semester 1 bio 1 1819 review - 4.files.edl.ioa. all living things and the places on earth where they...
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Semester 1 Bio 1 1819 Review
1. Scientists use observations and data to form and test
a. constants.
b. hypotheses.
c. theories.
d. conclusions.
2. During an experiment, which factors are observed and measured?
a. dependent variables
b. independent variables
c. constants
d. hypotheses
3. At which stage of scientific thinking are scientists most likely to consider the data and conclusions of other
scientists to propose new experiments?
a. observing
b. testing hypotheses
c. analyzing data
d. forming hypotheses
4. The various parts of Earth's biosphere are connected and
a. similar.
b. nonliving.
c. diverse.
d. aquatic.
5. The variety of life across the biosphere is called
a. biodiversity.
b. genomics.
c. homeostasis.
d. ecology.
6. Similar organisms that can reproduce by interbreeding belong to the same
a. ecosystem.
b. environment.
c. habitat.
d. species.
7. All the chemical processes used to build up or break down materials are called an organism's
a. metabolism.
b. homeostasis.
c. adaptations.
d. stimuli.
8. What is the name given for genetic changes in living things over time?
a. adaptation
b. homeostasis
c. evolution
d. negative feedback
9. A physical environment with different species that interact with one another and with nonliving things is called
a(n)
a. biosphere.
b. ecosystem.
c. habitat.
d. adaptation.
10. Organisms rely on both negative feedback processes and behavior to maintain
a. homeostasis.
b. adaptations.
c. ecosystems.
d. evolution.
11. How have computer models expanded biological research?
a. They help scientists design better experiments.
b. They simulate complex biological systems that cannot be studied directly.
c. They give scientists the ability to observe molecules directly.
d. They allow the use of human experimental subjects.
12. The study and manipulation of DNA on a molecular level is known as
a. biochemistry.
b. genomes.
c. molecular genetics.
d. evolution.
13. Both of the processes shown in Figure 1.2 use and apply biological processes. Both processes are examples of
a. biotechnology.
b. genomics.
c. imaging technology.
d. transgenic organisms.
14. Exploring how indoor air pollutants lead to respiratory problems is an example of using biology to
a. develop biotechnology.
b. monitor global change.
c. improve human health.
d. make ethical decisions.
Short Answer
15. Identify each of the following as independent variable, dependent variable, or constant: type of soil used, type of
seedling used, and height of plant.
16. Is soil appearance an example of qualitative (descriptive) or quantitative (numerical) data?
Use the exhibit to answer the following questions.
17. If the birds' beak differences mean that each eats different foods, how did the trait become more common in the
finches on different islands?
18. Which of these birds most likely inherited the best trait for life in a dry, desert environment? Why?
19. In an environment in which insect populations are decreasing, which bird population might also decrease over
time? Why?
20. Scientists use scientific thinking to test
a. data.
b. hypotheses.
c. observations.
d. conclusions.
21. Which is true about a dependent variable in an experiment?
a. It is the experimental data.
b. It is manipulated by a scientist.
c. It never changes during the experiment.
d. It is not affected by the independent variable.
22. When scientists are "evaluating results" as a part of scientific thinking, they mainly
a. explain data they collected and analyzed.
b. collect data from other scientists.
c. examine prior research on a topic.
d. use statistics to analyze their data.
23. Which of the following statements is true of the many parts of the biosphere?
a. Each part is isolated from the others.
b. Each part is completely unique.
c. Each part is connected to all the others.
d. Each part includes salt water.
24. On Earth, biodiversity generally increases from the
a. poles to the equator.
b. equator to the rainforest.
c. east to the west.
d. north to the south.
25. Only individuals belonging to the same species are able to
a. respond to stimuli in the same way.
b. inhabit a particular ecosystem.
c. use similar metabolic processes.
d. reproduce by interbreeding.
26. Organisms use energy for all chemical processes. Together, all of these processes are called
a. metabolism.
b. negative feedback.
c. adaptation.
d. homeostasis.
