit. That offense, punishable under Article 86 of the UCMJ, can only be adjudicated by the military. (5) Jurisdiction Over the Location or Place. The jurisdiction of the courts is also limited by the location or place of the offense. For example, the courts of New York State have no jurisdiction to consider cases involving criminal conduct in the state of Florida. Similarly, the United States

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federal civilian courts have no jurisdiction, generally, to try American citizens for offenses committed in another country. Nevertheless, under Article 5 of the UCMJ, a court-martial has jurisdiction to try military personnel for service-connected offenses occurring in “all places.” (6) Types of Jurisdiction. (a) Military Jurisdiction. Courts-martial have jurisdiction to try only certain specific classes of personnel as delineated in Article 2 of the UCMJ. The following describes these classes: 1. Service members on active duty. Article 2(1) of the UCMJ identifies certain active-duty personnel as subject to its jurisdiction. 2. Reserve members attending drill. Reservists on inactive duty training, usually weekend drills, are subject to UCMJ jurisdiction during drill periods if the orders assigning them to duty so state. The orders of reservists in some branches of the service do not state that the drilling reservist is subject to UCMJ jurisdiction. Specific situations should be referred to a local JAG officer. 3. Retired persons. Retired members of a Regular component of the armed forces who are entitled to pay, retired members of the Reserves who are hospitalized by the service, and members of the Fleet Reserve or the Marine Corps Reserve are all subject to UCMJ. This rule continues military jurisdiction over specified categories of retired service members who retain financial or other ties to the armed forces. (b) Civilian Jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has ruled that civilians are not under court-martial jurisdiction in peacetime despite UCMJ, Article 2(11). That article provides for jurisdiction over “persons serving with, employed by, or accompanying the armed forces outside the United States.” Our Government has allowed the trial of civilians under military jurisdiction in time of war. However, the United States Court of Military Appeals has interpreted the term war to include only a war declared by Congress. (c) Service Connection Issue. Law-enforcement personnel may encounter some offenses that are not purely military crimes. When that happens, they must evaluate the offense to show a connection between the crime and the military

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service. If they find no “service-connection,” the military has no jurisdiction, even if the offender is on active duty in the military. Offenses that are not service connected are legal issues that must be referred to the staff judge advocate on a case-by-case basis. The more closely related the crime is to the base, military authority, or military duties, the more apt the courts are to find it a service-connection issue and thus under military jurisdiction. This service-connection jurisdiction problem does not exist when the crime is committed aboard ship or overseas. In addition, even if no court-martial jurisdiction exists because of a lack of service connection, the crime may still be under the jurisdiction of nonjudicial punishment or of local, federal, or state civilian courts. (d) Jurisdiction Over Federal Offenses. Title 18 of the United States Code delineates the majority of federal crimes. These crimes are generally major felonies. They apply to both civilians and military personnel and are prosecuted in the federal district courts. Offenses prohibited involve a wide range of serious activities, such as mail fraud, kidnapping, and theft of U.S. property. (e) Investigative Jurisdiction. Base commanding officers, in addition to having the duty of maintaining good order and discipline, have the responsibility of ensuring that neither military nor civilian personnel on base violate federal civilian laws. The Secretary of Defense and the U.S. Attorney General recognize that certain offenses against federal civilian law are also violations against military law. They recognize that the military offender should be prosecuted by a military tribunal after the military investigation. They also recognize that other offenses committed by military personnel or civilians should be investigated by other federal agencies and prosecuted in federal criminal courts. The Manual for Courts-Martial, appendix 3, details investigative jurisdiction. 1. Major Crimes. The Federal Bureau of Investigation is the chief investigative agency tasked with the enforcement of federal criminal laws. Other agencies, such as the Drug Enforcement Administration and the Treasury Department, have investigative jurisdiction over specific crimes. Incidents of actual, suspected or alleged major criminal offenses should be referred to the Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS), which will decide whether the case should be referred to outside federal agencies. If the federal agency does not assume investigative jurisdiction, NCIS will, in most instances, conduct the investigation.

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2. Minor Crimes and Traffic Offenses. The majority of naval commands have investigative personnel within their security departments. Such persons are normally limited to investigating minor offenses. Any major criminal offense should be referred immediately to the NCIS. This requirement of referral does not in any way restrict command law enforcement personnel from executing appropriate procedures. Appropriate procedures include preventing the escape or loss of identity of offenders, preserving crime scenes and the integrity of physical evidence, or conducting on-scene inquiries as appropriate. Minor offenses include most misdemeanors and traffic offenses. Both the commanding officer (if the subject is military) and the U.S. magistrates may dispose of these offenses. If criminal prosecution before a U.S. magistrate is appropriate, it is affected by the issuance of a U.S. magistrate’s court violation notice, as set forth in SECNAVINST 5822.1. (f) Assimilative Crimes Act. To avoid the task of maintaining a complete code of civilian criminal laws for military bases and other federal property, Congress passed the Assimilative Crimes Act. This statute provides that all acts or omissions occurring in an area under federal jurisdiction that would constitute crimes if the area were under state jurisdiction will constitute the same crimes, similarly punishable, under federal law. For example, Congress has not enacted a traffic code for military bases. However, speeding on a naval base could be a federal traffic violation because military bases adopt for federal use the traffic laws of the state in which they are located. (g) Territorial Jurisdiction. Military reservations generally are categorized as having either exclusive federal jurisdiction or concurrent federal jurisdiction. The federal government may also hold territory in a status of proprietary interest. Jurisdiction in this context refers to the authority to enact and enforce general criminal laws within a given area. Two or three types of jurisdiction may exist within the same installation. Because parts of a base might have been acquired at different times in different ways, one portion might be under exclusive jurisdiction and the next under concurrent. Law enforcement personnel should consult with their local staff judge advocate concerning the jurisdictional status of all portions of their base. 1. Exclusive Federal Jurisdiction. Only the federal government has the power to make and enforce federal

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laws. Federal laws are enforced through various agencies, including the military. Thus, exclusive federal jurisdiction applies only to areas governed by the specific federal criminal statutes and the statutes of the federal Assimilative Crimes Act. Generally, state laws have neither force nor effect in areas of federal jurisdiction; and local, state, or municipal law enforcement authorities have no authority in such areas. 2. Concurrent Federal Jurisdiction. Both the federal government and state government (including its county and municipal subdivisions) have authority to make and enforce general municipal laws on the land in question. Thus, a single act could constitute a crime against both the federal and local state law. Both naval authorities and state authorities could, in theory, enforce and prosecute under their respective law. However, they must first seek permission as specified in section 0116 of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN). 3. Proprietary Jurisdiction. When the federal government has acquired a degree of ownership of a piece of property but has not obtained legislative authority over the area, generally only the state has the power to enforce its laws on the property. The United States has the right, however, as does any landowner or tenant, to protect its property. In addition, state authorities cannot interfere with any valid military activity on such property. A court-martial has jurisdiction over a military member on active duty no matter where the offense is committed; however, coordination between naval and state/local authorities is always recommended first. (h) Posse Comitatus Act. The Posse Comitatus Act provides that the Army and Air Force cannot be used to execute the laws. DoD Directive 5525.5 of 15 Jan 86 and SECNAVINST 5820.7 have applied the same restrictions to the Navy as a matter of DoD and DON policy. Posse comitatus means the power or force of the county. It authorizes the sheriff to call a posse of citizens to help enforce the law. In the context of this statute and DoD policy, posse comitatus generally means that military personnel cannot be used to enforce civilian laws. This law does not prohibit such individuals from making a citizen’s arrest for a felony or breach of the peace committed in their presence or from issuing citations for appearance before a U.S. magistrate. It also doesn’t prevent them from performing other duties that support the role of the military; for example, protecting government personnel and property.

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d. Apprehension and Restraint. Because Masters-at-Arms make a large percentage of all apprehensions in the Navy, you should clearly understand the legal meanings of the word apprehension and other terms such as arrest, custody, confinement, and restraint. The authority of Navy law enforcement personnel to enforce military law, orders, and regulations is derived from Title 10, U.S. Code 807, and Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM), Rule 302. (1) UCMJ Article 7 — Apprehension. Apprehension is the taking of a person into custody. Any person authorized under regulations governing the armed forces to apprehend persons subject to this chapter or to trial there under may do so upon reasonable belief that an offense has been committed and that the person apprehended committed it. Commissioned officers, warrant officers, petty officers, and noncommissioned officers shall have authority to quell quarrels, frays, and disorders among persons subject to this chapter, and to apprehend persons subject to this chapter who take part therein. (a) Apprehension is defined as taking a person into custody. As you will see later, a person is placed under arrest only on the order of an officer. As a practical matter, the fact that you say, “I’m placing you under arrest” instead of “I’m apprehending you” makes no legal difference. The important point is that the offender must be informed clearly that he or she is being taken into custody. The offender won’t know unless told. The MCM defines custody in part as “restraint of free locomotion, which is imposed by lawful apprehension.” To make the custody clear, you should normally use some indication of physical restraint, such as taking the offender by the arm. This procedure is not always wise, of course, especially if the offender is argumentative or drunk. Use good judgment when using physical restraint. Remember that the purpose of taking a person into custody is only to restrain the violator until proper authority can be notified. Article 7 includes taking custody of any U.S. service member, Navy or otherwise. (b) Apprehension is the military equivalent of the civilian term arrest. Any officer, warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or other person designated by proper authority to perform guard, police, or criminal investigation duties may apprehend a violator. Custody means restraint of free movement. When an individual is taken into custody, the individual’s movements are controlled by the person or persons who made the apprehension. Physical restraint is the loss of free movement that results from being taken into custody. It

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may involve force or may be accomplished by obedience to orders. Even if force is not used, a Master-at-Arms must be able to apply force if needed to effect an apprehension; that is, the MA must be able to restrain forcibly an offender who resists apprehension. The use of force depends on whether or not the offender submits to the apprehension. The procedure for apprehending depends upon its necessity, the manner in which an offender is approached, an evaluation of the facts and circumstances, and the manner in which custody is imposed. (c) When to Apprehend. Apprehension is made only for probable cause. If facts and circumstances indicate that a person has committed an offense, then an apprehension may be justified. All offenses, however, do not require apprehension. A minor offense or traffic violation may require only an on-the-spot correction, an incident report, or a traffic citation. When to apprehend depends on the facts and circumstances of the offense and your judgment and experience. No two offenders are identical. Officers should not be apprehended except on the orders of another officer or because of the seriousness of the offense. An apprehension is affected when the suspect is told that he or she is being taken into custody. A simple statement such as “You’re under apprehension” or “I’m taking you into custody” is sufficient. The suspect should not have any doubts about his or her status. As the apprehending officer, you may search for weapons to ensure your own safety or search for tools that might enable the suspect to escape. You need not search every area in a room in which a suspect is apprehended; instead, search only that area of the room under the suspect’s immediate control. Thus, the scope of the search depends on the circumstances involved in the apprehension. If circumstances allow, warn a suspect of his or her right against self-incrimination in accordance with Article 31, UCMJ. Although formal interrogations are rarely made at the scene of an apprehension, any confession or admission obtained from the suspect at the scene is inadmissible in court unless the suspect is first warned of his or her rights under Article 31, UCMJ. (2) Article 9 — Imposition of Restraint. Arrest is the restraint of a person by an order, not imposed as a punishment for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified limits. Confinement is the physical restraint of a person. An enlisted member may be ordered into arrest or confinement by any commissioned officer by an order, oral or written, delivered in person or through other persons subject to this chapter. A commanding officer may authorize warrant officers, petty officers, or noncommissioned officers to order enlisted members

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of his command or subject to his authority into arrest or confinement. A commissioned officer, a warrant officer, or a civilian subject to this chapter or to trial thereunder may be ordered into arrest or confinement only by a commanding officer to whose authority he is subject, by an order, oral or written, delivered in person or by another commissioned officer. The authority to order such persons into arrest or confinement may not be delegated. No person may be ordered into arrest or confinement except for probable cause. (a) Congress has given the terms apprehension, arrest, and confinement distinct meanings. Apprehension, as you learned from Article 7, is the initial act of taking a person into custody. Once a person is taken into custody, that person may be held under restraint for safekeeping while the charges are disposed of. There are three forms of such restraint. The most severe is confinement — the physical restraint of a person. Next comes the arrest, which is the restraint of a person by an order directing him or her to remain within certain specified limits. The least severe form of restraint for safekeeping is restriction in lieu of arrest, which is also imposed by an order directing the person to remain within certain specified limits. The difference between arrest and restriction in lieu of arrest is that a restricted person performs all regular duties, whereas a person under arrest does not perform full military duties. For this reason, personnel who commit relatively minor offenses are normally put under restriction in lieu of arrest. Confinement, arrest, and restriction in lieu of arrest, when imposed under Article 9, are not forms of punishment. Arrest and restriction in lieu of arrest are similar in one respect: the party is required to stay within specified limits. It is a person’s conscience and the force of law, rather than a strong arm or a barred door, that induce an individual to remain within those limits. A person obeys because of a moral and legal obligation to do so. Confinement before trial is usually not imposed. However, it is imposed if needed to ensure the presence of the accused at the trial, if the offense charged is extremely serious, or if the safety of the public or the accused is in jeopardy. d. Search and Seizure. Manual for Courts Martial 2008, Military Rules for Evidence (MRE) 313-316 (1) Definitions (a) Search - A quest for incriminating evidence

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(b) Seizure - Taking possession of a person or some item of evidence in conjunction with the investigation of criminal activity. (c) Inspection - Examination conducted as an incident of command, the primary purpose of which is to determine and to ensure the security, military fitness, good order and discipline of the unit, organization, installation, vessel, aircraft, or vehicle. (d) Probable Cause - Reasonable belief that a crime has been committed, is being committed, or will be committed, and that certain persons, property, or evidence related to that crime will be found in the place or on the persons to be searched. (2) Types of Searches (a) Probable Cause Not Required Searches 1. Border Searches 2. Searches upon entry to or exit from United States installations, aircraft, and vessels abroad. 3. Searches of Government Property (where no reasonable expectation of privacy exists). 4. Consent Searches 5. Searches incident to a Lawful Stop 6. Searches incident to a Lawful Apprehension 7. Searches within jails, confinement facilities, or similar facilities. 8. Emergency searches to save life or for related purposes 9. Searches of open fields or woodlands 10. Other searches (b) Probable Cause Required Searches 1. Command Authorization 2. Search Warrant 3. Exigent Circumstance Search a. Insufficient Time b. Lack of Communications c. Search of Operable Vehicle (3) Seizures. Probable cause to seize property or evidence exists when there is a reasonable belief that the property or evidence is an unlawful weapon, contraband, evidence of a crime, or might be used to resist apprehension or to escape.

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(a) Abandoned property. Abandoned property may be seized without probable cause and without a search warrant or search authorization. (b) Consent. Property or evidence may be seized with consent consistent with the requirements applicable to consensual searches under MRE 314. (c) Government Property. Government property may be seized without probable cause and without a search warrant or search authorization by any authorized person, unless the person to whom the property is issued or assigned has a reasonable expectation of privacy therein, as provided in MRE 314(d), at the time of the seizure. (d) Other Property. Property or evidence not included in paragraph (a)-(c) may be seized for use in evidence by any authorized person if: 1. Authorization. The person is authorized to seize the property or evidence by a search warrant or a search authorization under MRE. 315 2. Exigent Circumstances. The person has probable cause to seize the property or evidence and under MRE 315(g), a search warrant or search authorization is not required 3. Plain View. The person while in the course of otherwise lawful activity observes in a reasonable fashion property or evidence that the person has probable cause to seize. 4. Temporary Detention. Nothing in this rule shall prohibit temporary detention of property on less than probable cause when authorized under the Constitution of the United States. (e) Power to Seize. Any commissioned officer, warrant officer, petty officer, noncommissioned officer, and, when in the execution of guard or police duties, any criminal investigator, member of the Air Force security police, military police, or shore patrol, or individual designated by proper authority to perform guard or police duties, or any agent of any such person, may seize property pursuant to this rule. (f) Other Seizures. A seizure of a type not otherwise included in this rule may be made when permissible

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under the Constitution of the United States as applied to members of the armed forces. 2. Military Law of Evidence a. Military Law of Evidence Article. 3. CO’s Mast Procedure. JAGMAN Appendix A-1-e dictates procedures for CO’s Mast. 4. Controlled Substances a. The Federal Controlled Substances Act (FCSA), Title II, of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, is the legal foundation of the government’s fight against abuse of drugs and other substances. This law is a consolidation of numerous laws regulating the manufacture and distribution of narcotics, stimulants, depressants, and hallucinogens. Drugs may placed on the FCSA by administrative or legislative acts passed by Congress. More recently, in 1988, congress passed the Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act. This Act allows for the regulation of certain chemicals that are used in the making of controlled substances. b. The FCSA places all substances that are in some manner regulated under existing federal law into one of five schedules. This placement is based upon the substance’s medical use, potential for abuse, and safety or dependence liability. The act also provides a mechanism for substances to be controlled, or added to a schedule; decontrolled, or removed from control; and rescheduled or transferred from one schedule to another. The procedure for these actions is found in Section 201 of the FCSA (21 U.S.C. 811). c. Proceedings to add, delete, or change the schedule of a drug or other substance may be initiated by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), by the DEA, or by petition from any interested person — the manufacturer of a drug, a medical society or association, a pharmacy association, a public interest group concerned with drug abuse, a state or local government agency, or an individual citizen. When a petition is received by the DEA, the agency begins its own investigation of the drug. The agency also may begin an investigation of a drug at any time based upon information received from law enforcement laboratories, state and local law enforcement and regulatory agencies, or other sources of information. d. The threshold issue is whether the drug or other substance has potential for abuse. If a drug does not have a

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potential for abuse, it cannot be controlled. Although the term potential for abuse is not defined in the FCSA, there is much discussion of the term in the legislative history of the act. e. The following is an example of drugs that can be found on the various schedules: (Note: This list is by NO MEANS exhaustive. A complete listing of controlled substances and drug schedules can be found on the DEA web site at http://www.usdoj.gov/dea/index.htm under Drug Policy.)

