ssc cgl exam 2018 - ibsindia.co.in type questions carrying 200 marks with each question carrying 2...

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SSC CGL EXAM 2018 DETAILED NOTIFICATION

Closing Date: 04.06.2018 Date of Computer Based Examination (Tier-I): 25.07.2018-20.08.2018 Date of Tier-II: To be notified later Date of Tier-III (Descriptive): To be notified later Date of Tier-IV (Skill test): To be notified later

SSC Notifies the Recruitment Notification under Combuined Graduate Level Exam 2017 for the posts of Inspector / Sub Inspector / Assistant Audit Officer / Assistant Accounts Officer / Assistant Section Officer / Assistant / Auditors / Tax Assistants / Junior Statistical Officer in the departments of CAG / CSS / IB / Railways / MEA / AFHQ / Ministries CBDT /CBEC / CBI / Narcotics / Vigilance / NIA / Department of Posts/ Statistical Department etc. Eligibility: Age: Age limit will be reckoned as on 1st August, 2018:

For Post for which age limit is 20-27 years

He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1991 and not later than 01.08.1998





For Post for which age limit is up to 30 years


For Post for which age limit is up to 32 years


Qualification: Essential Educational Qualifications as on 1st August, 2018

A. Assistant Audit Officer/Assistant Accounts Officer: (a) Essential Qualifications: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or Institute (b) Desirable Qualifications: Chartered Accountant or cost & Management Accountant or Company Secretary or Masters in Commerce or Masters in Business Studies or Masters in Business Administration (Finance) or Masters in Business Economics. Note-I: During the period of probation direct recruits shall have to qualify the “Subordinate Audit Service Examination” in respective branches for confirmation and regular appointment as Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.



B. Junior Statistical Officer: Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a recognized University or Institute with at least 60% Marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level:

or Bachelor’s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level.

C. All other Posts: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent.

D. The candidates appearing in the final year of their graduation can also apply, however they must possess Essential qualification on or before 01.08.2018.

Exam Fee: Rs 100 only. (No fee for SC/ST/Ex. Servicemen/Women / PH)

SSC CGL 2017 Selection Process The Examination will be conducted in four tiers as indicated below:

Tier –I Computer Based Examination

Tier –II Computer Based Examination

Tier –III Pen and Paper Mode (Descriptive paper)

Tier-IV Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test (wherever applicable)/ Document Verification

The Commission reserves the right to make changes in the scheme of examination.

Marks scored by candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II examinations, if conducted in multiple shifts, will be normalized and such normalized scores will be treated as final and will be used for qualifying the candidates to next stage of examination and to determine final merit.

Scheme of Tier-I Examination: Exam is of 60 Minutes duration and contains 100 objective type questions carrying 200 marks with each question carrying 2 Marks. There will be negative marks for the wrong answers with 1/4th marks being deducted for wrong answers.

Subject Questions Marks Maths 25 50

Reasoning 25 50

English 25 50

GS 25 50

Total 100 200



Scheme of Tier-II Examination: Test Paper No. of

Questions Marks Time

Paper I Quantitative Abilities 100 200 120min

Paper II English Language & Comprehension 200 200 120min

Paper III Statistics 100 200 120min

Paper IV General Studies (Finance & Economics)

100 200 120min

Note:

1. Note-I: In Tier-I, there will be negative marking of 0.50 for each wrong answer. 2. Note-II: In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong answer in

Paper-II (English Language and Comprehension) and of 0.50 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I, Paper-III and Paper-IV.

3. Note-III: In Tier-II, Paper-I and Paper-II are compulsory for all the posts. 4. Note-IV: In Tier-II, Paper-III will be for only those candidates who apply for the post of

Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) and who are shortlisted in Tier-I for this Post/ Paper. 5. Note-V: In Tier-II, Paper-IV will be for only those candidates who are shortlisted in

Tier-I for Paper-IV i.e. for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.

Scheme of Tier-III Examination: Mode of

Examination Scheme of Examination Maximum

Marks Time

Allowed Pen and Paper mode

Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi (Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.)