27. Which is the correct description of evolution?
a. relationship between organisms'structure and function
b. beneficial inherited trait that is passed to future generations
c. change in the genetic makeup of a population over time
d. change in biodiversity across Earth's surface
28. Which phrase best describes an ecosystem?
a. all living things and the places on Earth where they are found
b. organisms interacting with each other and with nonliving things in a certain region
c. the variety of organisms on Earth or in a particular area of the biosphere
d. a group of living things that can interbreed to reproduce
29. Which of the following are most important for an organism to maintain homeostasis?
a. behaviors and negative feedback
b. reproduction and development
c. interactions with nonliving things
d. dependence on other organisms
30. Computer modeling would most likely have to be applied to which of these biological research topics?
a. how sugar levels in an athlete's muscles change during exercise
b. how West Nile virus might spread among a population
c. how a drug to treat cancer affects laboratory rats that have cancer
d. how different amounts of fertilizer change crop yields
31. Figure 1.2 shows two uses of biotechnology. Process B differs from process A because it relies on
a. transgenic organisms.
b. genomics.
c. microorganisms.
d. genetic screening.
32. An understanding of biology helps you evaluate important issues based on
a. hypotheses.
b. economics.
c. evidence.
d. opinions.
Short Answer
33. Three identical seedlings are planted and the height to which each one grows is recorded in the table above. The
plants have identical containers, water, and light. What is a researcher testing with this experiment?
34. Identify the independent variable, dependent variable, and one constant in this experiment.
35. The smallest basic unit of matter is the
a. molecule.
b. atom.
c. compound.
d. cell.
36. Which of the following is formed when an atom gains or loses electrons?
a. element
b. compound
c. molecule
d. ion
37. Atoms in molecules share pairs of electrons when they make
a. covalent bonds.
b. ionic bonds.
c. hydrogen bonds.
d. polymers.
38. What gives water many properties that are important to living things?
a. temperature
b. hydrogen bonds
c. density
d. specific heat
39. Which of the following solutions has the highest H ion concentration?
a. a solution with a pH of 1
b. a solution with a pH of 4
c. a solution with a pH of 7
d. a solution with a pH of 10
40. What is unique about carbon?
a. bonding properties
b. ability to bond with oxygen
c. properties as a reactant
d. properties as an enzyme
41. Which substance represented in Figure 2.1 (A or B) is the solvent?
a. both A and B
b. substance A
c. substance B
d. neither A nor B
42. The four main types of carbon-based molecules in organisms are carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and
a. starches.
b. fatty acids.
c. monosaccharides.
d. proteins.
43. Both animal fats and plant oils are made up of glycerol and
a. phospholipids.
b. fatty acids.
c. polar molecules.
d. saturated fats.
44. Substances are changed into different substances when bonds break and form during
a. chemical equilibrium.
b. chemical reactions.
c. ion formation.
d. hydrogen bonding.
45. Identify the products in this reaction: 6H2O + 6CO2 ---> C6H12O6 + 6O2.
a. 6 and 6
b. 6 and
c. 6 , , and 6
d. and 6
46. Chemical reactions that absorb more energy than they release are called
a. exothermic.
b. catalyzed.
c. endothermic.
d. activated.
47. The activation energy needed for a chemical reaction is decreased by a
a. catalyst.
b. reactant.
c. product.
d. substrate.
48. In the lock-and-key model of enzyme function shown in Figure 2.2, what is happening in step 2?
a. The catalyzed reaction is releasing a product.
b. The active sites are restructuring the enzyme.
c. The enzyme is causing new bonds to form between the substrates.
d. The substrates are beginning to bind to the enzyme.
49. Which aspect of a chemical reaction is affected by enzymes?
a. direction
b. rate
c. equilibrium
d. pH
Short Answer
50. How can you tell that an ionic bond is formed between magnesium and oxygen?
51. Remembering that electrons are negatively charged, is magnesium in part B positively or negatively charged?
Why?
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
52. Figure 2.4 shows the basic molecular structure of amino acids and how they bind together. What type of molecule
is formed by amino acids?
53. The arrows point to peptide bonds between amino acids. What is the name of a chain of amino acids linked by
peptide bonds?
54. Is a protein a monomer or a polymer? Define these terms in your answer.
55. Which phrase best describes an atom?
a. substance made of different elements
b. smallest basic unit of matter
c. substance that includes covalent bonds
d. contains electrons in its nucleus
56. How do ions form?
a. Atoms combine to make a larger atom.
b. Two atoms share electrons.
c. Atoms form covalent bonds.
d. Atoms gain or lose electrons.
57. How are atoms held together in molecules?
a. They form covalent bonds.
b. They form ions.
c. They break hydrogen bonds.
d. They combine to form polymers.