Schedule I

Substance DEA Number

Non Narcotic Other Names

1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine 7458 N PCPy, PHP, rolicyclidine

3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine 7400 N MDA, Love Drug

3, 4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

7405 N MDMA, Ecstasy, XTC

3-Methylfentanyl 9813 China White, fentanyl

3-Methylthiofentanyl 9833 Chine White, fentanyl

4-Bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyphenethylamine

7392 N Nexus, 2-CB, has been sold as Ecstasy, i.e. MDMA

5-Methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

7401 N MMDA

Alpha-Methylfentanyl 9814 China White, fentanyl

Alpha-Methylthiofentanyl 9832 China White, fentanyl

Aminorex 1585 N has been sold as methamphetamine

Codeine methylbromide 9070

Codeine-N-oxide 9053

Gama Hydroxybutyric Acid (GHB) 2010 N GHB, gama hydroxybutyrate, sodium oxybate

Heroin 9200 Diacetylmorphine, diamorphine

Lysergic acid diethylamide 7315 N LSD, lysergide

Marijuana 7360 N Cannabis, marijuana

Mescaline 7381 N Constituent of "Peyote" cacti

Methaqualone 2565 N Quaalude, Parest, Somnafac, Opitimil, Mandrax

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Morphine methylbromide 9305

Morphine methylsulfonate 9306

Morphine-N-oxide 9307

Myrophine 9308

Peyote 7415 N Cactus which contains mescaline

Psilocybin 7437 N Constituent of "Magic mushrooms"

Psilocyn 7438 N Psilocin, constituent of "Magic mushrooms"

Schedule II

1-Phenylcyclohexylamine 7460 N Precusor of PCP

1-Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile

8603 N PCC, precusor of PCP

Amphetamine 1100 N Dexedrine, Biphetamine

Benzoylecgonine 9180 Cocaine metabolite

Coca Leaves 9040

Cocaine 9041 Methyl benzoylecgonine, Crack

Codeine 9050 Morphine methyl ester, methyl morphine

Meperidine 9230 Demerol, Mepergan, pethidine

Methadone 9250 Dolophine, Methadose, Amidone

Methamphetamine 1105 N Desoxyn, D-desoxyephedrine, ICE, Crank, Speed

Methylphenidate 1724 N Ritalin

Morphine 9300 MS Contin, Roxanol, Duramorph, RMS, MSIR

Opium extracts 9610

Opium fluid extract 9620

Opium poppy 9650 Papaver somniferum

Opium tincture 9630 Laudanum

Opium, granulated 9640 Granulated opium

Opium, powdered 9639 Powdered Opium

Opium, raw 9600 Raw opium, gum opium

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Oxycodone 9143 OxyContin, Percocet, Tylox, Roxicodone, Roxicet,

Oxymorphone 9652 Numorphan

Pentobarbital 2270 N Nembutal

Secobarbital 2315 N Seconal, Tuinal

Thebaine 9333 Precursor of many narcotics

Schedule III

Anabolic steroids 4000 N "Body Building" drugs

Barbituric acid derivative 2100 N Barbiturates not specifically listed

Butabarbital 2100 N Butisol, Butibel

Butalbital 2100 N Fiorinal, Butalbital with aspirin

Codeine & isoquinoline alkaloid 90 mg/du

9803 Codeine with papaverine or noscapine

Dronabinol in sesame oil in soft gelatin capsule

7369 N Marinol, synthetic THC in sesame oil/soft gelatin

Drostanolone 4000 N Drolban, Masterid, Permastril

Ethylestrenol 4000 N Maxibolin, Orabolin, Durabolin-O, Duraboral

Hydrocodone combination product 15 mg/du

9806 Tussionex, Tussend, Lortab, Vicodin, Hycodan, Anexsia ++

Ketamine 7285 N Ketaset, Ketalar, Special K, K

Testosterone 4000 N Android-T, Androlan, Depotest, Delatestryl

Schedule IV

Alprazolam 2882 N Xanax

Dexfenfluramine 1670 N Redux

Diazepam 2765 N Valium, Valrelease

Zolpidem 2783 N Ambien, Stilnoct,Ivadal

Schedule V

Codeine preparations - 200 mg/100 ml or 100 gm

Cosanyl,Robitussin A-C,Cheracol,Cerose,Pediacof

Difenoxin preparations - 0.5 Motofen

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mg/25 ug AtSO4/du

Dihydrocodeine preparations 10 mg/100 ml or 100 gm

Cophene-S, various others

Diphenoxylate preparations 2.5 mg/25 ug AtSO4

Lomotil, Logen

Ethylmorphine preparations 100 mg/100 ml or 100 gm

Opium preparations - 100 mg/100 ml or gm

Parepectolin, Kapectolin PG, Kaolin Pectin P.G.

Pyrovalerone 1485 N Centroton, Thymergix f. Controlled substances identified on the Schedule of Drugs may or may not have a valid medical use. 5. Forensics a. Forensics Article 6. Evidence a. Evidence Procedures Article 7. Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM). The MCM covers a wide scope of legal issues affecting the United States military services. It is broken down into 5 parts and 27 appendices: a. Part 1 - Preamble b. Part 2 - Rules for Courts-Martial c. Part 3 - Military Rules of Evidence d. Part 4 - Punitive Articles e. Part 5 - Non-Judicial Punishment Procedure f. Appendices (1) Constitution of the United States - 1787 (2) Uniform Code of Military Justice (3) DoD Directive 5525.7 (4) Charge Sheet (DD Form 458) (5) Investigating Officer Report (DD Form 457) (6) Forms for Orders Convening Courts-Martial (7) Subpoena (DD Form 453) (8) Guide for General and Special Courts-Martial (9) Guide for Summary Courts-Martial (10) Forms of Findings (11) Forms of Sentences (12) Maximum Punishment Chart (13) Guide for Preparation of Record of Trial by General Court-Martial and by Special Court-Martial When a Verbatim Record is not required

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(14) Guide for Preparation of Record of Trial by General Court-Martial and by Special Court-Martial When a Verbatim Record is required (15) Record of Trial by Summary Court-Martial (DD Form 2329) (16) Forms for Action (17) Forms for Court-Martial Orders (18) Reports of Proceedings to Vacate Suspension of a General Court-Martial or of a Special Court-Martial Sentence Including a Bad-Conduct Discharge or Confinement for One Year Under Article 72, UCMJ, and R.C.M. 1109 (DD Form 455) (19) Waiver/Withdrawal of Appellate Rights in General Courts-Martial Subject to Review by a Court of Military Review (DD Form 2330) (20) Waiver/Withdrawal of Appellate Rights in General Courts-Martial Subject to Examination in the Office of the Judge Advocate General (DD Form 2331) (21) Analysis of Rules for Courts-Martial (22) Analysis of the Military Rules of Evidence (23) Analysis of Punitive Articles (24) Analysis of Nonjudicial Punishment Procedure (25) Historical Executive Orders (26) The Joint Service Committee on Military Justice (JSC) (27) Punitive Articles Applicable to Sexual Assault Offenses Committed Prior to 1 October 2007 8. Uniform Code of Military Justice Punitive Articles:

• Article 77—Principals • Article 78—Accessory After The Fact • Article 79—Conviction of lesser included offenses • Article 80—Attempts • Article 81—Conspiracy • Article 82—Solicitation • Article 83—Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or

separation • Article 84—Effecting unlawful enlistment, appointment, or

separation • Article 85—Desertion • Article 86—Absence without leave • Article 87—Missing movement • Article 88—Contempt toward officials • Article 89—Disrespect toward a superior commissioned

officer

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• Article 90—Assaulting or willfully disobeying superior commissioned officer

• Article 91—Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer

• Article 92—Failure to obey order or regulation • Article 93—Cruelty and maltreatment • Article 94—Mutiny and sedition • Article 95—Resistance, flight, breach of arrest, and escape • Article 96—Releasing prisoner without proper authority • Article 97—Unlawful detention • Article 98—Noncompliance with procedural rules • Article 99—Misbehavior before the enemy • Article 100—Subordinate compelling surrender • Article 101—Improper use of countersign • Article 102—Forcing a safeguard • Article 103—Captured or abandoned property • Article 104—Aiding the enemy • Article 105—Misconduct as a prisoner • Article 106—Spies • Article 106a—Espionage • Article 107—False official statements • Article 108—Military property of the United States—sale,

loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful disposition • Article 109—Property other than military property of the

United States—waste, spoilage, or destruction • Article 110—Improper hazarding of vessel • Article 111–Drunken or reckless operation of vehicle,

aircraft, or vessel • Article 112—Drunk on duty • Article 112a—Wrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled

substances • Article 113—Misbehavior of sentinel or lookout • Article 114—Dueling • Article 115—Malingering • Article 116—Riot or breach of peace • Article 117—Provoking speeches or gestures • Article 118—Murder • Article 119—Manslaughter • Article 119a.--Death or injury of an unborn child • Article 120—Rape, sexual assault, and other sexual

misconduct • Article 120a—Stalking

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• Article 121—Larceny and wrongful appropriation • Article 122—Robbery • Article 123—Forgery • Article 123a—Making, drawing, or uttering check, draft, or

order without sufficient funds • Article 124—Maiming • Article 125—Sodomy • Article 126—Arson • Article 127—Extortion • Article 128—Assault • Article 129—Burglary • Article 130—Housebreaking • Article 131—Perjury • Article 132—Frauds against the United States • Article 133—Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman • Article 134—General article

Articles covered under article 134: o Article 134—(Abusing public animal) o Article 134—(Adultery) o Article 134—(Assault—with intent to commit murder,

voluntary manslaughter, rape, robbery, sodomy, arson, burglary, or housebreaking)

o Article 134—(Bigamy) o Article 134—(Bribery and graft) o Article 134—(Burning with intent to defraud) o Article 134—(Check, worthless, making and uttering—by

dishonorably failing to maintain funds) o Article 134—(Child endangerment) o Article 134—(Cohabitation, wrongful) o Article 134—(Correctional custody—offenses against) o Article 134—(Debt, dishonorably failing to pay) o Article 134—(Disloyal statements) o Article 134—(Disorderly conduct, drunkenness) o Article 134—(Drinking liquor with prisoner) o Article 134—(Drunk prisoner) o Article 134—(Drunkenness—incapacitation for performance

of duties through prior wrongful indulgence in intoxicating liquor or any drug)

o Article 134—(False or unauthorized pass offenses) o Article 134—(False pretenses, obtaining services under) o Article 134—(False swearing) o Article 134—(Firearm, discharging—through negligence) o Article 134—(Firearm, discharging—willfully, under such

circumstances as to endanger human life) o Article 134—(Fleeing scene of accident)

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o Article 134—(Fraternization) o Article 134—(Gambling with subordinate) o Article 134—(Homicide, negligent) o Article 134—(Impersonating a commissioned, warrant,

noncommissioned, or petty officer, or an agent or official)

o Article 134—(Indecent language) o Article 134—(Jumping from vessel into the water) o Article 134—(Kidnapping) o Article 134—(Mail: taking, opening, secreting,

destroying, or stealing) o Article 134—(Mails: depositing or causing to be deposited

obscene matters in) o Article 134—(Misprision of serious offense) o Article 134—(Obstructing justice) o Article 134—(Wrongful interference with an adverse

administrative proceeding) o Article 134—(Pandering and prostitution) o Article 134—(Parole, Violation of) o Article 134—(Perjury: subornation of) o Article 134—(Public record: altering, concealing,

removing, mutilating, obliterating, or destroying) o Article 134—(Quarantine: medical, breaking) o Article 134—(Reckless endangerment) o Article 134—(Requesting commission of an offense) o Article 134—(Restriction, breaking) o Article 134—(Seizure: destruction, removal, or disposal

of property to prevent) o Article 134—(Self-injury without intent to avoid service) o Article 134—(Sentinel or lookout: offenses against or by) o Article 134—(Soliciting another to commit an offense) o Article 134—(Stolen property: knowingly receiving,

buying, concealing) o Article 134—(Straggling) o Article 134—(Testify: wrongful refusal) o Article 134—(Threat or hoax designed or intended to cause

panic or public fear) o Article 134—(Threat, communicating) o Article 134—(Unlawful entry) o Article 134—(Weapon: concealed, carrying) o Article 134—(Wearing unauthorized insignia, decoration,

badge, ribbon, device, or lapel button) 9. Other References. The following link describes other references which you may need during the course of your duties. Some references listed may be cancelled or superseded, but may still be valid for rating examinations until they are updated.

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This is NOT a list of all available references, just those that are more applicable to security duties. REFERENCE FILES a. Reference Lists (1) DoD Instruction Site (2) USN Instruction Site Navy Doctrine Library (3) USA Instruction Site (4) USAF Instruction Site (5) USMC Publication Site 10. Career Paths. The Enlisted Career Roadmap for Master-at-Arms details enlisted education, training and professional career milestones that MA’s should attain within their career, broken down by rank. 11. Schools. The following schools may be required based on your command mission. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. For an unofficial, consolidated list of schools a MA may attend, click here. a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms “A” School (CIN A-830-0011). The student will receive training and be tested on Anti-Terrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure, and Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1F (Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series. b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses, reporting, special operations, and supplementary examinations. c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-830-0019). Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the knowledge and skills needed for patrol and detector dogs. Training includes search techniques in buildings, aircraft,

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vehicles, warehouses, and open areas. Also includes maintenance of dogs' proficiency, legal aspects of searches, security and procurement of drug training aids, maintenance of kennels and equipment, explosives safety, and procurement and security of explosive training aids. d. Military Working Dog Kennel Master (NEC 2006) (CIN A-830-0009). Provides training in manpower, disease prevention, first aid, care of dog kennel and equipment, training and utilization, procurement, reports, forms and records, principals of conditioning, veterinarian support services, and inspection procedures. e. Correctional Specialist Navy (NEC 9575 / 2008) (CIN A-831-0001) To provide selected Petty Officers (NEC 9575) and Master at Arms (NEC 2008) with a working knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are required for the administration, operation, and supervision of Navy Brigs/Correctional Custody Units. f. Brig Staff Afloat (CIN A-831-0003). To provide selected petty officers with a working knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are required for the administrating, operating, and supervising of Navy Brigs Afloat. g. Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving (NEC 2009) (CIN A-840-0001). Provide training in protective services to personnel who conduct Protective Service missions for executive level DoD leaders who are potential targets of terrorism. h. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons characteristics, and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship, range management, and teaching techniques. i. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun, the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as selected Night Vision Electro-Optics at all ashore facilities

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and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course. j. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-830-2215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew-served weapons operator and the ability to assist the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training. k. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. l. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic (CIN A-830-2217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction. m. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and team tactical movements. n. Security Reaction Force – Advanced (CIN A-830-0396). Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements. o. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-830-0035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control (CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the

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intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and Pepper Spray). p. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501) (CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT/ATTT. This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training. q. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and execution. r. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the AT/FP plans. s. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The Security First Responder Course is designed to provide the patrol officer responding to various law enforcement/crisis situations on Naval installations with effective techniques for

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dealing with such situations. Some major topics include: Use of Force, Building Searches, Domestic Violence, Apprehension, Serious Incident Response, and Crimes in Progress. t. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys, use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel, search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy, and crime prevention. u. Level II Coxswain – Operations and Tactics (CIN A-062-0050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is designed to train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF). Tactical boat operations include interdiction, screening, herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, anti-swimmer techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense around shipping and other objects designated as vital to national security. Day and night underway evolutions are conducted on various security craft and the course culminates in a final battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing force craft. v. Naval Coastal Warfare Tactical Supervisor (CIN A-062-0051). Topics addressed in this course include knowledge of battlespace management from a tactical/operational perspective - developing skills for battlespace situational awareness, operational coordination and control via orders development and dissemination, C3, EOD and host nation integration and rules of engagement/self defense for AT/FP and NCW. Practical exercises include development of an in-port security plan and simulated watchstanding exercises emphasizing Tactical Supervisor decision making, boat driving, and protection of the HVA. w. Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course is will train VBSS Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant vessel while maintaining control over crew members. This course is designed to train an entire team together in the operation of specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics and techniques. x. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer (CIN A-2E-0085) prepare the VBSS Boarding Officer (BO),

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Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO), Security Team Leaders (STL), Liaison Officer and Intelligence Specialist (IS) to plan, execute, teach the biometrics collection/equipment and debrief VBSS Procedures (Compliant and Non-Compliant Low Freeboard) in support of Maritime Interception Operations (MIO). y. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher (CIN A-830-0022) Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team personnel to perform mission planning and target analysis duties as a mechanical breacher utilizing appropriate breaching tools and techniques against various target sets in support of Maritime Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard. z. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The student will learn the knowledge, skills, and proper procedures necessary to record and manage ammunition assets. Training includes the generation and management of records relating to requisitions, receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory management and control, Notice of Ammunition Reclassifications (NARS), ammunition reporting, and other pertinent technical safety information. aa. Phoenix Raven Qualification (CIN A-830-0398). This is an Air Force course. This course qualifies selected security personnel to perform as members of a force protection team assigned to deployed AMC aircraft. The course covers mission capabilities and planning, cross-culture and verbal judo communication, mission intelligence sources, legal considerations, embassy operations, explosive detection and procedures, introduction to terrorism, terrorist operations, individual protective measures, detecting terrorist surveillance, hostage survival, airfield surveys, and aircraft familiarization. Extensive training is given in PPCT defensive tactics, ASP Baton training, ground fighting, application of the force continuum, less than lethal force weapons, and firearms training. A written test and exercise scenarios enable students to apply the knowledge learned while performing as members of a PHOENIX RAVEN team. ab. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Force Protection duties in Surveillance Detection allowing commands to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program to train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup

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and conduct overt surveillance detection operations; comply with DoD standardized reporting procedures; and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include Surveillance Detection Program Overview, Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix, Conducting a Target Analysis, Operational Planning, and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well. ac. Customs Border Clearance Agent – Afloat (CIN J-551-0050). Defines procedures and responsibilities and outlines customs and certain agricultural inspection and entry requirements to eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs, and other contraband into the United States through DoD channels. This course follows guidelines set forth in DoD 5030.49R. ad. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) (Local/Regional). This course is designed to train licensed personnel to operate an emergency vehicle (EV) in varying circumstances and conditions. Covers legal topics relating to EV operation, physical factors that affect EV operation, and vehicle specific requirements. Qualification requires successful navigation through tight turns and maneuvers while operating an EV under simulated emergency conditions. ae. Emergency Vehicle Operator’s Course (EVOC) Instructor (CIN A-493-0203). The course is a set of activities/topics in the classroom and on the driving range which cover: Emergency Vehicle Operation, Due Regard while Operating an Emergency Vehicle, Concepts of Managing Visibility and Time, Classroom and Range Procedures, Adult Learning Techniques, Driving Range set up, Testing techniques, Certification/Re-certification Process and Risk related to the driving task. af. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The course provides training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional system development process, preparation and use of training documents, instructional aids and materials, and student measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop, and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or performance methods of instruction. ag. Expeditionary Combat Skills (CIN: A-830-0030). The Expeditionary Combat Skills (ECS) course is designed to provide

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eligible personnel with basic expeditionary combat skills training necessary to professionally and safely perform high risk security operations when assigned to Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) organizations. This course will provide NECC personnel with the necessary individual knowledge, skills and abilities to perform Basic Expeditionary First Aid, don and wear Individual Combat Equipment (ICE) and CBR gear, function safely in a field and CBRNE environment, learn basic Land Navigation, understand basic radio communications procedures and reports, understand Counter-Improvised Explosive Devices (C-IED) operations, and conduct range live fire, missions, and ammunition handling safely with minimum risk. The ECS course will allow personnel to demonstrate, qualify and become comfortable with both primary and secondary weapons. Students will perform basic movement while engaging targets, transitioning from primary to secondary weapon, executing vehicle emergency egress procedures, and conducting live-fire exercises in a controlled environment. Additionally, students will become familiar with the psycho/physiological effects induced during deadly force or life threatening confrontations and measures to effectively minimize their impact on engagement decision making during Judgment-Based Engagement Training (JET). ah. Army Combat Life Saver (CIN G-433-0029). The combat lifesaver is a non-medical sailor trained to provide lifesaving measures beyond the level of self-aid or buddy-aid. A properly trained combat lifesaver is capable of stabilizing many types of casualties and can slow the deterioration of a wounded sailor's condition until medical personnel arrive. Functioning as a combat lifesaver is a secondary mission undertaken when the tactical situation permits. ai. United States Navy (USN) Individual Augmentee (IA) Combat Training (NIACT) (CIN A-250-0100). To prepare Sailors for integration with Army Units performing Army missions in potential combat environments. aj. Riverine Combat Skills Maritime Interdiction Operations Basic (CIN A-020-0020). This course is designed to train NECC personnel in the knowledge and skills required to perform as a member of an Expeditionary Combat Command. The sailor will receive training in individual weapons, munitions, land navigation, combat conditioning, communications, offensive techniques, defensive techniques, scouting and patrolling techniques, and military operations on urban terrain techniques, convoy, Improvised Explosive Device, vehicle check points, searches and night vision devices.

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ak. Navy Riverine Force Small Craft Maritime Interdiction Operations Team Trainer – Advanced (CIN A-840-0397). The course content will include the following: Basic and Advanced Maritime Interdiction Operations, Equipment Familiarization, Boarding Techniques, The use of Force Continuum, Deadly Force Restrictions and Guidelines, Effective Communications Procedures, Combative Tactics, Immediate Action Drills (SOPs), MIO Team Tactics and Firearms procedures and proficiency, Combat Medicine, Mission Planning, Detainee/Prisoner Handling procedures, Craft Familiarization, Full mission Profile scenarios (night/day), Human Intelligence collection procedures, Close Quarters Combat. al. Riverine Crewman (CIN: A-062-0052). To provide Riverine Crewmembers instruction on safety, navigation, communications, operator maintenance, high speed maneuvering and handling, weapons and weapons employment, tactical boat operations and other individual and collective skills unique to riverine crafts operating in a riverine environment. 12. Navy Security Force (NSF) Navy Tactical Task (NTA) List. This list maps NTA’s to NSF required operational capabilities. THIS LIST IS NOT ALL INCLUSIVE, and only demonstrates common tasks normally required for mission accomplishment. 13. Master-at-Arms Core Task List. This list details those tasks/sub-tasks/skills that were determined to be core in the Apprentice, Journeyman and Master skill levels as identified in the Master-at-Arms Training Continuum Conference in May 2009. While individual duty station watch stations may vary, or require additional training, it was decided that the attached skills represented core knowledge/skill requirements at the Apprentice, Journeyman and Master skill levels. 14. Master-at-Arms Professional Certifications. The Navy Credentialing Opportunities Online (COOL) office administers the Navy Credentialing program. Master-at-Arms are eligible for numerous certifications based on their training and experience (https://www.cool.navy.mil/ma.htm). MA’s are also eligible for other certifications based on their other military duties. Funding for approved programs will be paid for by Navy COOL. See web site for complete details. 15. Master-at-Arms Apprenticeship Programs. Completion of a Department of Labor approved Apprenticeship program shows potential employers completion of an industry standard training

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and skills in an On The Job training setting. Currently, Master-at-Arms can apply through the U.S. Military Apprenticeship Program Office (USMAP) for: Police Office I Security Specialist

COURSE OBJECTIVES

The objective of this course is to provide Masters-at-Arms with occupational information in the following mission areas: Installation Security, Expeditionary Security, Shipboard Security, Corrections, Strategic Weapons, Strategic Aircraft, Protective Services, Staff Duty as well as guidance on weapons and the Use of Force, and other organizational and legal issues. INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING THE COURSE ASSIGNMENTS

The links and material that you are to study are included in each chapter. Study the material and links carefully before attempting to answer the questions. Pay close attention to tables and illustrations, and read the information in the links. The assignment questions for each chapter are included at the end of chapter 10. Answering the questions correctly helps to accomplish the objectives.

SELECTING YOUR ANSWERS

Read each question carefully, and then select the BEST answer. You may refer freely to the text. The answers must be the result of your own work and decisions. You are prohibited from referring to or copying the answers of others and from giving answers to anyone else taking the course.

SUBMITTING YOUR ASSIGNMENTS

To have your assignments graded, you must be enrolled in the course with the Nonresident Training Course Administration Branch. Following enrollment, there are two ways of having your assignments graded:

• Use the Internet to submit your assignments as you complete them

• Send all the assignments at one time by mail to CPPD, NRTC

Grading on the Internet: Advantages to Internet grading are:

• You may submit your answers as soon as you complete an assignment

• You get your results faster

• In addition to receiving grade results for each assignment,

you will receive course completion confirmation once you

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have completed all the assignments. To submit your assignment answers via the Internet, go to:

https://www.courses.cnet.navy.mil

Grading by Mail: When you submit answer sheets by mail, send all of your assignments at one time. Do NOT submit individual answer sheets for grading. Mail all of your assignments in an envelope, which you either provide yourself or obtain from your nearest Educational Services Officer (ESO). Submit answer sheets to:

COMMANDING OFFICER, CPPD, VOLED DET (NRTC) N211 6490 SAUFLEY FIELD ROAD PENSACOLA, FL 32559-5000

Answer Sheets: Each course includes an answer sheet for your assignments. If you are going to mail in your answer sheets, please make copies of the included answer sheet. Explanations for completing the answer sheets are on the answer sheet.

Follow the instructions for marking your answers on the answer sheet. Be sure that blocks 1, 2, and 3 are filled in correctly. This information is necessary for your course to be properly processed and for you to receive credit for your work.

COMPLETION TIME

Courses must be completed within 12 months from the date of enrollment. This includes time required to resubmit failed assignments.

PASS/FAIL ASSIGNMENT PROCEDURES

You will be given the opportunity to resubmit failed assignments. You may resubmit failed assignments only once. Internet students will receive notification when they have failed an assignment--they may then resubmit failed assignments on the web site. Internet students may view and print results for failed assignments from the web site. Students who submit by mail will receive a failing result letter and a new answer sheet for resubmission of each failed assignment.

COMPLETION CONFIRMATION

After successfully completing this course, can download a copy of your letter of completion on the NRTC web site: https://www.courses.cnet.navy.mil

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STUDENT FEEDBACK QUESTIONS

We value your suggestions, questions, and criticisms on our courses. If you would like to communicate with us regarding this course, we encourage you, if possible, to use e-mail. If you write or fax, please use a copy of the Student Comment form that follows this page.

For subject matter questions: Contact the following Navy Center of Excellence Center for Security Forces (CSF) 757-462-2189 or DSN 253-2189 For enrollment, shipping, grading, or completion letter questions: Email: NRTC@navy.mil

Phone: Toll Free 1-877-264-8583

Comm: 850-452-1511

DSN: 922-1511

FAX: 850-452-1370

(Do NOT fax answer sheets)

ADDRESS:

COMMANDING OFFICER

CENTER FOR PERSONAL AND PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT

ATTN: VOLED DET (NRTC)

6490 SAUFLEY FIELD RD

PENSACOLA FL 32509

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Student Comments Course Title: Master-at-Arms___________________________________ NAVEDTRA: 14137A___________ Date: ________________________ We need some information about you: Rate/Rank and Name: ____________________________________________ SSN: ___________________________________________________________ Command/Unit: __________________________________________________ Street Address: ________________________________________________ City: __________________________________________________________ State/FPO: _____________________________________________________ ZIP: ___________________________________________________________ Your comments, suggestions, ect: ________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________

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Privacy Act Statement: Under authority of Title 5, USC 301, information regarding your military status is requested in processing your comments and in preparing a reply. This information will not be divulged without written authorization to anyone other than those within DOD for official use in determining performance. NETPDTC 1550/41 (Rev 4-00)

Assignment 1-1

Assignment 1: Installation Security (Questions from pages 1-1 through 1-25)

1. What represents the machinery by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities?

a. Administration b. Command and control c. Communications d. Organization

2. Administration provides for uniformity of operations in light of the continuing turnover of personnel within the naval service.

a. True b. False 3. Which element of administration involves developing a

selected course of future action? a. Command and control b. Communications c. Organization d. Planning

4. Which element of administration is the authority which a commander in the military service lawfully exercises over his or her subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?

a. Command b. Communications c. Organization d. Planning

Assignment 1-2

5. Which element of administration entails the orderly

arrangement of materials and personnel by functions in order to obtain the objective of the unit?

a. Command and control b. Communications c. Organization d. Planning

6. Which element links together each of the elements of administration and applies equally to all of them?

a. Command and control b. Communications c. Organization d. Planning

7. Who is responsible for the overall management of a Security Detachment or Department?

a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Assistant Security Officer c. Commanding Officer d. Security Officer

8. From which functional area does the Security Officer maintain records and correspondence?

a. Administration b. Communications c. Logistics d. Planning

9. From which functional area does the Security Officer develop AT plans?

a. Administration b. Communications c. Operations d. Planning

Assignment 1-3

10. From which functional area does the Security Officer direct the AT efforts?

a. Communications b. Logistics c. Operations d. Training

11. From which functional area does the Security Officer

acquire a MWD asset?

a. Communications b. Logistics c. Personnel Management d. Training

12. From which functional area does the Security Officer

disseminate information?

a. Communications b. Operations c. Personnel Management d. Training

13. From which functional area does the Security Officer

discipline security force members?

a. Administration b. Operations c. Personnel Management d. Training

14. How often should the Security Officer conduct a

detailed review of all Security Force post orders?

a. At least Annually b. At least Monthly c. At least Semi-Annually d. At least Weekly

Assignment 1-4

15. What document authorizes the Commander’s Authority for the protection or security of DoD property or places?

a. Section 20 of the Internal Security Act of 1949 b. Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1949 c. Section 20 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 d. Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950

16. For security departments having a total combined

strength (military and civilian including contract security personnel) of __________ or more persons, an assistant security officer should be considered for assignment to run the department’s day to day operation.

a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200

17. Who develops and manages the AT/FP program?

a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Assistant Security Officer c. Command Duty Officer d. Security Officer

18. After completing the required minimum ATO training,

who is authorized to be an ATO?

a. Commissioned Officer b. Chief Petty Officer c. Civilian GS-11 or higher d. All of the above

19. What Navy Level II training course trains ATOs in AT

procedures?

a. ATO A-830-0015 b. ATO J-830-0015 c. ATO A-850-0015 d. ATO J-850-0015

Assignment 1-5

20. The ATO manages resources that may include

watchstander gear, security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment.

a. True b. False

21. Which of the following is an example of Random

Antiterrorism Measure (RAM)?

a. Closing a base access gate at 1800 every day b. Closing a base access gate without warning c. Security checkpoint from dusk to dawn d. 100% ID check at the main gate

22. Who conducts interviews/interrogations and collects,

seizes, preserves, documents and stores evidence?

a. Investigator b. Security Officer c. Sentry d. Watch Officer

23. Who is responsible for facilitating and establishing

policy for the Navy’s law enforcement/investigative programs?

a. ATO b. CSI c. NCIS d. SECO

24. What log will be kept of an interview/interrogation?

a. OPNAV 5580/5 b. OPNAV 5580/7 c. SECNAV 5580/5 d. SECNAV 5580/7

Assignment 1-6

25. Which security operation job primary duties involve

manning a stationary/static guard position, a walking post, or a security patrol?

a. MWD Handler b. Patrol Officer c. Reaction Force Member d. Sentry

26. Which security operation job primary duties involve

law enforcement?

a. MWD Handler b. Patrol Officer c. Reaction Force Member d. Sentry

27. Running a commercial vehicle inspection station is a

primary duty of the Vehicle/Boat inspector.

a. True b. False

28. Who is in charge of the security boat and its mission?

a. Harbor Security Boat Coxswain b. Harbor Security Boat Crew Member c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

29. Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective

fire during security boat operations?

a. Harbor Security Boat Coxswain b. Harbor Security Boat Crew Member c. Harbor Security Boat Gunner d. Reaction Force Member

Assignment 1-7

30. Who provides the link between the community and

emergency services?

a. Emergency Dispatcher b. On-Scene Commander c. Patrol Officer d. Patrol Supervisor

31. Who is responsible for security, safety,

accountability, classification, maintenance, requisitions, issuance, demilitarization, and proper disposal of arms and ammunition?

a. Armory/AA&E Supervisor b. AA&E Custodian/Armorer c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

32. Who maintains the security unit armory or ready for

issue room; conducts inspection of unit assigned weapons, ammunition, and storage spaces?

a. Armory/AA&E Supervisor b. AA&E Custodian/Armorer c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

33. Who handles, maintains, and trains a MWD to operate in

both detector and patrol functions?

a. Kennel Master b. MWD Handler c. MWD Supervisor d. MWD Trainer

34. Who is normally assigned to an installation where

there are seven or more MWD teams assigned?

a. MWD Decoy b. MWD Kennel Master c. MWD Supervisor d. MWD Trainer

Assignment 1-8

35. What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Handler?

a. 2003 b. 2004 c. 2005 d. 2006

36. What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Kennel

Master?

a. 2003 b. 2004 c. 2005 d. 2006

37. A Master-at-Arms can receive the Military Working Dog

Handler NEC thru on-the-job-training (OJT).

a. True b. False

38. MWD handlers originally trained solely for patrol dog

handling may receive comprehensive OJT for detector dog handling.

a. True b. False

39. Who determines the duty cycles, duty hours, and

methods of using MWD teams? a. Command Duty Officer b. Kennel Master c. Security Officer d. Both B and C are correct

Assignment 1-9

40. Personnel who have been relieved of police duties for

misconduct pending investigation/disciplinary action, etc., can be assigned to kennel support duties.

a. True b. False

41. What are the minimum hours per week for a handler to

use a drug/explosive detector dog for drug/explosive interdiction sweeps?

a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10

42. Which form is used for MWD Training and Utilization

Record? a. 5585/1 b. 5585/2 c. 5585/3 d. 5585/4

43. Which form is used for Canine Validity Test Data? a. 5585/5 b. 5585/6 c. 5585/7 d. 5585/8

44. Which form is used for Detector Dog Training and

Utilization Record? a. 5585/2 b. 5585/3 c. 5585/4 d. 5585/5

Assignment 1-10

45. Which form is used for MWD Utilization Record

(Supplemental)? a. 5585/2 b. 5585/3 c. 5585/4 d. 5585/6

46. Which form is used for MWD Status Report? a. 5585/2 b. 5585/3 c. 5585/4 d. 5585/5

47. What proficiency level is a detector dog that can

detect a training aid 6-7 feet high? a. Level Three b. Level Five c. Level Seven d. Level Twelve