100 60 Minutes

SSC CGL CUT OFF 2017 (TIER-I) SC ST OBC Ex.S OH HH VH UR Total Cut – Off Marks 98 88.5 110 69 84.5 38 89.5 126.5 Candidates Available 32239 15368 74604 7201 2684 1796 559 55387 1,89,838

SSC CGL CUT OFF 2016 TIER-I + TIER-II +TIER-III) Category SC ST OBC OH HH UR Total Cut – Off Marks 454.00 427.00 493.75 411.00 264.00 536.00 Candidates Available 707 333 1775 78 74 1829* 4796



How to approach the exam? As per the latest notification of SSC CGL 2018, there are not many changes in the Pattern of both Examinations except that Normalization will be done in the Tier-I exam from now on. The total time you get for solving the paper is 60 minutes. There is no sectional time limit so you have the liberty to attempt various sections in any order you want. Now let’s go through each section individually and device a strategy that can help you to ace this exam A. Quantitative Aptitude: It is considered to be the most difficult and time-consuming part of the exam. But with proper practice, good marks can be scored. So, utilize the time & make yourself expert in at least some of the areas of quant section. Simplification, interest, percentages, ratio and proportion and age-problems are easy and scoring so spend more time with these topics. Profit and loss, number series, mensuration, number systems, speed and distance, etc. are scoring topics but take more time to solve. In 2017, questions were also asked from Co-ordinate geometry. So, don’t leave any topic. Be thorough with all the chapters mentioned in the syllabus. Learn all the important formulas by heart. While preparing for Quantitative Aptitude. Solve as many different types of questions and topics as you can to know your strong and weak areas.

Quant Tier-I Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018) Simplification 0-1 Interest 1 1 (E) 2-3 Percentage 2 1 (M) 1 Ratio & proportion 0+1 (E) 1-2 Average 1 (0-1) 1-2 Speed, time 3 1 (E) 1-2 Profit & Loss 2 2 (M) 2-3 Number series 0-1 Mensuration 1-2 2 (M) 2-3 D.I 5 5 (E) 5 Mixture & allegation 0-1 (M) 0-1 Algebra 2-4 4-5 (M) 3-4 Geometry 3-4 2 (M) 2-3 Trigonometry 1-2 2-3 (M) 2-3 Time and work 1-2 1 (M) 1



Quant-Tier-II Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018) Number system 10 6-7 7-8 Simplification 10 2 Percentage 4-5 3-4 3-5 Profit and loss 8-9 9-10 10-12 SI and CI 3-4 4-5 3-5 Average 5-6 3-4 3-4 Mixture & allegation 2-3 2-3 2-3 Ratio & proportion 2-4 4-5 3-5 Time/speed/distance 4-6 4-5 5-6 Time & work 4-6 4-5 3-5 Geometry 12-13 7-8 8-10 Mensuration 10-13 10-12 10-12 Trigonometry 8-11 6-7 7-8 Data interpretation 5 5 5 Algebra 5 10-11 10-12

B. Reasoning: Solving General Intelligence (GI) questions can be very tricky unless you have sufficient practice. Try to solving as many practice papers, as you can. As you go on practicing, you will gradually devise tricks of your own to tackle GI questions. Topics like Puzzles, analogy, coding-decoding, series, figure-based questions, etc. are very scoring. Start with these and move on to more versatile questions. Also, practice consistently. Furthermore, non-verbal reasoning topics like image assembling, figure-counting, etc. require you to use visual imagination. Do not skip or ignore these questions because they seem time-consuming to you. Solving them is the best way to make them less time-consuming. While practicing, make your aim to attempt at least 20-22 questions in 20 minutes with reasonable accuracy. –

Reasoning Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018) Odd one out (2-3) 2 (M) 3 (E) 2-3 Analogy 1 (E) 3 (E) 1-2 Coding decoding 2 (M) 0-2 Puzzle & statement conclusion 3-5 (E-M) 1 (M) 2-3 Matrix 1 (E) 1 (E) 1 Word formation 2 (M) 0-1 Directions 1 (M) 0-1 (E) 1 Blood relation 2 (E-M) 1 (M) 1 Missing number (Matrix) 1-2 (M) 2 (E) 2



Non-verbal 2-3 (E) 3-4 (M) 3-4 Syllogism 1 (E) 2 (E) 1 Logical order (Dictionary) 1 (E) 1 Series (alpha numeric/number) 1 (E) 1

C. General Awareness: General awareness (GA) is the most scoring section of the exam. If you prepare this section properly, it will not take more than 10 minutes of your time during the exam. You can utilize the time you save here for doing calculations in Quantitative Aptitude. The exam usually has more questions from static GK than Current Affairs. Therefore, focus more on static GK as well as stay in touch with Current Affairs. Your order of priority for the subjects should be Science - Polity – History- Geography - Economy – Miscellaneous