58. Which property of water is the result of hydrogen bonds?
a. polarity of water molecules
b. high specific heat
c. low boiling point
d. no cohesion among water molecules
59. How does the addition of an acid affect a neutral solution?
a. The pH is raised.
b. The acid is neutralized.
c. The ion concentration is increased.
d. The solvent concentration is increased.
60. Which substance would be considered to be the solute in Figure 2.1?
a. Substance A is the solution and substance B is the solvent.
b. Substance A is the solute because it is smaller than substance B.
c. Substance B is the solute because it is present in smaller amounts.
d. Both substances A and B are solutes.
61. Which property of carbon makes it the "building block of life"?
a. its covalent bonding
b. its ability to dissolve substances
c. its specific heat
d. its hydrogen bonding
62. What are the four main groups of carbon-based molecules?
a. starches, cholesterol, fatty acids, and amino acids
b. sugars, cellulose, triglycerides, and monosaccharides
c. polysaccharides, sugars, oils, and polymers
d. carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids
63. When fatty acids cannot pack together tightly enough to make a solid fat, they have
a. more polar molecules.
b. fewer hydrogen atoms.
c. no double carbon bonds.
d. very little glycerol.
64. Chemical reactions change substances into different substances by
a. reaching chemical equilibrium.
b. breaking and forming bonds.
c. changing the substance's properties.
d. maintaining constant energy.
65. What is the term for the substances that are changed during a chemical reaction?
a. products
b. catalysts
c. enzymes
d. reactants
66. What is the result of an endothermic chemical reaction?
a. hydrogen bonds are broken down
b. products have lower bond energy than reactants
c. more energy absorbed than released
d. no energy absorbed or released
67. The function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction is to increase the
a. reaction rate.
b. activation energy.
c. pH.
d. number of substrates.
68. The lock-and-key model of enzyme function shown in Figure 2.2 illustrates which important characteristic of
enzymes?
a. ability to bind with many reactants
b. ever-changing structure
c. precise fit with a particular substrate
d. ability to bond with a product
69. What aspects of a chemical reaction are enzymes known to affect?
a. direction and reactant concentration
b. rate and activation energy
c. temperature and pH
d. conditions needed for equilibrium
Short Answer
70. What is the name for atoms like those in part B that have lost or gained electrons when forming a chemical bond?
71. Is the magnesium in part B more or less stable than it is in part A? Why?
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
72. The arrows point to bonds that form between amino acids. What are these bonds called, and what is the name of
the chain formed by these bonds?
73. Which of the following is a major principle upon which cell theory is based?
a. All cells form by free-cell formation.
b. All cells have DNA.
c. All organisms are made of cells.
d. All cells are eukaryotic.
74. Identify the type of cell shown in Figure 3.1.
a. prokaryotic
b. eukaryotic
c. bacterial
d. animal
75. Which organelle is the storehouse for most of a cell's genetic information?
a. mitochondrion
b. chloroplast
c. centriole
d. nucleus
76. Which phrase best describes rough ER?
a. studded with ribosomes
b. protected by vesicles
c. connected to the Golgi apparatus
d. stored in the central vacuole
77. Which organelles supply energy to the cell?
a. ribosomes
b. centrosomes
c. mitochondria
d. vacuoles
78. Which organelles contain enzymes that break down old cell parts?
a. centrosomes
b. lysosomes
c. vacuoles
d. chloroplasts
79. Which organelles are unique to plant cells?
a. ribosomes
b. vacuoles
c. chloroplasts
d. centrosomes
80. Which process occurs inside the chloroplasts?
a. detoxification
b. ribosome assembly
c. photosynthesis
d. protein synthesis
81. Which type of receptor is shown in the diagram in Figure 3.2?
a. cytoplasmic
b. membrane
c. extracellular
d. intracellular
82. A protein that detects a signal molecule and performs an action in response is called a
a. receptor.
b. ligand.
c. vesicle.
d. proton.
83. A solution that is hypotonic to a cell has
a. more solutes than the cell.
b. fewer solutes than the cell.
c. the same concentration of solutes as the cell.
d. too many solutes.
84. Transport proteins play a role in both
a. passive and active transport.
b. exocytosis and endocytosis.
c. diffusion and vesicle transport.
d. phagocytosis and passive transport.