48. What proficiency level is a detector dog that can

detect a training aid 0-6 feet high? a. Level One b. Level Two c. Level Three d. Level Four

49. What proficiency level is a detector dog that can

detect a training aid 3-4 feet deep? a. Level Three b. Level Five c. Level Seven d. Level Nine

Assignment 1-11

50. Who tactically leads Reaction Force to its objectives? a. Patrol Supervisor b. Reaction Force Member c. Reaction Force Team Leader d. Watch Commander

51. Who may augment fixed posts? a. Harbor Patrol b. Patrol Guard c. Reaction Force Member d. Sentry

52. How many hours per week should a basic Special

Reaction Team perform sustainment training? a. No less than two hours per week b. No less than four hours per week c. No less than eight hours per week d. No less than ten hours per week

53. How often should the Security Officer conduct an

evaluation of the Special Reaction Team? a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Semi-Annually d. Annually

54. Who is responsible for supervising all watch section

functions to include: Patrol, sentries, emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor, harbor security, and the armory?

a. Assistant Security Officer b. Chief of the Guard c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

Assignment 1-12

55. The senior security operations member at the scene of an incident, unless otherwise designated by the Security Officer, who possesses the required tactical skills shall assume the duties as On-Scene Commander.

a. True b. False

56. Who is responsible to the Security Officer for the day

to day operations and job execution of unit’s Security Forces providing law enforcement, physical security, and force protection services?

a. Assistant Security Officer b. Patrol Supervisor c. Security Operations Officer d. Watch Commander

57. Who is responsible for mobile supervision of patrols

and sentries and acts as back up relief for the watch commander?

a. Patrol Officer b. Patrol Supervisor c. Security Operations Officer d. Watch Supervisor

58. Who manages command security and AT training, the

Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel Qualification System (PQS) programs?

a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Field Training Officer c. Patrol Supervisor d. Trainer

Assignment 1-13

59. Who manages command Antiterrorism/Force Protection

program? a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Security Officer c. Trainer d. Both A and C are correct

60. What collateral duty of the Trainer/Planner supervises

the training program? a. Advanced Security Force Planner b. Assistant Security Officer c. Security Force Trainer d. Security Training Supervisor

61. Who maintains, stores, processes, inventories, and

transfers custody of evidence? a. Chief of the Guard b. Evidence Custodian c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

62. What is the OPNAV number of the bound evidence log? a. 5580/22 b. 5580/24 c. 5590/22 d. 5590/24

63. What is the OPNAV number of the Evidence/Property

Custody Document (ECD)? a. 5580/22 b. 5580/24 c. 5590/22 d. 5590/24

Assignment 1-14

64. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFAs) establish the rights and obligations of the U.S. and Host Nations where our forces are stationed.

a. True b. False

65. Who develops the Post Order for each fixed and mobile

post? a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Assistant Security Officer c. Security Officer d. Watch Commander

For the following 5 questions (66-70), answer each Antiterrorism measure definition with its term 66. Visible security measures to create a “hard target”

that is difficult to attack and to disrupt terrorist cycle of operations through the use of Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs)

a. Defend b. Detect c. Deter d. Mitigate

67. Alert, well-trained, and well-equipped watchstanders

armed with current intelligence to recognize and report incidents of preoperational surveillance and track potential threats

a. Defend b. Detect c. Deter d. Mitigate

Assignment 1-15

68. Measures and procedures commensurate with the threat

level; and based on a recent vulnerability assessment; protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure and personnel, and identify, classify, and neutralize threats through well-rehearsed preplanned responses

a. Defend b. Detect c. Deter d. Mitigate

69. Measures and procedures that minimize consequences of

a terrorist attack a. Defend b. Detect c. Mitigate d. Recover

70. Measures that restore mission effectiveness a. Detect b. Deter c. Mitigate d. Recover

71. What is the definition of Force Protection Condition

Alpha? a. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat

of terrorist activity exists b. Applies when there is an increased general threat of

possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable

c. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely

d. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

Assignment 1-16

72. What is the definition of Force Protection Condition

Bravo? a. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat

of terrorist activity exists b. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is

received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely

c. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

d. Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable

73. What is the definition of Force Protection Condition

Charlie? a. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat

of terrorist activity exists b. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is

received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely

c. Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable

d. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

Assignment 1-17

74. What is the definition of Force Protection Condition

Delta? a. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is

received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely

b. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

c. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

d. Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable

75. Commanders will transform general measures and

procedures contained in each FPCON into specific measures and procedures to protect their critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure, and personnel.

a. True b. False

76. All vulnerabilities identified through an IVA or self-

assessments must be reflected into what program? a. CVAMP b. CLEOC c. JSIVA d. NCIC

Assignment 1-18

77. Commanders shall ensure that physical security surveys

of their activities are conducted __________ and the results addressed as a part of their command review and assessment program.

a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Semi-Annually d. Annually

78. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Antiterrorism Training Supervisor? a. 9501 b. 9502 c. 9503 d. 9504

79. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Journeyman Instructor? a. 9501 b. 9502 c. 9503 d. 9504

80. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor?

a. 0811 b. 0812 c. 0813 d. 0814

81. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Crew Served Weapons Instructor?

a. 0811 b. 0812 c. 0813 d. 0814

Assignment 1-19

82. What is the purpose of the Long Range Training Plan?

a. Designed to document the weekly and monthly training

to be conducted b. Designed to document the monthly and quarterly

training to be conducted c. Designed to document the quarterly and semi-annual

training to be conducted d. Designed to document the quarterly and annual training

to be conducted

83. Which course provides the designated Installation

Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets?

a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor c. Naval Security Force Officer d. Navy Security Force Sentry

84. Which school teaches the student knowledge, skills,

and proper procedures necessary to record and manage ammunition assets?

a. Ammunition Supply Administration b. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force c. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course d. Crew Served Weapons Instructor

Assignment 2-1

Assignment 2: Expeditionary Security (Questions from pages 2-1 through 2-27)

1. At which of the following commands do Security Force Specialists serve in an Expeditionary capacity?

a. NAS Sigonella b. NSA Norfolk c. Riverine Squadron One d. USS ENTERPRISE (CVN 65)

2. Which of the following missions is not included in the NECC Battlespace?

a. Intelligence Collection b. Maritime Civil Affairs c. Airfield Security d. Strategic Weapons Security 3. Crew Composition for small craft in Maritime

Expeditionary Security Forces include all the following except:

a. Reactionary Force b. Coxswain c. Engineer d. Crewman/gunner

4. How many sailors comprise an Embarked Security Team? a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

5. Which of the following boats are not used by MESF

forces? a. SURC b. 34-foot Dauntless SeaArk c. Organization d. 11 meter RHIB

Assignment 2-2

6. Management of the watch team and direct control of all watch positions are the duty of which position?

a. Tactical Supervisor b. Chief Of the Guard c. Reactionary Team d. Platoon leader

7. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to develop, manage, and provide adaptive force package training?

a. NAVELSG b. ETG c. ETC d. MESF

8. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to deliver to a worldwide audience maritime expeditionary core capability training and instruction?

a. NAVELSG b. ETG c. ETC d. MESF

9. Which of the following acronyms refers to mission planning?

a. CVAMP b. BOGSAT c. BAMCIS d. MOPP

10. Which of the following instructions covers boat operations?

a. NTTP 3-5 b. NTTP 3-10 c. NTTP 3-15 d. NTTP 3-20

Assignment 2-3

11. Which of the following instructions covers convoy operations?

a. NTTP 4-01.3 b. NTTP 4-10.3 c. NTTP 4-30.1 d. NTTP 4-03.1

12. Which of the following instructions covers maritime

interception operations?

a. NTTP 3-07.13 b. NTTP 3-07.12 c. NTTP 4-01.3 d. NTTP 3-07.11

13. Which of the following instructions covers weapons

handling and characteristics?

a. OPNAVINST 5530.13C b. OPNAVINST 5580.1A c. NTRP 3-07.2 d. NTRP 3-07.2.2

14. Which of the following instructions covers RAVEN

Operations?

a. OPNAVINST 5530.14D b. OPNAVINST 5530.13C c. AMCI 31-104 d. MCWP 3-15.11

15. Which of the following instructions covers crew served

weapons employment?

a. NTTP 3-07.13 b. NTTP 3-07.12 c. MCWP 3-15.11 d. MCWP 3-15.1

Assignment 2-4

16. The Inshore Boat Unit is part of what area?

a. Naval Coastal Warfare b. Naval Riverine Force c. Naval Security Force d. Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force

Protection Detachment 17. Where is Riverine Group One located?

a. Corpus Christi, TX b. Mayport, FL c. Norfolk, VA d. San Diego, CA

18. Which area provides waterborne security for Navy

installations and is part of an installation’s organic security force?

a. Naval Coastal Warfare b. Naval Riverine Force c. Naval Security Force d. Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force

Protection Detachment 19. What is Mobile Security Detachment (MSD) personnel not

trained to conduct?

a. Entry control point operations, including teams to clear small boats before they come alongside a protected asset

b. Perimeter security around a pier c. Visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) operations d. Waterside security operations limited to harbor

operating areas 20. Who does the ATTWO report to while in port?

a. CO b. CDO c. TAO d. XO

Assignment 2-5

21. Who does the COG report to?

a. ATTWO b. CO c. TAO d. XO

22. Who Coordinates integration of waterborne and

shoreside AT/FP assets into installation security forces?

a. ATTWO b. CO c. TAO d. XO

23. Who is the senior enlisted security force member who

supervises AT/FP Watchstanders?

a. CDO b. COG c. OOD d. TAO

24. When moored at a U.S. Navy installation, ship’s pier

and waterborne watchstanders will be under the tactical control of the installation’s security force.

a. True b. False

25. Preplanned surveillance detection countermeasures to

deter terrorist activities can include installing mechanical devices, varying modes of watchstander behavior, and employing physical barriers.

a. True b. False

Assignment 2-6

26. What is the ECP’s second layer of defense?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

27. What is the ECP’s last layer of defense?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

28. Who is responsible for all personnel and weapons at an

ECP?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

29. Who conducts vehicle inspections, as assigned, based

on FPCON and installation procedures?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

30. Who should be positioned behind ballistic protection?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

Assignment 2-7

31. Who makes initial contact with individuals seeking

entry onto an installation or pier?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

32. What Level is used to protect a security interest that

if lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged would cause serious damage to the command mission or gravely harm the operational capability of the United States?

a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4

33. What Level is used to protect a security interest that

if lost, stolen, compromised or sabotaged would cause great harm to the command mission or strategic capability of the United States?

a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4

34. What Level is used protect a security interest that if

lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged would cause damage to the command mission or impact upon the tactical capability of the United States?

a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4

Assignment 2-8

35. Who augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces,

and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings?

a. Contact Sentry b. Pier Sentry c. Reaction Force d. Weapons Team

36. Who maintains a master listing of all security unit

weapons and the assignment of those weapons?

a. Armorer b. Commanding Officer c. Command Duty Officer d. Chief of the Guard

37. Prior to issuing any firearm or ammunition to any

individual, the issuing activity will require that the individual execute a DD Form __________.

a. 2740 b. 2750 c. 2760 d. 2770

38. What form must remain in your possession while

carrying a firearm on duty? a. OPNAV 5511/2 b. OPNAV 5512/1 e. OPNAV 5511/1 f. OPNAV 5512/2

39. An armed response force must be able to respond within

25 minutes of an alarm or report of intrusion in AA&E storage areas.

a. True b. False

Assignment 2-9

40. How many years must a security check log of an AA&E be

kept? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

41. Who is normally in charge of the rear convoy element

to monitor rear security? a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC

42. Who is charged with responsibility for the planning,

preparation, execution, and tactical employment of a convoy?

a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC

43. Who is responsible for standard equipment requirements

(ammunition, food, water, fuel, etc.) as well as organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicle?

a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC

Assignment 2-10

44. Who ensures vehicle is on correct route via map or

global positioning system (GPS) based movement tracking system (Blue Force Tracker, Movement Tracking System (MTS), and/or Qualcomm)?

a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC

45. Who is responsible for fueling and maintaining

vehicle? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. LVC

46. Who is responsible for primary and alternate sectors

of fire? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. Guardian Angels

47. Who assists the CC to ensure proportionate fire is

used for any given threat? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. Guardian Angels

48. Who are emplaced in hidden positions where they can

observe and engage the enemy before they can attack the convoy?

a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Guardian Angels d. Security Personnel

Assignment 2-11

49. Who renders medical treatment and supervises

evacuation of casualties? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team

50. Who prepare casualties for movement and/or evacuation? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team

51. Who is responsible for establishing and marking the

landing zone for possible MEDEVAC or other required support provided by air?

a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team

52. What is assigned or attached to hardened vehicles with

CSWs to provide suppressive fire support to the convoy as well as to serve as a deterrent to potential threat forces?

a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team

Assignment 2-12

53. Who makes initial determination as to the adequacy of

the intended fastrope landing zone (LZ) for HVBSS insertions?

a. ACC b. AFC c. AMC d. ATL

54. Who provides a precision marksman (PM) for all HVBSS

missions and VBSS missions if required? a. Commanding Officer b. HVBSS Team Leader c. LEDET Team Leader d. SOF Commander

55. Who provides and controls mission-ready aircraft and

aircrews to support the HVBSS operation? a. ACC b. AFC c. OSC d. VIC

56. HVBSS is an option during daylight or night time

without LEDET OPORD authorization. a. True b. False

57. What instruction provides procedures for Enemy

Prisoners of War, Civilian Internees, Retained Persons, and other Detainees?

a. OPNAVINST 3461.6 b. OPNAVINST 3641.4 c. SECNAVINST 3461.6 d. SECNAVINST 3641.4

Assignment 2-13

58. Reaction forces are armed personnel quickly responding to threats and incidents, augmenting Navy security forces, auxiliary security forces, and on-watch personnel.

a. True b. False

59. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the M11 service pistol at the clearing barrel?

a. Para 2.3 b. Para 3.3 c. Para 4.3 d. Para 5.3

60. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the M9 service pistol at the clearing barrel?

a. Para 2.3 b. Para 3.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para 6.3

61. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the M16 rifle at the clearing barrel?

a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para 6.3

62. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the M14 rifle at the clearing barrel?

a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para 6.3

Assignment 2-14

63. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the Mossberg 500 shotgun at the clearing barrel?

a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para 6.3

64. What is a single-shot weapon designed for use with the

M16A3 rifle and fires a 40mm grenade? a. M201 b. M203 c. M302 d. M79

65. Who exercises local control of assigned small boats

and associated personnel and reports directly to the TACSUP?

a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader

66. Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective

fire during security boat operations? a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader

Assignment 2-15

67. Who is responsible for the operations, care, and

maintenance of all propulsion, auxiliary machinery, damage control, communication systems, electrical and electronic devices on a patrol boat?

a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader

68. A Riverine Squadron consists of specially designed

craft configured to operate in harbors of Navy bases. a. True b. False

69. Identify the boat pictured below?

a. RAC b. RCB c. RPC d. None of the above

Assignment 2-16

70. Identify the boat pictured below?

a. RAC b. RCB c. RPC d. None of the above

71. Identify the boat pictured below?

a. RAC b. RCB c. RCP d. None of the above

Assignment 2-17

72. What is the CIN for the Navy Security Force Sentry School?

a. A-830-2216 b. A-830-2217 c. C-830-2216 d. C-830-2217

73. What is the CIN for the Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit

Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member School?

a. A-2E-0085 b. A-830-0022 c. A-830-0033 d. A-830-0395

74. What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and

Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer School?

a. A-2E-0085 b. A-830-0022 c. A-830-0033 d. A-830-0395

75. What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and

Seizure (VBSS) Breacher School?

a. A-2E-0085 b. A-830-0022 c. A-830-0033 d. A-830-0395

Assignment 3-1

Assignment 3: Shipboard Security (Questions from pages 3-1 through 3-21)

1. Who has the primary duty working as a member of a security boat team or manning a crew-served weapon to provide protective fire during security boat operations?

a. Harbor Security Boat Coxswain b. Harbor Security Boat Crew Member c. Harbor Security Boat Gunner d. Both B and C are correct 2. Who can be assigned as a Command Antiterrorism Officer

(ATO)? a. A Commissioned Officer b. Chief Petty Officer (E-7 to E-9) c. GS-11 or higher civilian staff officer d. All the above are correct

3. What is the primary reference for Physical Security/Antiterrorism?

a. NTTP 3-07.2.1 b. NTTP 3-07.2.2 c. OPNAVINST 5530.14D d. SECNAVINST 1640.9C

4. Who is responsible for supervising all watch section responsibilities including the emergency dispatcher?

a. Field Training Officer b. Operations Officer c. Security Officer d. Watch Commander

Assignment 3-2

5. Who is responsible for the overall management of a

Security Detachment or Department?

a. Anti-Terrorism Officer b. Assistant Security Officer c. Commanding Officer d. Security Officer

6. What is the primary reference for Customs Inspections of operational ships and aircraft?

a. OPNAVINST 5530.13C b. OPNAVINST 5530.14D c. OPNAVINST 5840.2 d. SECNAVINST 1640.9C

7. Crime prevention is the pro-active method to reduce criminal opportunities, protect potential victims, and prevent loss of property.