General awareness Topic 2017 2017 Expected (2018) Economics 2 (M) 3 (M) 2-3 Current affairs 4-5 (E-M) 4-5 (E-M) 5-6 Science (Mainly Biology) 6-8 (M) 5-7 (M) 7-8 Polity 3-4 (M) 3-4 (E) 3-4 History 3-4 (E) 4-6 (E-M) 4-5 Geography 2-4 (M) 1-3 (M) 2-3 Misc (books & authors conventions and etc) 2 2-3 1-2

D. English Language: There are three important topics that you should prepare very well for English. These are vocabulary, grammar and comprehension. If you achieve proficiency in vocabulary and grammar, you will score good marks. After this, all you need is to work on comprehension. The pattern and questions in this exam often get repeated. Therefore, a thorough preparation can help you wrap up this entire section within 10 minutes in the exam. Comprehension - Practice passages daily. The trick is to read the questions before you read the passage, as then while reading the passage you will know exactly what you are looking for. Vocabulary – Try to read as much as you can. Whenever you come across new words, make a list. Also, go through all the questions asked in previous years. Grammar - Just like vocabulary, your grammar will also improve if you read more sincerely. Try as many questions as you can on Error Spotting, Phrase Replacement and Fill in the Blanks

English Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018) Phrases or idioms 2-3 (M) 1-2 1-2 Direct and indirect 1-2 1-2 Spelling 1-2 2 2 Active and passive 1 1-2 Para jumbles 2 0-1 Antonyms & synonyms 3-4 (E-M) 3-5 4-5



Sentence improvements 1-3 (E) 2-3 3-4 Error spotting 3 (E) 2-3 3-4 Cloze test 2-5 2-3 Comprehension 5 (E) 3-5 4-5 One word substitution 2-3 (M) 2 2

Tier-II English

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018) Para jumble (sentence arrangement) 20 (E) 25 25 Sentence improvement 22 (E) 19-21 20-22 Sentence completion 5 (E) 5 5 Active-passive 20 (E-M) 20 20 Spelling correction 3 (E) 4-6 4-6 Reading comprehension 30 (M) 30 30 Cloze test 25 (M) 22-23 25 Narration (direct-indirect) 27 (E) 20 20 Idioms/phrases 10 (M) 11-12 10-12 Antonym/synonym 6 (M) 6 5-6 One word substitution 12 (E-M) 9-10 8-12 Error spotting 20 (E-M) 19-21 20-25

E. Descriptive Paper: The paper aims to test you on your writing skills. Therefore “Practice” is the key to your success. Since you have only limited time to frame and write your essay and letter, you need to focus on your writing skills. Read newspapers, articles and political magazines as much as possible. This would not only increase your vocabulary but also helps you bring flow in your writing. You can cover social, economic, political, environmental issues to prepare for your essay writing. Remember that you have only 60 minutes to attempt 2-3 descriptive topics, so do not spend unnecessary time on any of them Attempt the Essay first as it would require some brainstorming. Attempt the Letter next as it has a set format and you need to only make out the body. This can easily be achieved in a set amount of time. Finally attempt the Precise (if it appears) as it requires on-the-spot thinking and creation of content within a specified number of words F. Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) and Data Entry Speed Test- Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) - Computer Proficiency Test is a qualifying test conducted by SSC for the selected post and have different questions of Word Processing, Spread Sheets and generation of slides. Try to be well versed with the use of Word, Excel and PowerPoint. Also, be thorough with the shortcuts that can be used while creating these files.



Data Entry Speed Test DEST comprises only typing test in which students have to make 2000 key depressions in 15 minutes. It is the speed test which can be cleared easily by practice. So, just practice well before you go for the DEST.

Exam pattern and changes in SSC CGL 2018 As the competition is becoming tougher every year, due to the increasing number of aspirants for these exams therefore the recruiting body is making some changes every year in the exam pattern to make exams tougher and to select the candidate, who is best in all aspects. If we look into the following tables we can observe, how the pattern changed in the previous years and what we can expect to come in an SSC CGL 2018 exam and what not? Quantitative section First of all, if we analyze the following table for this section, there is not any major change in the set of questions but level of questions is becoming difficult every year. In 2015 and 2016, the questions asked in Tier 1 were very easy but in 2017, the questions were moderate level. So, we can expect that, this time SSC CGL 2018 may be a bit difficult than last year but the pattern can be expected to be same. Reasoning If we look at the following table, we can simply say that, now SSC CGL has kept the type & pattern of questions same in Reasoning. English In this section, there has not been many changes in Tier 1 and Tier 2. Questions asked were of moderate level in Tier 1 and vocabulary was of similar level as asked in previous years.