85. Which process requires no energy from the cell?
a. exocytosis
b. endocytosis
c. active transport
d. facilitated diffusion
86. Which organelles are involved in the process called endocytosis?
a. ribosomes
b. vesicles
c. centrioles
d. chloroplasts
87. Which process is occurring when a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents outside the cell?
a. endocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. exocytosis
d. osmosis
Short Answer
88. Which labeled structure is the site of photosynthesis?
89. Name the type of cell shown on the right side of the diagram.
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
90. What is the term for the molecules located in part A of the diagram?
91. What conditions would cause a molecule to diffuse from the outside of the structure shown to the inside?
92. Cell theory establishes which of the following conclusions about cells?
a. All cells have the same size and shape.
b. All cells form by free-cell formation.
c. All cells are produced by other living cells.
d. All cells have a cell wall.
93. How is the cell shown in Figure 3.1 different from a prokaryotic cell?
a. It has a nucleus.
b. It has DNA.
c. It has cytoplasm.
d. It has a cell membrane.
94. Which organelles are present both inside the nucleolus and on the surface of the ER?
a. ribosomes
b. vacuoles
c. mitochondria
d. vesicles
95. Which phrase describes the function of the mitochondria?
a. breaks down chemicals
b. packages proteins
c. supplies energy to the cell
d. fluid-filled sac used for storage
96. Which organelles are involved in defending a cell against viruses?
a. centrosomes
b. lysosomes
c. vacuoles
d. chloroplasts
97. Which features are found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
a. mitochondria and ribosomes
b. vesicles and vacuoles
c. cell walls and chloroplasts
d. centrioles and centrosomes
98. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both sites of
a. energy conversion.
b. energy manufacturing.
c. photosynthesis.
d. protein synthesis.
99. What phrase best describes the process shown in Figure 3.2?
a. osmosis
b. facilitated diffusion
c. the formation of a transport protein
d. the formation of a receptor-ligand complex
100. Which type of receptor binds to ligands that cannot enter the cell?
a. membrane
b. intracellular
c. extracellular
d. cytoplasmic
101. Water enters a cell when the solution surrounding the cell is
a. concentrated.
b. hypotonic to the cell.
c. weak.
d. hypertonic to the cell.
102. Which of the following phrases best describes active transport?
a. moves substance against concentration gradient
b. does not use chemical energy
c. forms a vesicle around a large particle
d. relies on diffusion of materials
103. Which phrase best describes the process of facilitated diffusion?
a. moves molecules against a concentration gradient
b. requires ATP
c. moves only nonpolar molecules
d. requires no energy from the cell
104. Which organelles are involved in the process called endocytosis?
a. macrophages and ribosomes
b. lysosomes and vesicles
c. phagocytes and centrioles
d. mitochondria and ribosomes
105. Which sentence best describes exocytosis?
a. A vesicle fuses to a lysosome and its contents are destroyed.
b. A vesicle fuses to the cell membrane and its contents enter the cell.
c. A vesicle fuses to the cell membrane and its contents leave the cell.
d. A vesicle fuses to the nuclear envelope and its contents enter the nucleus.
Short Answer
106. What is the function of structure B?
107. Identify structures C, D, and E and explain how they work together to perform a specific process within the cell.
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
108. What is the name of the model developed by scientists to describe the arrangement of molecules within this
structure?
109. The diagram shows phospholipids with polar heads and nonpolar tails. Describe how the polarity of phospholipids
relates to the overall arrangement of the structure shown.
110. How do parts A and B of the diagram contribute to the structure's selective permeability?
111. What molecule carries chemical energy that cells use for their functions?
a. ADP
b. ATP
c. d.
112. Which of the following molecules found in the food we eat is most commonly broken down to make ATP?
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. proteins
d. vitamins
113. Which of the following directly provides the energy needed for cell functions?
a. A phosphate group is removed from ATP.
b. ADP loses a phosphate group.
c. Electrons are passed to proteins.
d. Oxygen picks up electrons.
114. Chemosynthesis is a process through which some organisms use energy from chemicals in their environment to
build sugars in the absence of
a. ATP.
b. water.
c. glucose.
d. sunlight.
115. Which of the following is a reactant in photosynthesis?
a.
b.
c.
d. COOH
116. Where in plant cells are the energy-absorbing molecules for photosynthesis located?
a. stroma
b. thylakoids
c. ATP synthase
d. mitochondria
117. What happens to the sugars that are made during photosynthesis?
a. They move directly into an electron transport chain.
b. They go back into the Calvin cycle.
c. They can be used for cellular respiration.
d. They make ATP by bonding together.