a. True b. False 8. What are three types of small arms commonly carried by

master-at-arms while conducting watch standing duties?

a. M7 9mm Pistol, Mossberg 500 Shotgun, M16A Rifle b. M9 9mm Pistol, Mossberg 500 Shotgun, M14 Rifle c. M9 9mm Pistol, Mossberg 500 Shotgun, M16A Rifle d. M9 9mm Pistol, M60 Machine Gun, M16A Rifle

9. Which security operation job primary duties involve law enforcement?

a. MWD Handler b. Patrol Officer c. Reaction Force Member d. Sentry

Assignment 3-3

10. Running a commercial vehicle inspection station is a primary duty of the Vehicle/Boat inspector.

a. True b. False

11. Who is normally in charge of the security boat and its

mission?

a. Harbor Security Boat Coxswain b. Harbor Security Boat Crew Member c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

12. Any boat or craft has the potential to be terrorist-

driven weapon.

a. True b. False

13. A harbor security boat crewmember/gunner may not

verify vessel credentials.

a. True b. False

14. Preplanned surveillance detection countermeasures to deter terrorist activities can include installing mechanical devices, varying modes of watchstander behavior, and employing physical barriers.

a. True b. False

Assignment 3-4

15. Who is responsible for security, safety,

accountability, classification, maintenance, requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper disposal of arms and ammunition?

a. Armory/AA&E Supervisor b. AA&E Custodian/Armorer c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

16. What document provides a detailed description of

Security Officer and Security Force duties?

a. NTTP 3-07.2 b. NTTP 3-07.2.1 c. OPNAVINST 5530.14 d. SECNAVINST 5530.4

17. Whose duties include supervision of personnel and

property inspections, pier access and control, vehicle check points, clearing barrel procedures, watch turnover, and security threat response?

a. Assistant Security Officer b. Chief of the Guard c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

18. Who is directly responsible to the patrol watch

commander for training on patrol/law enforcement duties?

a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Field Training Officer c. Patrol Supervisor d. Trainer

Assignment 3-5

19. Who directs the Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)? a. Antiterrorism Officer b. Assistant Security Officer c. Command Duty Officer d. Security Officer

20. Who is responsible for the first layer of defense at

the Entry Control Point (ECP)?

a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team

21. What procedures standardize watch turnover between

oncoming and offgoing personnel? a. Clearing Barrel b. Guard Mount c. Watch Turnover d. Weapons Turnover

22. Which is not the purpose of a clearing barrel? a. Load and Make Ready b. Test Fire c. Unload d. Unload, Show Clear

23. What should always be followed prior to using a

clearing barrel? a. Inspect general condition of clearing barrel b. Inspect behind/adjacent to clearing barrel c. Clear unnecessary personnel away from clearing barrel d. All of the above

Assignment 3-6

24. Who is in charge of the security boat and its mission? a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader

25. Which course teaches basic tactical individual and

team movements? a. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic b. Navy Security Force Sentry c. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic d. Security Reaction Force – Advanced

26. Which course teaches basic sentry skills to include

weapons handling and non-lethal weapons? a. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic b. Navy Security Force Sentry c. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic d. Security Reaction Force – Advanced

27. In which school will Team members learn how to deal

with potential threats, whether from the pier, small boat, or any other means of penetrating a unit under emergency conditions, by utilizing proper reaction force measures and tactical team movements?

a. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic b. Navy Security Force Sentry c. Security Reaction Force Team Member – Basic d. Security Reaction Force – Advanced

28. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Antiterrorism Training Supervisor? a. 9501 b. 9502 c. 9503 d. 9504

Assignment 3-7

29. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Small Arms Instructor?

a. 0811 b. 0812 c. 0813 d. 0814

30. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Crew Served Weapons Instructor?

a. 0811 b. 0812 c. 0813 d. 0814

31. Who primarily responds to heightened security states including security alerts and incidents, augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings?

a. Duty Master-at-Arms b. Patrol Watch Commander c. Reaction Force Member d. Section Leader

32. Who does the Security Officer report to when he/she is

a Division Officer?

a. Commanding Officer b. Combat Systems Officer c. Executive Officer d. Operations Officer

33. When the Security Officer is a Department Head he/she

reports to the Commanding Officer.

a. True b. False

Assignment 3-8

34. A Patrol officer may be assigned on larger platforms.

a. True b. False

35. Who maintains the security unit armory or ready for

issue room?

a. AA&E Custodian/Armorer b. Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) c. Armory/AA&E Supervisor d. Watch Commander

36. Who conducts post inspections?

a. Assistant Security Officer (ASECO) b. Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commander

37. The watch commander is responsible for supervising

mobile and fixed posts.

a. True b. False

38. Who is responsible to the Security Officer for the day

to day operations and job execution of unit’s Security Forces providing law enforcement, physical security, antiterrorism, and force protection services

a. Assistant Security Officer (ASECO) b. Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) c. Operations Officer d. Security Operations Officer

39. Who acts as back up relief for the watch commander?

a. Assistant Security Officer b. Chief of the Guard c. Patrol Supervisor d. Watch Commanders Assistant

Assignment 3-9

40. Who tactically employs command assets to defend the

unit against terrorist attack when in port?

a. Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) b. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (ATTWO) c. Assistant Security Officer (ASECO) d. Tactical Action Officer (TAO)

Assignment 4-1

Assignment 4: Corrections (Questions from pages 4-1 through 4-10)

1. Members are sentenced to confinement __________ punishment not _______ punishment.

a. As, As b. As, For c. For, As d. For, For

2. Prisoners forced to comply with unreasonable routines __________ respect for authority.

a. Follow b. Lose c. Love d. Obey 3. Punishment alone is always corrective. a. True b. False

4. As a Corrections Specialist you will never encounter EPWs.

a. True b. False

5. The three types of prisoners you would encounter most often are Adjudged, Detained, and Sentenced.

a. True b. False

6. What are the types of shore brigs?

a. Consolidated/level I, Waterfront/level I b. Consolidated/level I, Waterfront/level II c. Consolidated/level II, Waterfront/level I d. Consolidated/level II, Waterfront/level II

Assignment 4-2

7. Which shore facility also houses CCU?

a. Consolidated/level I b. Consolidated/level II c. Waterfront/level I d. Waterfront/level II

8. The ultimate goal of the incentive program is to build self-discipline, reward negative behavior, and improve function of the facility.

a. True b. False

9. Who is responsible to maintain good order and discipline; carry out POD; and ensure the health, welfare and safety of staff and prisoners?

a. Control center supervisor b. Receiving and release supervisor c. Restoration and pre-release d. Ship’s Brig Supervisor

10. What SECNAVINST governs the Military Corrections Program?

a. 1640.9C b. 1650.4C c. 1690.4C d. 1690.9C

11. Restoration and pre-release are two training programs

offered to prisoners.

a. True b. False

Assignment 4-3

12. Who determines a prisoner’s work assignment?

a. Control center supervisor b. Classification and assignment c. Receiving and release supervisor d. Restoration and pre-release

13. Who is the first point of contact during the intake

phase?

a. Control center supervisor b. Receiving and release supervisor c. Restoration and pre-release d. Ship’s Brig Supervisor

14. What is considered the HUB of the Brig?

a. Control center supervisor b. Receiving and release supervisor c. Restoration and pre-release d. Ship’s Brig Supervisor

15. Confinement facilities provide a climate conducive to

positive change with programs tailored to the needs of prisoners and the service.

a. True b. False

16. Confinement is the physical restraint of a Person.

a. True b. False

17. B&W/DIMRATS may be imposed as punishment upon

personnel in paygrades E-6 or below attached to or embarked in a vessel.

a. True b. False

Assignment 4-4

18. A person who is legally ordered into confinement and

is awaiting trial or rehearing, or is being held for questioning pursuant to an order by competent authority is a __________.

a. Detainee b. Prisoner c. Prisoner of War d. Transient Prisoner

19. A prisoner who is held in confinement pending

disposition instructions from another command, awaiting transportation to a designated confinement facility, or return to parent unit is a _________.

a. Detainee b. Prisoner c. Prisoner of War d. Transient Prisoner

20. A person who is adjudicated by courts-martial or

military tribunal/military commission and ordered into confinement is a __________.

a. Detainee b. Prisoner c. Prisoner of War d. Transient Prisoner

21. What is the maximum number of days a person can be

sentenced on B&W or DIMRATS?

a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

22. Officer and Warrant Officer prisoners are kept with

the non-commissioned prisoners.

a. True b. False

Assignment 4-5

23. Pregnancy precludes confinement in naval confinement

facilities as long as there is a medical treatment facility nearby that can provide for labor, delivery, and management of obstetric emergencies.

a. True b. False

24. Who can order Commissioned Officers, Warrant Officers,

or Midshipmen into arrest or confinement?

a. CO b. CDO c. Department Head d. XO

25. What form is used for a Temporary Absence of a

prisoner from a brig for trial work or other proper purposes?

a. DD 2508 b. DD 2708 c. DD 2718 d. DD 2818

26. What form is used to release a prisoner?

a. DD 2508 b. DD 2708 c. DD 2718 d. DD 2818

27. What may be established in areas where a confinement

facility is not readily accessible?

a. Consolidated Brig b. Pretrial Confinement facilities c. Ships Brig d. Waterfront Brig

Assignment 4-6

28. What facilities provide confinement and rehabilitation

opportunities for prisoners who will be discharged or transferred to the United States Disciplinary Barracks (USDB) or to Federal prisons if their offenses and sentences, after the appellate process, allow such a transfer?

a. Consolidated Brig b. Pretrial Confinement facilities c. Ships Brig d. Waterfront Brig

29. What facilities are located on operating Navy or

Marine Corps installations to service local needs and normally contain a correctional custody unit (CCU) and a short-term confinement facility that houses pretrial detainees, prisoners who will return to duty, or prisoners who are being discharged after serving short sentences, usually less than a year?

a. Consolidated Brig b. Pretrial Confinement facilities c. Ships Brig d. Waterfront Brig

30. Who maintains the prisoner accountability and security

system?

a. Brig Duty Officer b. Control Center Supervisor c. Correctional Custody Unit Supervisor d. Quarters Supervisor

31. Who is responsible for maintenance of good order and

discipline, sanitation, and accountability and welfare of prisoners in an assigned berthing area?

a. Brig Duty Officer b. Control Center Supervisor c. Quarters Supervisor d. Receiving and Release Supervisor

Assignment 4-7

32. Who is responsible for maintaining relevant records

and supplies including health and comfort (H&C) items, prisoner personal property, clothing issue, and storage?

a. Brig Duty Officer b. Control Center Supervisor c. Correctional Custody Unit Supervisor d. Receiving and Release Supervisor

33. Who attempts to correct the attitude and motivation of

enlisted personnel through a regimen of hard work, intensive counseling, physical training, and motivational attitudinal training conducted in a strict military environment?

a. Brig Duty Officer b. Control Center Supervisor c. Correctional Custody Unit Supervisor d. Receiving and Release Supervisor

34. What is the maximum number of prisoners a Correctional

Counselor can have during group counseling?

a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. As many as the facility can handle

35. What is the NEC of the Correctional Counselor?

a. 9502 b. 9516 c. 9545 d. 9561

36. The Training supervisor is responsible for planning

and coordinating of work projects and working parties employing prisoners?

a. True b. False

Assignment 4-8

37. Who is responsible for establishing the individual

prisoner's program upon completion of orientation?

a. Brig Duty Officer b. Classification and Assignment c. Correctional Custody Unit Supervisor d. Training Supervisor

38. What program is provided to encourage positive

behavior?

a. EMI program b. Incentive program c. Rewards and Education program d. None of the above

39. What is the maximum number of days that a person can

be confined in a Ship’s Brig?

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. As long as it takes for the Courts Martial

40. Who is responsible for the daily operations of the

ship’s brig? a. Command Duty Officer b. Commanding Officer e. Operations f. Patrol Officer

41. Who is designated as the Executive Agent in charge of

all Detainee Operations? a. Department of the Army b. Department of the Air Force c. United States Navy d. United States Coast Guard

Assignment 4-9

42. What is the primary reference for the Brig/Corrections Force Afloat?

c. NTTP 3-07.2.1 d. OPNAVINST 1640.9C e. SECNAVINST 5530.14D f. SECNAVINST 1640.9C

43. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Correctional Specialist Navy Ashore?

a. 9557 b. 9575 c. 9585 d. 9595

Assignment 5-1

Assignment 5: Strategic Weapons Facility (Questions from pages 5-1 through 5-15)

1. What is the minimum clearance a SWF MA must hold? a. Confidential b. Secret c. Sensitive d. Top Secret

2. The Guard Officer is an operational position. a. True b. False 3. Which of the following officers has operation command

of the Master at Arms/Security Force Specialists at Strategic Weapons Facilities?

a. Guard Officer (Navy or Marine) b. MCSFCo Commanding Officer (Marine) c. SWF Commanding Officer (Navy) d. SWF Security Officer (Navy)

4. Which one of the following NECs is not necessary and not utilized at a SWF?

a. 0812 b. 0814 c. 2005 d. 2008

5. The duties of an MWD at a SWF include narcotics

detection. a. True b. False

Assignment 5-2

6. What is the primary duty of an MA at a SWF?

a. Asset Security b. Investigations c. Law Enforcement d. Tactical Supervision

7. An MA at a SWF qualifies and may operate all of the following except

a. M14 rifle b. M16 rifle c. M240G machinegun d. M249 SAW

8. What does TECP stand for?

a. Tactical Electronic Communications Position b. Tactical Entry Check Point c. Tactical Extraction Command Post d. Temporary Entry Control Point

9. Who is the SPS?

a. Static Post Sentry b. Static Post Supervisor c. Supervisor of Protective Sentries d. Surveillance Protection Sentry

10. What is PRP? a. Personal Reactionary Protection b. Personnel Reliability Program c. Preliminary Response Plan d. Protective Rules Program

Assignment 5-3

11. HSBs assigned to SWFs are responsible for which of the

following?

a. Enforcement of fish and wildlife rules and regulations b. Enforcement of regional boat operation and safety c. Ensuring the integrity and security of waterways d. Transfer of pilots for units getting underway

12. Which of the following equipment is not utilized for

SWF security?

a. Infrared Cameras b. Nightvision c. Rangefinders d. All of the above

13. Who is the senior operational person in charge of any

one particular AOR?

a. AOR Officer of the Day b. Battalion Officer of the Day c. MCSFCO Commanding Officer d. Static Post Supervisor

14. What is an SRT?

a. Security Response Team b. Special Reaction Team c. Special Response Team d. Station Reaction Tactics

15. What is the Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF)

Mission?

a. Provide security for national strategic assets at Strategic Weapons Facilities.

b. Provide security for U.S. Navy bases ports and harbors when carriers are out of port.

c. Both A and B d. None of the above

Assignment 5-4

16. What must a Master-at-Arms do to be assigned to SWF duty?

a. Pass a PRT screening and hold a confidential clearance b. Pass a PRT screening and hold a secret clearance c. Pass a PRP screening and hold a top secret clearance d. Pass a PRP screening and hold a secret clearance

17. The SWF commanding officer is responsible to the

__________.

a. Director of the SSP b. MCSFCO c. President of the United States d. Secretary of the Navy

18. Who is responsible for the overall operation of guard

force personnel (Navy and Marine) and the execution of MCSFBN missions in all Areas of Responsibility (AOR)

a. Guard Chief b. Guard Clerk c. Guard Officer d. Tower Sentry

19. Who assists the Guard Officer in coordination and

control of guard force personnel and all matters pertaining to the administrative/logistical support, training, and employment of the guard force personnel?

a. Guard Chief b. Guard Clerk c. Guard Duty Officer d. Tower Sentry

Assignment 5-5

20. Who assists the Guard Chief with

administrative/logistical support and database entry of all required training and employment of the guard force personnel?

a. Assistant Chief b. Guard Clerk c. Guard Officer d. Tower Sentry

21. Who is directly responsible for coordination and

execution of guard force personnel and resources between all MCSFBN AORs?

a. Assistant Officer of the Day b. Battalion Officer of the Day c. Officer of the Day d. Static Post Supervisor

22. Who is responsible to the MCSFBN CO via the Company

Officer of the Day (COD) for the efficient functioning and employment of guard force personnel within their applicable AOR?

a. Assistant Officer of the Day b. Division Commanders c. Officer of the Day d. Static Post Supervisor

23. Who is Responsible to the SPS for the training, guard

mount, deployment, and supervision of all TECP sentries?

a. Assistant Officer of the Day b. Assistant Static Post Supervisor c. Division Commanders d. TECP Petty Officer in Charge

Assignment 5-6

24. Division Commanders are responsible to the MCSFBN CO

for the training, discipline, and administration of their divisions.

a. True b. False

25. What document provides guidelines for the Personnel

Reliability Program (PRP)?

a. OPNAVINST 3591.1E b. OPNAVINST 5530.14D c. SECNAVINST 5510.35 d. SECNAVINST 5535.10

26. What document is used for small arms training and

qualification?

a. OPNAVINST 3591.1E b. OPNAVINST 5530.14D c. SECNAVINST 5510.35 d. SECNAVINST 5535.10

27. What provides protection from small arms fire?

a. Concealment b. Cover c. Observation d. Sentry

28. What allows team members to remain unseen by the

threat?

a. Concealment b. Cover c. Observation d. Sentry

Assignment 5-7

29. During the Initial Communication of a hostage

situation it is advised to make promises to the hostage takers until a skilled negotiator arrives.