Exam pattern and changes in SSC CGL Tier 2 Quant For this section, we can observe that the difficulty level has been increased a lot .The Quant questions asked in SSC CGL 2017 tier 2 saw a drastic change from the previous year’s exams. No questions were repeated and the level of questions of Advanced Maths was quite high. The questions required more than just formulas to solve them. A logical approach towards the questions is what we require to attempt the exam. So the expectation for this year is same new pattern with a bit of increase in difficulty level. English In the tier 2 exam of 2017, Vocabulary portion had new questions and repetition was not there . Overall, the level of exam was same as previous years.



SSC CGL Preparation @ IBS 1. Target Batches will start in IBS Branches. 2. Classes will be conducted 3 to 4hrs daily. 3. Test series Online:

Tier I: 25 tests Tier I: 60 Sectional Tests Tier II: 20 Tests

4. Offline Practice Tests Series: Sprint 30 Tests to start from 15th June.

The students are required to contact at the respective branches mentioned below for registration for the course or contact at

9216663810 or our toll free no. 1800 137 3730

The Batches Starting in IBS branches. Contact the nearest IBS Branch.


Head Office: SCO. 134-135, Top Floor, Sector 34-A, Chandigarh. Ph: 093160-68310 Corporate Office: A-45-46, Near Nirman Vihar Metro Station, Laxminagar, New Delhi. Ph: 092666-78310 - 10

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SSC CGL TIER-I SAMPLE PAPER

PART I-REASONING 1. In the following question, select the related word from

the given alternatives. Car : Road : : Ship : ? (1) Water (2) Air

(3) Road (4) Both Air and Water 2. In the following question, select the related letters

from the given alternatives. GLOW : FJNU : : PTEL : ? (1) ORFN (2) ORDJ (3) ORJD (4) OPNF 3. In the following question, select the related number

from the given alternatives. 5 : 124 : : 6 : ? (1) 215 (2) 216 (3) 217 (4) 220 4. In the following question, select the odd word pair

from the given alternatives. (1) Error : Accurate (2) Careless : Casual

(3) Strength : Lethargy (4) Gloomy : Cheerful 5. In the following question, select the odd letters from

the given alternatives. (1) FUGT (2) KPLO (3) DWEV (4) CWDX 6. In the following question, select the odd number pair

from the given alternatives. (1) 11 – 120 (2) 17 – 290 (3) 21 – 442 (4) 12 – 145 7. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they

occur in the dictionary. (1) Pragmatic (2) Protect

(3) Pastel (4) Postal (5) Pebble

(1) 43521 (2) 35412 (3) 34512 (4) 43512 8. A series is given with one term missing. Select the

correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Q, P, O, N, ? (1) M (2) L (3) O (4) J 9. In the following question, select the missing number

from the given series. 6, 9 , 15, 24, 39, 63, ? (1) 97 (2) 115 (3) 102 (4) 124

QID : 10 - P and Q are brothers. P is the father of S. R is the only son of Q and is married to U. How is U related to S?

(1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother-in-law (3) Sister (4) Mother

11. Nine years later, age of B will be equal to the present age of A. Sum of A's age 3 years later and B's age 4 years ago is 76. If C is half of the present age of B, then what will be C's age (in years) after 10 years?

(1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 27 (4) 31 12. In the following question, from the given alternative

words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Herringbone (1) Biner (2) None (3) Bane (4) Hinge

13. In a certain code language, "NIGHT" is written as "ODDGM" and "DARK" is written as "GOYC". How is "GREEN" written in that code language?

(1) IABPF (2) MCBNB (3) OGHVL (4) FPBAI 14. In the following question, correct the equation by

interchanging two signs. 4 x 3 – 6 ÷ 2 + 7 = 8 (1) – and + (2) x and – (3) ÷ and x (4) x and + 15 . If 3 # 4 % 8 = 6 and 9 % 4 # 3 = 12, then 12 % 6 # 24 = ? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6 16. In the following question, select the number which

can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18 17. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

(1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 37 (4) 40 18. In each of the following question below are given some

statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements: I. Some boys are hardworking.