118. The part of cellular respiration that needs oxygen takes place inside the
a. nucleus.
b. mitochondria.
c. thylakoid.
d. cytoplasm.
119. Which process is best represented by the following chemical equation?
sugars + oxygen carbon dioxide + water
a. cellular respiration
b. photosynthesis
c. glycolysis
d. fermentation
120. Which of the following is best shown by Figure 4.2 below?
a. glycolysis
b. diffusion
c. the Krebs cycle
d. electron transport chain
121. An electron transport chain that produces ATP is part of both the cellular respiration process and
a. glycolysis.
b. fermentation.
c. photosynthesis.
d. the Krebs cycle.
122. In which process is lactic acid formed when there is not enough oxygen present for cellular respiration to take
place?
a. ATP synthase
b. photosystem I
c. glycolysis
d. fermentation
123. Before cellular respiration, glucose must be broken down by the process of
a. photosynthesis.
b. glycolysis.
c. electron transport.
d. fermentation.
Short Answer
124. Write a simple title for the diagram above.
125. What does the large zigzagging arrow represent?
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
126. Write a simple title for the diagram above.
127. Which of the following statements is true of ATP?
a. It stores energy as glucose.
b. It transfers energy to cell processes.
c. It releases energy when it gains a phosphate group.
d. It converts sunlight into chemical energy.
128. The breakdown of which of the following provides the largest number of ATP per molecule?
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. proteins
d. cellulose
129. Which of the following reactions provides the chemical energy for most cell functions?
a. ATP - P ADP
b. ATP + P ADP
c. ADP - P ATP
d. ADP + P ATP
130. Which process would bacteria living near a heat vent on the ocean floor use to build carbon-based molecules, such
as sugars?
a. light-independent reactions
b. cellular respiration
c. fermentation
d. chemosynthesis
131. Which chemical equation best represents the process of photosynthesis?
a. 6 + 6 + 6
b. + 6 + 6
c. 6 + 6 + 6
d. + 6 6 + 6
132. What is the name of the process that breaks glucose down into the pyruvate that is used in cellular respiration?
a. fermentation
b. electron transport
c. glycolysis
d. the Krebs cycle
133. The aerobic stages of cellular respiration take place in the
a. cell membrane.
b. mitochondria.
c. cytoplasm.
d. grana.
134. Which process is best represented by the chemical equation C6H12 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O?
a. cellular respiration
b. photosynthesis
c. glycolysis
d. fermentation
135. An electron transport chain is part of
a. the Krebs cycle only.
b. cellular respiration only.
c. both photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
d. both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
136. Which process allows glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen?
a. chemosynthesis
b. photosystem I
c. cellular respiration
d. fermentation
137. Which organisms use alcoholic fermentation to allow glycolysis to continue to produce ATP?
a. reptiles
b. yeasts
c. humans
d. mammals
Short Answer
138. What process does the simplified diagram illustrate? How do you know?
139. List two high-energy molecules shown in the diagram that transfer energy.
140. If a cell cannot move enough material through its membrane to survive, then the ratio of its surface area to volume
is
a. too large.
b. just the right size.
c. too small.
d. growing too quickly.
141. Before a cell can proceed to mitosis from the gap 2 stage of the cell cycle, it must
a. double in size.
b. complete a full cell cycle.
c. undergo cytokinesis.
d. pass a critical checkpoint.
142. During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
a. copies DNA.
b. divides the nucleus.
c. divides the cytoplasm.
d. produces a new cell.
143. Why do the cells lining the stomach divide more quickly than those in the liver?
a. They are much smaller cells.
b. They have fewer chromosomes.
c. They need much more surface area.
d. They undergo more wear and tear.
144. During which of the following stages shown in Figure 5.1 does the cytoplasm of a cell divide?
a. gap 1
b. synthesis
c. gap 2
d. mitosis
145. Kinases and cyclins are internal factors that
a. cause apoptosis.
b. control the cell cycle.
c. cause cancer cells to break away.
d. prevent mitosis.
146. Proteins from outside a cell that stimulate it to divide are called
a. oncogenes.
b. stem cells.
c. cyclins.
d. growth factors.