a. True b. False

30. What publication is used for First Aid?

a. NTTP 4-01.1 b. NTTP 4-01.1.1 c. NTTP 4-02.1 d. NTTP 4-02.1.1

Assignment 6-1

Assignment 6: Strategic Aircraft (Questions from pages 6-1 through 6-15)

1. What type of aircraft does VQ fly? a. C-130 b. E-2C c. E-6B d. P-3

2. How many divisions are within the security department? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 3. How often do physical security surveys need to be

conducted at the activity level? a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Annually

4. An E-7 can become the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). a. True b. False

5. What are the two types of sentries used in Strategic Aircraft security?

a. Fixed and Roving b. Fixed and Seaward c. Land and Seaward d. Roving and Seaward

Assignment 6-2

6. What type(s) of weapons are used by Strategic Aircraft

security?

a. M-9 b. M-16 c. M-60 d. Both A and B are correct

7. Who is responsible for approving the EAL?

a. Commanding Officer b. Patrol Supervisor c. Security Officer d. Watch Commander

8. What manual is used for weapons training and qualifications?

a. DODINST O-2000.12H b. OPNAVINST 3591.1E c. OPNAVINST 5530.14D d. SECNAVINST 5500.29C

9. Where is the Navy’s Strategic Communications Wing One located?

a. Edwards Air Force Base b. Lackland Air Force Base c. Pope Air Force Base d. Tinker Air Force Base

10. The ATO is guided by what instruction? a. DODINST O-2000.12H b. OPNAVINST 3591.1E c. OPNAVINST 5530.14D d. SECNAVINST 5500.29C

Assignment 6-3

11. What are the four types of jurisdiction?

a. Executive, Concurrent, Partial, Proper b. Executive, Current, Partial, Proprietary c. Exclusive, Current, Partial, Proper d. Exclusive, Concurrent, Partial, Proprietary

12. Guidance for the Use of Deadly Force is found in what

instruction?

a. DODINST O-2000.12H b. OPNAVINST 3591.1E c. OPNAVINST 5530.14D d. SECNAVINST 5500.29C

13. For deadly force to be appropriate, what are the three

conditions that must exist?

a. Opposition, Capability, and Intent b. Opportunity, Capability, and Intent c. Opposition, Capacity, and Intent d. Opportunity, Capacity, and Intent

14. What instruction directs the Protection Levels for

alert and non-alert E-6 aircraft?

a. AFI 31-101 b. DOD 5200.1-R c. OPNAVINST 5530.14D d. SECNAVINST 5510.36

15. Is the Use of Deadly Force authorized for the

protection of E-6 aircraft?

a. Yes, anytime b. Yes, only when authorized by the Watch Commander c. Yes, only after all of means of non-lethal force have

been applied to protect the resource d. Never

Assignment 6-4

16. The Aircraft Alert Area Entry Controller can allow entry into the area based on personal recognition of the individual.

a. True b. False c. Not applicable, only have to ID personnel at the

aircraft itself. 17. Who is responsible for monitoring and enforcing the

Two-Person Rule inside the close in area of Alert ABNCP E-6s?

a. CBS & Alert Area EC b. CIS/EC & CBS c. CIS/EC & Reaction Force d. Reaction Force & CBS

18. In addition to the appropriate badge, what other means

is required for allowing entry into the alert aircraft close in security area?

a. Check of Driver’s License b. DD FM 2 c. Personal Recognition d. Listed on a valid EAL

19. Where is the primary alert location for alert E-6

ABNCP configured aircraft?

a. Edwards Air Force Base b. Offutt Air Force Base c. Pope Air Force Base d. Travis Air Force Bade

20. What two posts, as a minimum, must provide security

for alert E-6 aircraft?

a. Alert Area EC & Reaction Force b. CIS/EC & CBS c. Reaction Force & CIS/EC d. None of the above

Assignment 7-1

Assignment 7: Protective Service Detail (Questions from pages 7-1 through 7-10)

1. There are ____ PPOs authorized by Department of Defense.

a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. None of the above

2. A PSVA must be conducted within ____ days of an official taking assignment as a permanent HRB.

a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 180 3. How often are PSVAs reviewed? a. Annually b. Semi-annually c. Monthly d. None of the above

4. What are the protective measures are associated with a Level One High Risk Billet?

a. Protective Security detail support provided to an

official who requires continuous protection as recommended by the Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment

b. PSD support provided to an official who requires protection during periods of official duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA

c. Support provided to an official who requires advanced individual antiterrorism awareness and personal protection training

d. None of the above

Assignment 7-2

5. What protective measures associated with a Level Two

High Risk Billet? a. Protective Security detail support provided to an

official who requires continuous protection as recommended by the Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment of official duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA

b. Support provided to an official who requires advanced individual antiterrorism awareness and personal protection training

c. PSD support provided to an official who requires protection during periods of official duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA

d. None of the above

6. What are the protective measures associated with a Level Three High Risk Billet?

a. Protective Security detail support provided to an

official who requires continuous protection as recommended by the Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment

b. Support provided to an official who requires advanced individual antiterrorism awareness and personal protection training

c. PSD support provided to an official who requires protection during periods of official duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA

d. None of the above

7. What are the top three HRBs within the DoD?

a. Director of NCIS, Secretary of State, Defense Minister of Kenya

b. Service Chiefs, Combatant Commander, Director, National Security Agency

c. Secretary of Defense, Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff, Deputy Secretary of Defense

d. None of the above

Assignment 7-3

8. Who is responsible for credentialing and training PSS

within the DON?

a. NCIS b. AFOSI c. PFPA d. NSA

9. Who serves as the executive agent for all Protective Service matters within the DON?

a. BUPERS b. NCIS c. NECC d. OPNAV

10. ____ serves as the security advisor to an HRP.

a. Limo Driver b. Shift Leader c. Personal Security Advisor d. Advance agent

11. Which walking formation utilizes four protection team

members placed to the front, rear, left, and right around the PSA and principle?

a. Wedge b. Circle c. Modified Diamond d. Diamond

12. Which of the following is not a step in response to an

attack?

a. Shoot suppressive rounds down range b. Arm’s reach c. Sound-off d. Cover

Assignment 7-4

13. Who is responsible for billets and screenings of

Master-at-Arms requesting the 2009 NEC?

a. NCIS NEC 2009 Program Manager b. Master-at-Arms Detailer c. CNIC d. None of the above

14. Who is required to provide annual training and other

administrative functions for Master-at-Arms working in protection?

a. MA Detailers b. Navy Knowledge Online GMT c. Enlisted Community Manager d. Naval Criminal Investigative Service

15. The ____ has tactical control of the PSD.

a. PSA b. Limo Driver c. Advance Agent d. Shift Leader

16. The DOD O-2000.22 Designation and Physical Protection

of DOD High Risk Personnel (HRP) instruction states in combat zones and in areas outside of the United States where contingency or expeditionary operations are underway protection is NOT limited to HRPs?

a. True b. False

17. Where the NEC 2009 Protective Service Specialist “C”

School located?

a. United States Air Force, Lackland, Air Force Base, TX b. United States Army, Fort Leonard Wood, MO c. Fleet Training Center, Dam Neck, Virginia Beach, VA d. None of the above

Assignment 7-5

18. What instruction gives NCIS the authority to perform protective operations for the DON?

a. OPNAVINST 5530.14D b. OPNAVINST 5585.2B c. SECNAVINST 5430.107 d. None of the above

19. What agency determines the threat level for an HRB?

a. DIA b. NSA c. FBI d. CIA

20. This PSD position uses its vehicle to screen and block

traffic and can be used as an evacuation platform.

a. Follow Car Left/Right Rear b. Shift Leader c. Follow Driver d. Limo Driver

21. The ____ is when team members are facing outward, arms

interlocked (usually for severe crowd situations).

a. Cave-in b. Circle c. Wedge d. Modified diamond

Assignment 8-1

Assignment 8: Staff Duty (Questions from pages 8-1 through 8-11)

1. Ensure that installations and activities ________, maintain, and ___________ AT plans and programs that incorporate AT measures in concert with DoD standards.

a. Execute/track b. Develop/Maintain c. Develop/Implement d. Survey/Document

2. AT risk management is the process of _______ identifying, assessing, and controlling risks arising from operational factors and making decisions that balance risk cost with mission benefits.

a. Accumulative b. Collectively c. Systematically d. Sporadically 3. Which of the following documents is not used to assist

commanders and staff in developing collective and individual training objectives?

a. Mission training plans b. Navy Tactics Reference Publication (NTRP) and Navy

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (NTTP) manuals. c. Strategic defense plans d. MILPERSMAN

4. Personnel billets that because of grade, assignment, travel itinerary, or symbolic value may make the occupant an especially attractive or accessible terrorist target are known as ________ billets.

a. High Risk b. Classified c. High Risk Personnel d. CNO priority

Assignment 8-2

5. All personnel and their family __________ enroute to

an assignment outside the United States shall receive a terrorist threat awareness, personal protection, and pre-departure travel security briefing prior to commencement of travel.

a. 5 years and older b. 10 years and older c. 14 years and older d. 21 years and older

6. AT protective measures and contingency plans shall be incorporated in the installation/base AT plan. Any AT plans, orders, or documents that detail Force Protection Conditions (FPCON), AT measures, or specific sites shall be classified as _______________.

a. NOFORN b. Confidential c. Secret d. FOUO

7. ____________ shall arrange for the training of personnel designated and assigned to High Risk Billets (HRBs) and ensure compliance of High Risk Personnel training requirements.

a. SECNAV b. ISIC c. Members Commanding Officer d. Chief of Naval Personnel

8. Installations/Base sites shall ensure that AT plans, when separated from AT measures and FPCONs, will remain ___________.

a. FOUO b. Unclassified c. Confidential d. Secret

Assignment 8-3

9. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)?

a. Formulate Navy AT policy b. Serve as the permanent Navy representative to the

Services Security Chiefs Council c. Head coordinator for Auxiliary Security Force(ASF) d. Validate and release CNOIVA and Security post reports

10. One of the inherent responsibilities of the Commander of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFF) is to ___________.

a. Ensure SUPSHIP review of the required list standard

items related to AT b. Designate and ensure the proper training of a regional

ATO c. Assume primary responsibility for coordinating the

Federal law enforcement response d. Conduct Higher Headquarters AT reviews of CONUS

Regional Commands 11. Commanders of major commands or major subordinate

commanders are not allowed to mandate inspections more frequently without express written permission from the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO).

a. True b. False

12. When a communication element or site is outside the

confines of a support installation and is designated as an operating location where personnel perform duty at all times, all of the following will apply except:

a. Entry to critical communications facilities will be

controlled b. An emergency water supply will be maintained and

stored underground c. Security force requirements will be coordinated with

local civilian police, host nation military, or security forces for backup and response forces for unmanned sites

d. Maintain a direct line of sight with Security installation

Assignment 8-4

13. Military Working dogs should be left unattended only

in an emergency and all of the following rules will be observed except:

a. Use only the leather collar and a kennel chain to

stake out an MWD. Do not use the choke chain and leash b. Make sure that the MWD has shade during hot weather c. Secure MWD to Vehicle rear door only d. Check the MWD often to make sure that it is not in

distress 14. As a crime prevention measure, naval installations

using MWDS for law enforcement and physical security duties will have MWD warning signs; these signs will be marked how?

a. White and red letters on front door of kennel only b. Red and black letters on all sides of kennel and

training area c. Red and blue letters at entrance of base d. Orange letters at Security building entrance

15. Who has the sole responsibility for Military Working

Dog (MWD) veterinary services?

a. U.S. Navy b. U.S. Army c. Certified Veterinarian d. U.S. Air force

16. Which of the following is not a deployment category

for Military Working Dogs?

a. CAT 1 b. CAT 2 c. CAT 5 d. CAT 3

Assignment 8-5

17. Screening Personnel desiring assignment to staff duty

must complete the Flag Officer (Staff) Duty Screening in accordance with ____________.

a. MILPERSMAN 1306-945 b. OPNAVINST 3300.15B c. DoD Directive 2000.12 d. DoD Directive 2000.16

18. The standoff zone, also referred to as the setback

area, is the first tier of defense and includes the space between the outer perimeter of the site and the exterior of what you are protecting.

a. True b. False

19. TFFMS is the single, authoritative repository for

a. Total force manpower requirements b. Active Duty Manpower Personnel c. Navy/Reserve Personnel d. All of the above

20. The Antiterrorism Officer course (CIN J-830-0015) is

required for those Navy commissioned officers, enlisted E-7 and above, and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as Antiterrorism Officer (ATO).

a. True b. False

21. Master-at-Arms Staff duty positions are normally

filled by a _______ or ________.

a. MAC-MACM (E7-E9)/Security Officer Designator 649X/749X b. MA3-MA1/MAC-MACM c. Security Officer Designator 649X/749X/NEC 9545 d. NEC 2002/NEC 2009

Assignment 8-6

22. The Geographic Combatant Commander AT policies and programs shall take precedence over all AT policies or programs of any DoD Component operating or existing in that Command’s area of responsibility (AOR) except:

a. Under the security responsibility of a Chief of

Mission (COM) pursuant to the Memorandums of Understanding

b. Emergency situations c. Unless otherwise directed d. None of the above

Assignment 9-1

Assignment 9: Weapons & Use of Force (Questions from pages 9-1 through 9-16) 1. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal

rules in weapon safety? a. Treat every weapon as if it were loaded b. Keep your finger on the trigger at all times c. Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire d. Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to

shoot 2. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 9mm

pistol? a. 17ft b. 2000m c. 50m d. 1100ft

3. Which of the following is not considered an example of nonlethal force?

a. Serious damage to internal organs b. Physical obstacles c. Riot Control Agents d. Batons

4. Deadly forced is defined as a. Force a person uses to detain a suspect b. Force that a person uses causing, or that a person

knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm

c. Tools that allow the commander to accomplish an objective without requiring the destruction of an enemy

d. Establish fundamental policies and procedures governing the actions of forces in military operations

Assignment 9-2

5. Deadly force is justified in all of the following

circumstances except? a. Lesser means have been exhausted, are unavailable, or

cannot be reasonably employed b. The risk of death or serious bodily harm to innocent

persons is not significantly increased by use c. The purpose of its use is in self-defense or defense

of others d. The purpose is to detain a suspect not believed to

have committed a serious offense 6. What tool allows the commander to employ sufficient

force to accomplish an objective without requiring the destruction of an enemy or the habitat?

a. Deadly force b. Compliant techniques c. Nonlethal Weapons d. Self defense

7. Of the following, which event would justify the use of

deadly force?

a. Prevent the commission of a serious crime that involves imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

b. Prevent the theft of tobacco products by a minor c. After employing warning shots at a suspected gate

runner d. From the window of a moving patrol unit while engaged

in high speed pursuit 8. What is the term for shots utilized from afloat vessels

to issue a warning and establish intent of an inbound waterborne craft?

a. Verbalization b. Compliance techniques c. Rule of engagement d. Warning shots

Assignment 9-3

9. Which of the following weapons is authorized to be used when firing warning shots?

a. M2 50 Caliber Heavy Machine Gun b. M9 9mm Pistol c. MK39 MOD 2 50MM Machine Gun d. Concussion grenades

10. What is the term that establishes fundamental policies and procedures governing the actions to be taken by US commanders during all military operations and contingencies and routine military department functions?

a. Defense Conditions of Readiness b. Military Campaign Post Orders c. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) d. Force Protection Measures

11. The Lautenberg Amendment prohibits which of the

following from handling a firearm or ammunition?

a. Anyone convicted of shoplifting b. Anyone with a domestic violence conviction c. Anyone with more then three points on their driving

record d. Anyone listed on a Military Protective Order

12. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 1 M9

9mm service pistol?

a. Magazine inserted, slide backwards, safety off, round in chamber

b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, safety off, round in chamber

c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, safety on, round in chamber

d. Magazine removed, slide forward, safety on, round in chamber

Assignment 9-4

13. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 3 M9

9mm service pistol?

a. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty, safety on

b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, round chambered, safety off

c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty, safety off

d. Magazine empty, slide forward, chamber empty, safety on

14. All Category II and above Navy personnel ashore who are

armed with a pistol are required to qualify on all of the following except?

a. Navy Handgun Qualification Course b. Handgun Practical Weapons Course c. Handgun lowlight Course d. Basic Firearms Safety Course

15. All personnel armed with a pistol must requalify with

live fire how often?

a. Triennially b. Annually c. Monthly d. Bimonthly

16. In what reference can the requirement for semiannual

pistol sustainment training be located?

a. CJCSI 3330.55B b. DoD 2000.16 c. OPNAVINST 3591.1E d. SECNAVINST 5530.14A

Assignment 9-5

17. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 1

service rifle?

a. Magazine inserted, bolt to the rear, safety off, round in chamber

b. Magazine inserted, bolt forward, safety on, round in chamber

c. Magazine inserted, bolt forward, safety on, chamber empty

d. Magazine removed, slide forward, safety on, round in chamber

18. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 3

service rifle?

a. Magazine inserted, bolt forward, chamber empty, safety on

b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, round chambered, safety off

c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty, safety off

d. Magazine empty, slide forward, chamber empty, safety on

19. All Navy personnel armed with the rifle are required to

qualify on which courses of fire?

a. Rifle Orientation and qualification b. Rifle Qualification and rifle low light courses c. Rifle Qualification and strobe light courses d. Rifle familiarization and training

20. All Navy personnel armed with a rifle must requalify how

often?

a. Triennially b. Monthly c. Annually d. Every 8 months

Assignment 9-6

21. What is the name of the weapons qualification course for

all Navy personnel armed with a shotgun?