II. No intelligent are boys. Conclusions: I.Some hardworking are not intelligent.

II.All hardworking are intelligent. III. Some intelligent are not hardworking.

(1)Only conclusion (I) follows. (2)Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow. (3)All conclusions follow. (4)No conclusion follows.

19. Three positions of a cube are shown below. What



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will come opposite to face containing ‘$’ ?

(1) % (2) & (3) ^ (4) + 20. In the given figure, how many people study only 2

subjects ?

(1) 11 (2) 23 (3) 12 (4) 40 21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in

the question figure ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 22. From the given answer figures, select the one in

which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 23 . A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown

below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 24. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of

the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers

of as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example. ‘C’ can be represented by 10, 34 etc, and D can be represented by 85, 98 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word “STEAL”

(1) 01, 13, 04, 76, 66 (2) 14, 31, 40, 95, 59 (3) 22, 42, 21, 69, 97 (4) 43, 24, 33, 57, 58



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PART II-QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 26. How many numbers are there from 300 to 650 which

are completely divisible by both 5 and 7? (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4)12 27. Raman can do a work in 5 days, Jatin can do the

same work in 7 days and Sachin can do the same work in 9 days. If they do the same work together and they are paid Rs 2860, then what is the share (in Rs) of Raman?

(1) 1260 (2) 700 (3) 900 (4) 870 28. If the diameter of a sphere is 14 cm, then what is the

surface area (in cm2) of the sphere? (1) 616 (2) 308 (3) 462 (4) 636 29. After two successive discounts of 20% and 35%, an

article is sold for Rs 50700. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

(1) 92500 (2) 98500 (3) 97500 (4) 94000 30. Rs 3200 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 :

5 : 8 respectively. What is the difference (in Rs) between the share of B and C?

(1) 400 (2) 600 (3) 800 (4) 900 31. The average of 5 members of a family is 24 years. If

the youngest member is 8 years old, then what was the average age (in years) of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?

(1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 24 (4) 32 32. If the price of pen decreases by 20%, then a man can

buy 10 more pens for Rs 100. What is the new price (in Rs) of each pen?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 33. After deducting 60% from a certain number and then

deducting 15% from the remainder, 1428 is left. What was the initial number?

(1) 4200 (2) 3962 (3) 4150 (4) 4300 34. A train travels 40% faster than a car. Both start from

point A at the same time and reach point B, 140 km away at the same time. On the way the train takes 25 minutes for stopping at the stations. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?

(1) 67 (2) 134.4 (3) 145.9 (4) 160 35. A certain sum of money triples itself in 5 years at

simple interest. In how many years it will be five times?

(1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 15 36. If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x64 + x121? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)–2 37. If 푥 = 6 + 2√6 then what is the value of √푥 − 1 +

√?

(1) 2√3 (2) 3√2 (3) 2√2 (4) 3√3 38. If a + b + c = 27, then what is the value of (a – 7)3 + (b –

9)3 + (c – 11)3 – 3(a – 7)(b – 9)(c – 11)? (1) 0 (2) 9 (3) 27 (4) 81 39. If = √

√ √ , then what is the value of √

√+ √

√?

(1) √5 (2) √3 (3) √15 (4) 2 40. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm and

each of the equal sides is 5/6 times of the base. What is the area (in cm2) of the triangle ?

(1) 39 (2) 48 (3) 57 (4) 64 41. If length of each side of a rhombus PQRS is 8 cm and

∠PQR = 120°, then what is the length (in cm) of QS? (1) 4√5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12 42. In the given figure, ABC is triangle. The bisectors

of internal B and external C interest at D. If BDC=48°, then what is the value (in degrees) of A ?

(1) 48 (2) 96 (3) 100 (4) 114 43. In the give figure, O is the centre of the circle and

퐷퐶퐸 = 45°. 퐼푓 퐶퐷 = 10√2푐푚, then what is the length (in cm) of AC.CB=BD

(1) 14 (2) 15.5 (3) 18.5 (4) 20 44. What is the simplified value of ? (1) tan A (2) cot A (3) sin A (4) cos A

45. What is the simplified value of ? (1) 1 – cos2A (2) 2sin2A (3) sec2A (4) cosec2A 46. What is the simplified value of 1 + tan A tan (A/2)? (1) sin A/2 (2) cos A (3) sec A (4) sin A Direcitons (47-50): The pie chart given below shoes the number of shoes of 5 different in a multi brand store. There are total 1200 shoes.