147. Which statement describes the chromosome shown in Figure 5.2?
a. It is made up of two histones.
b. It is made up of two chromatids.
c. It is made up of two centromeres.
d. It is made up of two telomeres.
148. In a single-celled organism, mitosis is used for
a. development.
b. reproduction.
c. growth.
d. epair.
149. Which of the following is true of malignant tumors?
a. They do not require treatment.
b. They are easily removed through surgery.
c. They can cause tumors in other parts of the body.
d. They contain cells that stay clustered together.
150. One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that
a. cancer cells divide uncontrollably.
b. normal cells divide uncontrollably.
c. cancer cells cannot make copies of DNA.
d. normal cells cannot make copies of DNA.
151. Which statement about the process of binary fission is true?
a. It does not involve the division of cytoplasm.
b. It does not require any duplication of DNA.
c. It does not take place in multicellular organisms.
d. It does not produce genetically identical offspring.
152. A plant's leaf consists of
a. a group of organs.
b. various types of tissue.
c. organs that form a system.
d. many identical cells.
153. Cells in a developing embryo differentiate based on
a. their location in the embryo.
b. symmetry in the first division.
c. their particular DNA.
d. secretions from the embryo.
154. Which organism is capable of reproduction through asexual mitosis?
a. horse
b. oak tree
c. bacterium
d. starfish
Short Answer
155. Write the letter of the stage in the cycle that occurs last.
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
156. Name one type of cell shown in the diagram that is multipotent.
157. Which of the cell masses shown in the diagram contains cells that are totipotent?
158. Assume that all of the cells shown above are from the same organism and have the same genetic information. How
do the cells differentiate into cells with different functions?
159. What does a cell make during the synthesis stage of the cell cycle?
a. more organelles
b. a copy of DNA
c. daughter cells
d. greater surface area
160. Before a cell can move from the G or G stage to the next stage of the cell cycle, it must grow and
a. double in size.
b. duplicate its DNA.
c. complete interphase.
d. pass a critical checkpoint.
161. The gap 1, gap 2, and synthesis stages of the cell cycle make up
a. interphase.
b. telophase.
c. cytokinesis.
d. mitosis.
162. Molecules that control the stages of the cell cycle in all eukaryotes are similar. This fact suggests that
a. binary fission and mitosis are the same.
b. rates of cell division are uniform.
c. cells of eukaryotes rarely divide.
d. eukaryotes share a common ancestry.
163. During which of the following stages shown in Figure 5.1 does cytokinesis take place?
a. gap 1
b. synthesis
c. gap 2
d. mitosis
164. Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that controls the cell cycle?
a. growth factor
b. kinase
c. cell-cell contact
d. erythropoietin
165. A hormone present in the blood can stimulate the growth of certain cells. The hormone is acting as a(n)
a. oncogene.
b. carcinogen.
c. daughter cell.
d. external factor.
166. Which statement is true of the chromosome shown in Figure 5.2?
a. Its telomeres have been shortened due to repeated cell division.
b. Its left and right halves carry identical genetic information.
c. Its sister chromatids have spindle fibers attached.
d. Its centromere has been lost during the copying of DNA.
167. Multicellular organisms use mitosis for growth, development, and
a. apoptosis.
b. repair.
c. reproduction.
d. interphase.
168. If a tumor is malignant, then cancer cells from the tumor
a. are harmless.
b. remain clustered together.
c. can form more tumors.
d. create more carcinogens.
169. One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that
a. cancer cells can divide in the absence of growth factors.
b. cancer cells continue in the G0 stage indefinitely.
c. cancer cells cannot copy DNA during the synthesis phase.
d. cancer cells are killed by radiation and chemotherapy
170. Offspring that are genetically unique are the result of
a. mitotic reproduction.
b. asexual reproduction.
c. sexual reproduction.
d. vegetative reproduction.
171. Which phrase best describes fragmentation?
a. parent organism produces eggs and sperm, which form a new organism.
b. parent organism sends off runner that grows into new organism.
c. parent organism splits into pieces, each of which forms a new organism.
d. parent organism sprouts projection that becomes new organism.
172. In vertebrates, differentiation of cells is influenced by
a. whether the cell is apical or basal.
b. how rapid the first divisions are.
c. variations in the organisms' DNA.
d. where the cells migrate.