a. Shotgun Qualification Course of Fire b. Shotgun Low Light Course of Fire c. Shotgun Practical Weapons Course d. Shotgun Law Enforcement Officers Qualification Course

22. Which of the following shotgun condition codes is not

applicable to Navy operations?

a. Condition 1 b. Condition 2 c. Condition 3 d. Condition 4

23. Which of the following properly describes a Condition 1

Shotgun?

a. Magazine tube empty, chamber empty, breech bolt forward, action closed, weapon on safe

b. Magazine tube filled, chamber empty, breech bolt forward, action closed, weapon on safe

c. Magazine tube filled, round in chamber, breech bolt forward, action closed, weapon on safe

d. Magazine tube filled, chamber empty, breech bolt to the rear, action open, weapon on safe

24. What is the maximum effective range of the M500 shotgun?

a. 100yds b. 100m c. 50ft d. 46m

Assignment 9-7

25. Which of the following is not a machine gun used by Navy

security forces?

a. M240 b. M60 c. M107 d. M2 50 caliber

26. Under current warning shot guidance, warning shots are

authorized in which of the following areas?

a. U.S. internal and terroritorial waters and seas b. At anchor in Bahrain c. Pierside in Hong Kong d. When steaming in a multi-national formation in

international waters 27. When should warning shots be fired?

a. At the farthest point away from the ship b. As the last option prior to the use of deadly force c. At the maximum range of the applicable weapon d. Upon the suspected vessel entering the identification

zone 28. Which of the following is not one of the six-steps in

the escalation of force continuum?

a. Covert presence b. Professional presence c. Verbalizations d. Lethal force

29. Serious bodily harm includes all of the below except

a. Fractured bones b. Bloody nose c. Damage to internal organs d. Deep cuts

Assignment 9-8

30. Which nonlethal weapon would be utilized to disorient

combatants?

a. RCAs b. Physical obstacles c. Light d. Handcuffs

31. Which of the following properly describes a Condition 1

Crew Served Weapon?

a. Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt pulled to the rear, Weapon on Safe, Cover open

b. Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt locked to rear, weapon on safe, cover closed

c. Feed tray clear, bolt forward on empty chamber, weapon on fire, cover closed

d. Ammunition in can located adjacent to the weapon 32. What is purpose of the Standing Rules of Engagement?

a. To promulgate guidance to commander for the conduct of law enforcement operations

b. To provide antiterrorism/force protection benchmarks c. To provide implementation guidance on the application

of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise of self-defense

d. To provide commanding officers guidance to conduct surveillance detection operations

33. What is the maximum effective range for the M60 series

machinegun?

a. 650yds b. 1000ft c. 2 miles d. 1100m

Assignment 9-9

34. What is the maximum effective range for the M-16 service

rifle?

a. 3600yds b. 400ft c. 550m d. 1 mile

35. What is the single largest factor in accidents involving

firearms?

a. The weapon is on safe b. The individual is qualified to handle a weapon c. Assumption that the weapon is not loaded d. The individual is a SAMI

Assignment 10-1

Assignment 10: Military Law of Evidence (Questions from Chapter 10: Military Law of Evidence Article)

(Assignment 10, 11, 12 & 13 is derived from Chapter 10)

1. The military courts derive their existence from what article of the Constitution?

a. Article I b. Article II c. Article III d. Article IV

2. What article of the UCMJ is considered the key that opens the door to the military law of evidence?

a. 6 b. 15 c. 36 d. 40 3. Who has prescribed the rules of evidence for military

personnel? a. President of the United States b. Chief of Naval Operations c. Judge Advocate General d. Secretary of the Navy

4. The Military Rules of Evidence (MRE) are found in what source?

a. JAG Manual b. Navy Regulations c. U.S. Constitution d. Manual for Courts-Martial

5. Points of law on particular issues are interpreted by what judicial system(s)?

a. Court of Military Review

Assignment 10-2

b. Court of Military Appeal c. Both a and b above d. Federal District Courts

6. Some of the major sources for the military law of

evidence are found in which of the following documents?

a. Statutes b. Constitution c. Scholarly writings d. All of the above

7. Of the following terms, which one is sometimes used to describe the rules of evidence?

a. Issues b. Elements c. Technicalities d. Interpretations

8. The MRE are not applied to what judicial proceeding?

a. General court-martial b. Special court-martial c. Summary court-martial d. Captain’s mast

9. The rules of evidence are made applicable to courts-martial by what MRE?

a. 15 b. 31 c. 101 d. 133 10. What is the ultimate issue at a trial by court-

martial?

a. Guilt or innocence of the accused b. Innocence of the accused only c. Guilt of the accused only d. Rights of the accused

Assignment 10-3

11. What is the broader meaning of the term corpus

delicti?

a. Murder victim b. Element of an offense c. Body or substance of crime d. Fundamental facts connected with an illegal act

12. In which of the following offenses must intent be

proven?

a. Rape b. Burglary c. Drunkenness d. Neglect of duty

13. Evidence that the accused was drunk could constitute a

defense for the commission of which of the following acts?

a. Rape b. Arson c. Murder d. Larceny

14. An accused is required to assume the burden of proof

to show innocence to which, if any, of the following offenses?

a. Rape b. Arson c. Neglect of duty d. None of the above

15. Evidence is divided into a total of how many basic

forms?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Assignment 10-4

16. The courts assume that Department of Defense documents

are genuine.

a. True b. False

17. When a document is to be introduced as evidence and

only part of it is to be read to the court, what portion of the document must be submitted?

a. The entire document b. The cover of the document and that portion to be

read only c. The section or chapter of the document containing the

portion to be read only d. The portion to be read only

18. A knife used to take the life of a victim is what form

of evidence?

a. Real b. Indirect c. Documentary d. Demonstrative

19. Evidence that is partly documentary and partly real is

what category of evidence?

a. Oral b. Partial c. Indirect d. Demonstrative

20. What are the two types of evidence?

a. Direct and indirect b. Admissible and indirect c. Direct and circumstantial d. Circumstantial and admissible

Assignment 10-5

21. A confession from an accused is what type of evidence?

a. Real b. Direct c. Demonstrative d. Circumstantial

22. Evidence that tends to establish a fact from which a

fact in issue may be inferred is what type of evidence?

a. Real b. Direct c. Demonstrative d. Circumstantial

23. Direct evidence is superior to circumstantial

evidence.

a. True b. False

24. Admissibility of evidence depends on what factor(s)?

a. Relevancy b. Competency c. Authenticity d. All of the above

25. What is meant by the authenticity of evidence?

a. The identity of the evidence b. The admissibility of the evidence c. The genuine character of the evidence d. The relevancy of the evidence

Assignment 10-6

26. A trial counsel and defense counsel agree that a

certain item sought to be introduced into evidence is what it purports to be. What is this agreement called?

a. A stipulation b. An authentication c. A mutual gesture d. An attestment

27. What is a definition of relevancy as applied to

evidence?

a. The evidence has been accepted by the court as admissible

b. The information will reasonably tend to prove or disprove any matter in issue

c. The evidence has been proven to be competent d. The identity of the evidence has been authenticated

28. Evidence that is relevant and not barred by any

exclusionary rule is described by what term?

a. Relevant b. Competent c. Authentic d. Stipulation

29. Competency of evidence is a matter of whether or not

the evidence can meet what test(s)?

a. Public policy, reliability, undue prejudice, and relevancy

b. Public policy, reliability, and undue prejudice only c. Public policy and reliability only d. Public policy only

Assignment 10-7

30. What is prima facie evidence?

a. Evidence that will prove or disprove any matter in

issue b. Evidence that is admissible as fit and appropriate

proof in a particular case c. Evidence that would be objectionable as irrelevant d. Evidence that is good and sufficient, on its face,

to meet the issue if no other testimony is offered

31. How does the prosecution establish a prima facie case? a. By introducing enough evidence to outweigh the

general presumption that the accused is innocent b. By providing enough good evidence against the

accused to ensure an airtight case c. By shifting the burden of proof to the accused d. By presenting evidence that is entirely

circumstantial 32. When, if ever, may a prima facie case be overthrown?

a. Upon an appeal of the trial b. When the accused introduces sufficient evidence

in rebuttal c. When the accused objects to the evidence that is

presented d. Never

33. What is meant by reasonable doubt?

a. An honest and real doubt caused by insufficient proof b. Proof beyond the possibility of mistake c. Doubt caused by a fault-finding attitude d. Doubt caused by moral attitude

Assignment 10-8

34. In a case involving drunkenness, which of the

following statements would be admissible?

a. The accused was drunk the day before that specified b. The accused is known to be a heavy drinker c. The accused was in the company of others who were

drunk d. The accused had been drinking a short time prior

to that specified 35. Evidence of other offenses or acts of misconduct may

be introduced when the evidence tends to accomplish which of the following actions?

a. Identifies a person as the perpetrator of an offense b. Proves a plan of the accused c. Proves guilty knowledge or intent d. All of the above

36. Hearsay testimony is best described as what kind of

evidence?

a. Overruled b. Secondhand c. Presumptive d. Prima facie

37. Hearsay is generally not admitted in evidence.

a. True b. False

38. Dying declarations of an alleged victim are excepted

from what rule?

a. Documentary b. Res gestae c. Prima facie d. Hearsay

Assignment 10-9

39. In most cases, if a dying declaration is to be introduced at a trial for criminal homicide, in what condition must the person be at the time of trial?

a. Dead b. Critical c. In extremity d. Impending death

40. Which of the following is an example of an exception to

hearsay testimony? a. Affidavit b. Res gestae c. Prima facie d. Documentary

41. Which of the following definitions best describes res

gestae? a. Any evidence that is admissible as hearsay b. A statement made under conditions where the

victim was in extremity c. Voluntary exclamations or acts made at the time the

offense was committed d. Involuntary exclamations or acts made at the time the

offense was committed 42. During trial, evidence is first introduced by whom? a. The prosecution b. The defense counsel c. The court bailiff d. The senior court member

Assignment 10-10

43. When, if ever, may one witness be present in court

while another witness testifies? a. When the judge orders the witness to hear the

testimony b. When the trial counsel and defense counsel agree to

the presence of the witness c. When the second witness has finished his or her

testimony d. Never

44. Objection to a witness on grounds of incompetence is

made at what time? a. Before the court convenes only b. Before the court reaches a verdict only c. Before the witness is sworn only d. At any time

45. A court-martial convened by the Navy can require the

appearance of witnesses from which of the following services?

a. Navy only b. Navy and Marine Corps only c. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard only d. All Armed Forces

46. When a witness is stationed near the location where

the court convenes, by whom is the witness notified? a. CO of the witness b. Trial counsel c. Military judge d. Defense counsel

Assignment 10-11

47. When practicable, a request for the attendance of a

military witness is made to allow a minimum notice of how many hours before court convenes?

a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72

48. A subpoena is normally issued for a civilian witness a

minimum of how many hours before the time the witness must travel from home to comply with the subpoena?

a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72

49. When, if ever, may an accused be forced to testify? a. When ordered by his or her CO b. When compelled by a military judge c. When the defense counsel calls him or her to the

witness stand d. Never

50. When is an accomplice competent to testify? a. At all times b. In a capital offense only c. When asked by the judge only d. When a credible witness only

51. When, if ever, may a trial counsel be required to

testify? a. After the verdict b. Before the court proceedings c. When his or her testimony is desired d. Never

Assignment 10-12

52. A child must be 16 years old in order for his or her

testimony to be admissible. a. True b. False

53. When, if ever, may a husband testify to the

confidential communications received from his wife? a. When the wife has given consent b. When ordered by the judge c. Under any circumstances d. Never

54. In cross-examination, what type of evidence may not be

introduced to attack the credibility of the witness?

a. Proving that the witness was convicted of a crime

involving moral depravity b. Testimony as to the character of the witness c. Proving that the witness was previously convicted of

perjury d. Testimony that the witness has a bad reputation for

truthfulness

55. Who decides whether or not a witness is competent to

testify? a. The trial counsel only b. The defense counsel only c. The judge only d. The trial counsel, the defense counsel, or the judge

56. The testimony of a witness may be impeached if it is

proved that the witness made contradictory statements during the present trial.

a. True b. False

Assignment 10-13

57. Which of the following is a definition of a deposition?

a. A written declaration under oath or affirmation made

by a witness in the presence of the adverse party b. An oral declaration under oath made by a witness

in the presence of the adverse party c. A written declaration made by the accused and

witnessed by two other persons d. An oral declaration made by an accused and witnessed

by two other persons 58. A deposition may be taken by which of the following

persons? a. A legal officer b. A court officer c. A notary public d. Each of the above

59. Depositions are not in violation of the hearsay

rule for what reason(s)? a. Because the witness is placed under oath only b. Because there is an opportunity for cross-

examination only c. Because the witness is under oath and there is an

opportunity for cross-examination d. Because the accused is present while the deposition

is taken

60. An affidavit differs from a deposition in what way? a. An affidavit is made without giving the other side an

opportunity to ask questions of the declarer b. An affidavit is unsworn c. An affidavit is hearsay d. An affidavit is always admissible

Assignment 10-14

61. During the examination of a witness, the fourth

examination of the witness is known by what term? a. Redirect examination b. Re-cross-examination c. Cross-examination d. Cross-direct-examination

62. Leading questions are allowed in court proceedings at

which of the following times? a. When asked by the defense counsel b. When asked by the trial counsel c. When the witness appears hostile to the party who

called him or her d. When a double question is asked

63. Are double questions allowed in court? If so, under

what circumstances? a. Yes; when asked by the trial counsel b. Yes; to shorten court proceedings c. Yes; when confronted by a hostile witness d. no

64. During a trial, which of the following types of

questions is not forbidden? a. Classified military question b. Incriminating question c. Degrading question dealing with a material issue of

a trial d. Degrading question dealing with a minor issue of a

trial

65. A witness may not give his or her opinion regarding

which of the following characteristics of a person? a. Sanity b. Sobriety c. Identity d. Guilt

Assignment 10-15

66. Are witnesses allowed to discuss their testimony with

any of the following persons? If so, with whom? a. Yes; the accused b. Yes; other witnesses c. Yes; any court official d. No

Assignment 11-1

Assignment 11: Forensics part 1 (Questions from Chapter 10: Forensics Article)

(Assignment 10, 11, 12 & 13 is derived from Chapter 10)

1. What is the most positive way to identify a person? a. Pictures b. Personal identification c. Fingerprints d. Background information

2. When, if ever, do the friction ridges on a person’s hands change during his/her lifetime?

a. Just after birth b. When the individual gains maturity c. At the age of 65 d. Never 3. Which of the following terms is not used in

classifying or describing fingerprints? a. Bifurcation b. Core c. Divergence d. Tangent

4. What term identifies fingerprints that spread apart at two ridges that have been running nearly parallel?

a. Deformed fingers b. Pattern area c. Divergence d. Focal points

Assignment 11-2

In answering questions 5 to 8 select the classification term that matches the description question.

5. The delta and core located within the pattern area of loops and whorls.

a. Palmer b. Shoulders c. Focal points d. Bifurcation

6. The forking or dividing of one ridge line into two or more branches.

a. Palmer b. Shoulders c. Focal points d. Bifurcation

7. The points at which the recurring ridge of a loop-type pattern definitely turns inward or curves.

a. Palmer b. Shoulders c. Focal points d. Bifurcation

8. Pertaining to palm impressions of the hand.

a. Palmer b. Shoulders c. Focal points d. Bifurcation

Assignment 11-3

9. A point is a ridge characteristic formed by

bifurcation, ridge ending, or dot.

a. True b. False 10. The taking of good, clean, fingerprints is not

difficult.

a. True b. False

11. The two innermost ridges that start parallel, diverge, and tend to surround the entire pattern area are called type lines.

a. True b. False

12. The term plantar pertains to sole impressions of the

foot.

a. True b. False

13. Prior to fingerprinting a subject, what is the first

thing you should have the subject do?

a. Wash his hands b. Sign the fingerprint card c. Place his fingers on the ink plate d. Call his lawyer

14. A good fingerprint impression should be what color?

a. Gray b. Black c. Brown d. Dark gray

Assignment 11-4

15. What is the purpose for taking plain fingerprint impressions?

a. To reduce smudging b. To reduce deformity c. They are easier to take d. To verify rolled impressions

16. When a photographic fingerprint impression is being

taken, the photographic paper should be placed in a fixing bath for approximately how many seconds?