47. How many shoes are there of Reebok brand? (1) 230 (2) 276 (3) 286 (4)216



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48. What is the difference in number of shoes of Puma and Vans?

(1) 96 (2) 156 (3) 84 (4)112 49. The difference between the number of shoes of Reebok

and Nike is same as the difference between which of the following two brands?

(1) Puma and Adidas (2) Reebok and Adidas (3) Vans and Nike (4) Nike and Adidas

50. Puma shoes are how much percent more than the Nike Shoes?

(1) 14.28 (2) 16.66 (3) 25 (4) 21.33

PART III-GENERAL AWARENESS 51. Which one of the following is a component of Food

Security System? (1) Buffer stock (2) Minimum support price

(3) Fair price shops (4) Mid day meals 52. What is the accepted average Calorie requirement for

rural area in India? (1) 2100 (2) 2200 (3) 2300 (4) 2400 53. Whose recommendation is mandatory to impeach the

President of India from his office before the completion of his/her term?

(1) The Prime Minister (2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (3) The Chief Justice of India (4) The two houses of the parliament 54. How many types of writ are there in the Indian

Constitution? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 55. Who has built the Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory) in

Chittorgarh? (1) Maharana Pratap (2) Rana Kumbha

(3) Rana Sanga (4) Kunwar Durjan Singh 56. Who raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I

shall have it”? (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Subhash Chandra Bose

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (4) Lala Lajpat Rai 57. Which Indian state is the largest in terms of the total

area covered ? (1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Rajasthan (4) Tamil Nadu 58. Which Indian state has the longest Coastline? (1) Kerala (2) Gujarat (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Tamil Nadu 59. Auxiliary bud develops into which of the following part

of the plant? (1) Fruit (2) Leaf (3) Branch (4) Roots 60. Xylem helps in transportation of which of the

following? (1) Food (2) Water (3) Nutrients (4) Both food and water 61. Who proposed five kingdom classification? (1) Ernst Mayr (2) R. H. Whittaker

(3) M. W. Beijerinck (4) D. I. Ivanovsky 62. What is the other name of Galileo's law of falling

bodies?

(1) Law of motion (2) Newton's first law (3) Newton's second law (4) Newton's third law

63. Which of the following device is best suited for measuring the temperature inside metallurgical furnaces?

(1) Pyrometer (2) Thermocouple (3) Thermometer (4)Thermistor 64. What is the full form of 'LAN'?

(1) Line Area Network (2) Linear Area Network (3) Local Area Network (4) Land Area Network

65. Which acid is released when an Ant bites? (1) Hydrochloric Acid (2) Formic Acid

(3) Acetic Acid (4) Phosphoric Acid Correct Answer: Formic Acid

66. Which among the following is an example of solid sol? (1) Milk of magnesia (2) Foam (3) Coloured gemstones (4)Rubber 67. Which metal is responsible for Itai-Itai disease? (1) Cadmium (2) Nickel (3) Chromium (4)Mercury 68. 'Vikalp' is a scheme launched by Indian Railways to

help wait-listed passengers. Which of the following is NOT true about this scheme?

(1) Confirmed berths in alternate trains. (2) No-extra charges will be taken from passengers. (3) Wait-listed passengers can avail opportunity of travelling in Rajdhani/Shatabdi/Special trains even when booking made is in other mail/express trains. (4) Vikalp scheme will be initially available for e-tickets only.

69. Who discovered the Cholera causing germ? (1) Filippo Pacini (2) Robert Koch

(3) M. Laveran (4) Felix Hoffman 70. Match the following. Player Sport 1. Mithali Raj a. Hockey 2. Poonam Rani b. 3000 m Steeplechases 3. Lalita Babar c. Cricket (1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c (3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b (4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

Correct Answer: 1-c, 2-a, 3-b 71. 'Hunar Haat' an exhibition to exhibit and promote the

arts and artisans from minority community was launched at which of the following events?

(1) Pushkar Fair, 2016 (2) IITF, New Delhi, 2016

(3) Suraj Kund Craft Mela, 2017 (4) Kumbh Mela, 2015 72. Which movie won the award for the best movie at the

Oscar Awards 2017? (1) La La Land (2) Arrival

(3) Moonlight (4) Manchester by the Sea 73. Who is the author of the book titled 'Citizen and

Society'? (1) Pranab Mukherjee (2) Hamid Ansari

(3) Nandan Nilekani (4) Satyajit Ray 74. With which country India has recently signed a MoU

for Water Conservation in India?