173. Which of the following reproduce asexually through mitosis?
a. many multicellular eukaryotes
b. most unicellular prokaryotes
c. only unicellular eukaryotes
d. some multicellular and unicellular eukaryotes
Short Answer
174. What is the term used to name the stage shown in part C of the diagram? Describe the events that take place during
this stage.
175. What is the term used to name the stage shown in part B of the diagram? In part D? Describe the events that take
place during these stages.
176. What did Hershey and Chase know about bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in their DNA
experiments?
a. Bacteriophages are made up of a protein coat surrounding DNA.
b. Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive.
c. Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria.
d. Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own.
177. Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of bacteria to show that the genetic material in bacteria is DNA?
a. Martha Chase
b. Oswald Avery
c. Frederick Griffith
d. Alfred Hershey
178. Figure 8.1 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the other DNA strand.
a. GGT
b. CCT
c. GGC
d. TTA
179. The main difference between the four nucleotides that make up DNA is that they have different
a. sugars.
b. uracil.
c. bonds.
d. bases.
180. Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood?
a. Hershey and Chase
b. Watson and Crick
c. Pauling and Franklin
d. Chargaff and Griffith
181. In humans, where does DNA replication take place?
a. cytoplasm
b. ribosome
c. nucleus
d. vacuole
182. During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to
a. bind nucleotides together.
b. send messages.
c. receive messages.
d. locate replication sites.
183. Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.
a. AUT
b. CTA
c. AUC
d. ACG
184. During transcription, what does messenger RNA do?
a. It delivers DNA's instructions for making proteins.
b. It constructs proteins out of random amino acids.
c. It strings together two complementary DNA strands.
d. It strings together two complementary RNA strands.
185. In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs, transcription takes place
a. on a gene segment over and over again.
b. on a gene segment only once.
c. using double-stranded RNA.
d. using single-stranded RNA.
186. The central dogma states that information flows from
a. RNA to DNA to polysaccharides.
b. DNA to RNA to proteins.
c. RNA to DNA to proteins.
d. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA.
187. Where is messenger RNA "edited" into its final form?
a. in the cytoplasm
b. in the ribosomes
c. in the nucleus
d. in the anticodon
188. In bacteria, what binds with the repressor to activate the lac operon?
a. enzymes
b. lactose
c. repressors
d. promoters
Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.
189. What type of mutation is shown in Figure 8.4?
190. Suppose this mutation occurred in a body cell. Would offspring be affected? Explain.
Multiple Choice
191. How did Hershey and Chase's use of radiolabeled bacteriophages to study the genetic material validate Avery's
research?
a. It demonstrated conclusively that the genetic material is not protein.
b. It showed that bacteriophages are not digested by bacterial enzymes.
c. It proved that bacteria will take up phosphorus, but not sulfur.
d. It confirmed that bacteriophages cannot inject radiolabeled DNA.
192. Figure 8.1 shows a single strand of DNA. Identify the nucleotide sequence of the other DNA strand.
a. GGCUTGU
b. AATGCAG
c. GGCATGA
d. TTACGTC
193. The DNA double helix model used today is the product of research done by scientists
a. Hershey and Chase.
b. Watson and Crick.
c. Pauling and Franklin.
d. Chargaff and Griffith.
194. Suppose you can read the sequence of bases on only one strand of the double helix. What would you use to figure
out the sequence on the other strand?
a. central dogma
b. x-ray crystallography
c. Chargaff's rules
d. base pairing rules
195. Which of the following is the site of DNA replication in eukaryotes?
a. cytoplasm
b. ribosome
c. nucleus
d. vacuole
196. Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Identify the nucleotide sequence of the complementary RNA strand.
a. ATUTUAG
b. CAAGACT
c. AUCUCAG
d. ATCTCAG
197. What "message" does mRNA carry?
a. the genetic code that, when translated, forms proteins
b. orders for making ribosomes, a cell's protein factories
c. the order of base pairs in complementary RNA strands
d. the number of codons in an individual reading frame
198. When does replication occur?
a. once in every cell cycle
b. when nucleotides float in the nucleus
c. during the cell's M phase
d. when tRNA unzips DNA
199. Crick's central dogma of molecular biology is essentially a summary of
a. base pairing rules for all nucleotides.
b. genetic code stored in all start codons.
c. amino acid relationships to ribosomes.
d. replication, transcription, and translation.
200. The lac operon is an example of how gene regulation occurs in
a. yeasts.
b. bacteria.
c. humans.
d. eukaryotes.