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

17. What is the greatest problem with making palm

prints?

a. Palm prints are basically the same for everyone b. Palm prints require too much space on the page c. Palm prints are frequently smudged d. Palm prints are difficult to obtain due to the

hollow in the palm 18. What is the best method to record palm prints?

a. Use very flexible paper with white powder b. Have the individual press down hard with the palm c. Use a tubular object wrapped with printing paper to

roll the prints d. Have the individual use heavy, black printer’s ink

19. Which of the following will result in poor

fingerprint impressions?

a. Failure to clean the inking apparatus b. Failure to clean the individual’s fingers c. Failure to roll the fingers properly d. All of the above

Assignment 11-5

20. Latent prints fall under a total of how many general classifications?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

21. When a latent print is found at a crime scene, which

of the following actions should be taken first?

a. Lift it with masking tape b. Lift it with robber tape c. Measure out the pattern d. Photograph it

22. What fingerprint powder has the advantage of showing

up on either a dark or light background?

a. Dragon’s blood b. Blue c. Gray d. White

23. Which of the following items should not be used to

apply fingerprint powder?

a. Fiberglass b. Feather brush c. Camel’s hair brush d. Tissue paper

24. When using a short-wave ultraviolet light, the

investigator should wear which of the following apparel?

a. Rubber gloves only b. Goggles only c. Rubber gloves and goggles d. Goggles and protective clothing

Assignment 11-6

25. What are the most common materials used for lifting latent fingerprints?

a. Masking tape and rubber lifters b. Adhesive and transparent tapes c. Clear tape and rubber lifters d. Rubber lifters and transparent Lifting tapes

26. What type of tape is best for lifting prints located

on curved or uneven surfaces?

a. Scotch b. Masking c. Rubber d. Shipping

27. Fingerprint patterns have a total of how many basic

classification designations?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

28. What fingerprint pattern has two or more deltas?

a. Accidental whorl b. Ulnar c. Radial d. Arches

29. Patterns that flow toward the thumbs are known as what

type of loops?

a. Accidental whorl b. Ulnar c. Radial d. Arches

Assignment 11-7

30. What fingerprint loops flowing in the direction of

the-little fingers?

a. Radial b. Tented arches c. Plain arches d. Ulnar

31. What type of pattern has the ridges forming

concentric circles or spirals? a. Whorls b. Loops c. Tented arches d. Arches

32. A loop must have a total of how many essential

characteristics?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

In answering questions 33 through 36, select the term that matches the description given as the question. 33. A positive impression made from a mold.

a. Object b. Mold c. Cast d. Impression

34. Anything making an impression.

a. Object b. Mold c. Cast d. Impression

Assignment 11-8

35. Any indentation from which a cast is made.

a. Object b. Mold c. Cast d. Impression

36. A negative impression.

a. Object b. Mold c. Cast d. Impression

37. What should be the first thing done to an impression

found at a crime scene?

a. Photographed b. Protected c. Sketched d. Casted

38. Spraying an impression with which of the following

material will help to strengthen the impression to support the weight of the casting material?

a. Shellac b. Plastic spray c. Hair net spray d. Each of the above

39. Usually how many coats of a spray material is

sufficient to help support the weight of the casting material in sandy soils?

a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 10 c. 12 to 15 d. 16 to 20

Assignment 11-9

40. When plastic spray is used to help support the weight of the casting material, a thin mist of which of the following materials should be allowed to settle on the print?

a. Water b. Light oil c. Vinegar d. Shellac

41. Reinforcement material should be added to the print

after how much plaster has been laid? a. 1/8 to 1/4 in. b. 3/16 to 5/16 in. c. 1/2 to 3/4 in. d. 15/16 to 1 1/2 in.

42. When added with the water used in making plaster,

which of the following materials will hasten the setting?

a. Sugar b. Borax c. Salt d. Pepper

43. It usually takes plaster how many minutes to harden

after preparation? a. 10 to 12 b. 15 to 18 c. 20 to 30 d. 45 to 60

44. When casting under water and using plaster, how many

parts of salt should be added to 10 to 12 parts of plaster to hasten the setting time?

a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 4 c. 3 to 4 d. 5 to 7

Assignment 11-10

45. Which of the following casting materials is lighter

than plaster of Paris, much more economical, and is highly recommended for use?

a. Epoxy b. Dental stone c. Silicone rubber d. Posmoulage

46. Which of the following casting materials may be used to

obtain fingerprint impressions found in putty and caulking?

a. Epoxy b. Dental stone c. Silicone rubber d. Posmoulage

47. Which of the following materials would be

excellent to make a cast of extremely faint hammer blows on a safe?

a. Posmoulage b. Epoxy casting c. Silicone rubber d. Dental stone

48. What is the approximate circumference of a tire,

in feet? a. 1 t o 3 b. 5 t o 8 c. 10 to 12 d. 13 to 15

Assignment 11-11

49. When using a hollow cast with melted moulage, how

many minutes should you let it stand before pouring out the excess moulage?

a. 1 to 1 1/2 b. 2 t o 3 c. 5 t o 6 d. 10 to 15

50. When a laboratory examines cast and mold evidence,

class and individual characteristics are considered. a. True b. False

51. Which of the following types of markers may be used

to mark glass fragments? a. Grease pencil b. Diamond point pencil c. Carborundum pencil d. All of the above

In answering questions 52 through 55, select the examination term that matches the description given as the question. 52. Refers to the change of direction of a ray of light

passing through a medium. a. Density b. Fluorescence c. Refractive index d. Spectrographic analysis

53. Based on the fact that mineral constituents impart a

distinctive reaction when this technique is used. a. Density b. Fluorescence c. Refractive index d. Spectrographic analysis

Assignment 11-12

54. This technique is based on comparing the

characteristics of known and unknown pieces of glass.

a. Density b. Fluorescence c. Refractive index d. Spectrographic analysis

55. Has the greatest value in demonstrating major

differences between two samples. a. Density b. Fluorescence c. Refractive index d. Spectrographic analysis

In answering questions 56 through 61, select the term that matches the description given as the question. Responses may be used more than once. 56. Made when a tool is pressed against or into a

receiving surface. a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

57. Made when a crowbar is forcefully inserted into a

space between a door and the door facing. a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

Assignment 11-13

58. Made when a tool cuts into or slides across a

surface. a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

59. Usually made when a crowbar is used to pry open a door

or window. a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

60. An impression, cut, scratch, or abrasion made when a tool is brought into contact with an object.

a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

61. This type of mark may be made by a bolt cutter. a. Tool mark b. Friction mark c. Combination mark d. Negative impression

62. Tool mark evidence may be used for which of the

following reasons? a. To link a person who uses a given tool with the

crime scene b. To establish a connection between similar evidence

discovered in a series of crimes c. To compare a tool mark from a crime scene with a

tool mark found on the property of a suspect d. All of the above

Assignment 11-14

63. When processing a tool mark as evidence, how many

different courses of actions are available to the investigator?

a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Nine

64. A casting can be just as good or better than the

original impression. a. True b. False

65. Serial numbers on manufactured objects are made up of

which of the following? a. Individual letters b. Combination of numbers c. Combination of numbers, letters or symbols d. All of the above

66. Serial numbers are usually attached to objects in all

but which of the following ways? a. Engraved b. Permanent ink c. Molded d. Etched

Assignment 12-1

Assignment 12: Forensics part 2 (Questions from Chapter 10: Forensics Article)

(Assignment 10, 11, 12 & 13 is derived from Chapter 10)

1. On a normal person, blood usually begins to clot after how many minutes?

a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 3 to 5 d. 6 to 8

2. What color is blood after it has completely dried? a. Red b. Black c. Reddish-brown d. Reddish-black 3. When a drop of blood falls from 6 to 12 inches, the

bloodstains appear as a circular disk on a smooth surface.

a. True b. False

4. When a drop of blood falls from 2 to 3 yards, it may splash upon impact and form many small bloodstains.

a. True b. False

5. Blood usually clots in approximately how many minutes? a. 1 to 3 b. 4 to 6 c. 10 to 20 d. 25 to 30

Assignment 12-2

6. Before sending a bloodstained article to the lab for

examination it should be thoroughly dried. How should the drying process be completed?

a. Place the article in a dryer b. Place the article under heat lamps c. Place the article where an electric fan can blow across d. Place the article where it can dry naturally

7. What fraction of an ounce of blood is required for laboratory examination?

a. 1/16 b. 1/6 c. 1/4 d. 1/2

8. How many tubes of blood should be submitted to the lab for examination?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

9. Human blood is classified into a total of how many blood groups?

a. Six b. Five c. Three d. Four 10. In the continental United States. what is the

approximate percentage of people who belong to blood group AB?

a. 7% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5%

Assignment 12-3

11. In the continental United States, what is the

approximate percentage of people who belong to blood group O?

a. 75% b. 63% c. 51% d. 43%

12. Grouping dried blood stains is considerably more

difficult than grouping liquid blood.

a. True b. False

13. When human blood is examined in the laboratory,

the preferred test is the precipitin test.

a. True b. False

14. For blood group testing, what size bloodstain is

generally sufficient for a conclusive determination?

a. 1/16 x 1/8 b. 1/6 x 1/8 c. 1/2 x 1/4 d. 3/4 x 7/8

15. Approximately what percentage of the population are

secretors?

a. 25% b. 35% c. 65% d. 80%

Assignment 12-4

In answering questions 16 through 21, select the term that matches the description given as the question. 16. A continuous dark line of varying width running up the

center.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

17. The outer surface of the hair.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

18. Similar to overlapping shingles on a roof.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

19. The inner portion of the hair.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

20. The core portion of the hair shaft.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

Assignment 12-5

21. Contains the pigmentation of the hair.

a. Cortex b. Cuticle c. Medulla d. Cuticular scales

22. What is usually the first thing a laboratory

determines about a hair sample?

a. If it is from a male or female b. If it is human or animal c. The race of the person d. The part of the body the hair is from

23. In the case of human hairs the laboratory

determinations may include which of the following?

a. How the hair was removed b. How the hair was treated c. Blood grouping d. All of the above

24. Contact between two pieces of fabric seldom can be

made without an interchange of fiber material.

a. True b. False

25. When known samples from a victim or suspect are

collected, what minimum quantity of hair or fabric strands should be collected?

a. 5 b. 12 c. 20 d. 35

Assignment 12-6

26. When you secure soil for comparison samples, about

how much soil should you collect?

a. 1 teaspoon b. 2 tablespoons c. 5 large scoops d. 1 quart

27. When a soil sample is taken, it is seldom necessary

to dig deeper than how many inches?

a. 1/8 to 1/4 b. 1/8 to 3/16 c. 1/2 to 3/4 d. 1 to 2

In answering questions 28 through 37, select the laboratory technique that matches the description given as the question. 28. Permits qualitative and quantitative analysis of a

substance.

a. Infrared light b. Ultraviolet light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

29. Material to be analyzed is injected.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

30. Has no fluorescent effect that can be seen with the

unaided eye.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Ultraviolet light d. Spectrophotometer

Assignment 12-7

31. The light emission phenomenon resulting is one of

fluorescence. a. Infrared light b. Ultraviolet light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

32. Minute quantities of evidentiary material are often

analyzed.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

33. A mixture of several substances may be analyzed.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

34. Produces a graph showing the basic constituents and

trace elements.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

35. Uses a slightly shorter wavelength than normal

visible light.

a. Spectrograph b. Infrared light c. Ultraviolet light d. Spectrophotometer

Assignment 12-8

36. The application of this instrument lies primarily

in its identification and analysis of substances.

a. Spectrograph b. Ultraviolet light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

37. Uses a slightly longer wavelength than normal

visible light.

a. Infrared light b. Ultraviolet light c. Spectrophotometer d. Gas-liquid chromatography

38. Only DOD-certified examiners or intern examiners

under direct supervision of a certified examiner are authorized to conduct polygraph examinations.

a. True b. False

39. From whom should you obtain authorization to conduct a

polygraph examination?

a. Local NCIS agent b. Director of the NCIS c. Under Secretary of the Navy d. Senior officer present afloat

40. The polygraph examiner is prohibited from conducting

examination when, in the examiner’s opinion, the person fits which of the following descriptions?

a. Physically fatigue b. Known to have a mental disorder c. Below the age of reason d. Each of the above

Assignment 12-9

41. Upon completion of the polygraph examination, the examiner may come to one of how many conclusions?

a. Seven b. Six c. Three d. Four

Concerning polygraph examination, in answering questions 43 through 49 select the conclusion that matches the description given as the question. 42. The subject is informed that the examination has been

completed and the charts will be subjected to a detailed analysis.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

43. The examinee is deliberately distorting the charts.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

44. The examiner interrogates the examinee and attempts to determine the causes of specific responses.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

45. The examinee has a cold and rapport is not

established.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

Assignment 12-10

46. The examinee seems to suffer from a permanent

psychological disorder.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

47. After the subject leaves the room the examiner

carefully evaluates the charts and confers with the investigator if doubts exist.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

48. A subsequent examination may be made by the

original examiner without obtaining additional approval.

a. No opinion b. No deception c. Inconclusive d. Deception indicated

49. What action should the Master-at-Arms take at a

crime scene if the offense is to be investigated by NCIS?

a. Question witnesses b. Collect all evidence c. Present the findings d. Protect the crime scene

50. When evidence is searched for in large outdoor areas, it is advisable to divide the area into strips approximately how wide?

a. 10 ft b. 2 ft c. 7 ft d. 4 ft

Assignment 12-11

51. When you search indoors or outdoors, the search area

may be divided into what type of areas? a. Zones only b. Sectors only c. Zones and sectors d. Regions

52. Evidence may not be released to any person other than

the evidence custodian without supervisor approval.

a. True b. False

53. Properly prepared sketches are useful for which of the

following reasons?

a. Preparing reports b. Questioning witnesses c. Refreshing your memory d. Each of the above

54. A sketch provides the best means of portraying

distances between objects at the scene.

a. True b. False

55. What method of sketching should be used for indoor

sketches?

a. Outline b. Vertical c. Horizontal d. Triangulation

56. Of the following considerations, which one is most

important in crime scene photography?

a. Time

Assignment 12-12

b. Evidence flags c. Extraneous objects d. Maintaining perspective

In answering questions 58 through 63 select the photographic term that matches the description given as the question. 57. Controls the amount of time the light is allowed to

reach the film.

a. Film speed b. Lens speed c. Shutter speed d. Exposure meter

58. Controls the amount of light transmitted to the film.

a. Filters b. Film speed c. Lens speed d. Shutter speed

59. Identifies the sensitivity of the film to light.

a. Film speed b. Lens speed c. Shutter speed d. Exposure meter

60. Controls the amount of light entering the lens.

a. Filters b. Film speed c. Lens speed d. Exposure meter

61. Determines the light value of a scene or object.

a. Filters b. Film speed c. Shutter speed d. Exposure meter

Assignment 12-13

62. Classified as slow, medium, or fast.

a. Film speed b. Lens speed c. Shutter speed d. Exposure meter

63. What are the two general categories of color film?

a. Ektachrome and anscochrome b. Ektacolor and anscocolor c. Negative and positive d. Prints and slides

Assignment 13-1

Assignment 13: Evidence Procedures (Questions from Chapter 10: Evidence Procedures Article)

(Assignment 10, 11, 12 & 13 is derived from Chapter 10)

1. Physical evidence is one of the most valuable assets in pursuing an investigation to a successful conclusion.

a. True b. False

2. Which of the following techniques is used to achieve the maximum benefit from physical evidence?

a. Handling b. Collecting c. Preserving d. Each of the above 3. Physical evidence is divided into a total of how

many general categories? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

4. A wall, floor, or telephone pole would be what category of evidence?

a. Secure b. Temporary c. Both A and B above d. Fixed

5. Which of the following individuals must be able to authenticate a piece of evidence at a later date?

a. Investigator b. Security officer c. Person who first receives it d. All of the above

Assignment 13-2

6. Correct identification of evidence occurs when the member taking custody of the evidence promptly marks and tags the item.

a. True b. False

7. Evidence should be inscribed with which of the following two items?

a. Name of collector and date and time b. Initials of collector and military date and time c. Case control number and storage location d. Name of command and estimated value

8. Which of the following should you not do when you mark evidence?

a. Destroy latent characteristics b. Reduce the object’s function c. Devalue the object d. Each of the above

9. When an item of evidence cannot be marked without destroying evidentiary characteristics, which of the following actions should be taken?

a. Place the item in a sealed container and mark it for

identification b. Identify the item with an evidence tag only c. Photograph the item only d. Draw and identify the item only 10. The chain of custody begins when an item of

evidence is collected by the security force member.

a. True b. False

Assignment 13-3

11. What term identifies a written, chronological record

of evidence transactions?

a. Good record keeping b. Evidence tagging c. Investigative notes d. Chain of custody

12. Each person listed on the chain of custody is

responsible for each item of evidence while under the individual’s control.

a. True b. False

13. Who assumes the responsibility of evidence when it is

not in use by a competent authority?

a. Owner b. Security Officer c. Evidence custodian d. Investigations supervisor

14. What individual appoints the evidence custodian and

the alternate?

a. Commanding officer b. Executive officer c. Security officer d. Chief Master-at-Arms

15. What OPNAV Form is used as the evidence/property

custody receipt?

a. 5580/9 b. 5580/15 c. 5580/17 d. 5580/22

Assignment 13-4

16. What method should be used to enter items on the

evidence custody document?

a. Typed only b. Printed in Ink only c. Typed or printed in ink d. Pencil

17. What should be done with the second copy of the

evidence/property custody document?

a. Kept with the evidence b. Returned to the owner c. Attached to the incident compliant report d. Sent to the local NCIS office

18. The evidence log and all supporting documentation

should be retained for a minimum of how many years?

a. 10 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

19. The combinations of all evidence containers must be

changed in which of the following situations?

a. Annually b. When a new security officer is appointed c. When a suspected breach of evidence security occurs d. Each of the above

20. A complete inventory of evidence and reconciliation

of documents must be accomplished at least how often?

a. Annually b. Semiannually c. Quarterly d. Monthly

Assignment 13-5

21. Which of the following individuals should not be involved in an evidence inventory?

a. Security officer b. An interested third party c. Evidence custodian d. Alternate evidence custodian

22. Of the following methods of evidence transmittal,

which one is not authorized?

a. Registered mail b. First-class mail c. Second-class mail d. Freight or hand-carry

23. Which of the following materials may not be

transmitted through the U.S. mail?

a. Gas b. Chemical c. Ammunition d. Each of the above

24. What is the final link in the evidence custody chain?

a. Disposition b. Transfer c. Storage d. Control