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(1) France (2) Germany (3) Israel (4) Bangladesh

75. Which among the following neighbouring country of India is the largest producer of Opium in the World?

(1) Pakistan (2) Afghanistan (3) Sri Lanka (4) Maldives

PART IV-ENGLISH LANGUAGE 76. In the following question, some part of the sentence

may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

No sooner did I come out of my home to go to market (1)/ when it started raining heavily (2)/ which drenched me completely. (3)/ No Error (4) Options: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

77. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Unless you don't obey (1)/ your elders you (2)/ will not succeed in your life. (3)/ No Error (4) Options: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

78. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Fourteen kilometres ______ not a short distance, to reach to my office daily. (1) are (2) has (3) have (4) is

79. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Good reading ______ the sense of liberal educated mind. (1) beliefs (2) leads (3) reflects (4) starts

80. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Frivolous (1) Captious (2) Wise (3) Puerile (4) Spiritual

81. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Petrify (1) Adorn (2) Calm (3) Curious (4) Harden

82. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Gregarious (1) Affable (2) Genial (3) Introvert (4) Urbane

83. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Tremulous (1) Feeble (2) Frugal (3) Stable (4) Vital

84. In the following question, out of the four alternatives,

select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

The alpha and the omega (1) Happy and sad

(2) The beginning and the end (3) The love and the hatred (4) Truth and dare

85. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Throw up the sponge (1) To attack (2) To laugh at someone (3) To surrender (4) To talk loudly

86. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. I had (a few) eggs in the fridge, so we need to go to the

market to buy them. (1) a little (2) few

(3) little (4) No improvement 87. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. My brother is indifferent (about) whatever I say.

(1) in (2) of (3) to (4) No improvement 88. In the following question, out of the four alternatives,

select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A funeral poem (1) Elegy (2) Pandemonium (3) Parody (4) Sonnet

89. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

One who walks in sleep (1) Drover (2) Fastidious (3) Numismatist (4) Somnambulist

90. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word. (1) Gaurantee (2) Itinerary (3) Magnificent (4) Writing

91. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word. (1) Etiquete (2) Exquisite

(3) Restaurant (4) Scavenger 92. The question below consists of a set of labelled

sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options.

P-But he did not know how to find one at that hour. Q-It was his first visit to the city and he didn't know where to go. R-Mohanlal's train was late and it reached Kolkata a little after midnight. S-He thought he would go to a choultry where he would not have to pay rent. (1) PSQR (2) QRSP (3) RQSP (4) RSQP

93. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced



-

form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options.

P-And slowly, you reach the pinnacle of self-awareness, experiencing a unity with all life. Q-If you transform your energy positively, it naturally becomes compassion and love. R-Once you experientially are a part of everything then nobody needs to teach you morality. S-Then you can do something to improve the situation, but without anger. (1) PQRS (2) QPRS (3) RQPS (4) RSPQ

94. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Ram was singing a beautiful song for his mother. (1) A beautiful song was being sung by Ram for his mother. (2) A beautiful song was sang by Ram for his mother. (3) A beautiful song was sung by Ram for his mother. (4) A beautiful song was sung for his mother by Ram.

95. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Priya advised me not to go to school the next day. (1) "Don't go to school next day" Priya said to me. (2) "Don't go to school tomorrow" Priya said to me. (3) Priya said, "Will you not go to school tomorrow?" (4) Priya told me that, "Don't go to school tomorrow." Correct Answer: "Don't go to school tomorrow" Priya said to me.

96. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone (1) affected (2) effected (3) influenced (4) measured


Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the

relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. (1) higher (2) larger (3) lower (4) smaller



However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level (1) certain (2) desired (3) increased (4) optimal



tends to ______ a dysfunctional result (1) deduce (2) introduce (3) produce (4) reduce



because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety. (1) abandoned (2) accompanied (3) affiliated (4) amalgamated

Answer Keys



-

Section-I (REASONING ABILITY)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 2

21 22 23 24 25

1 1 1 2 2

Section – II (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1

A

46 47 48 49 50

3 2 1 3 2

Section – III (GENERAL AWARENESS)

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 4

71 72 73 74 75

2 3 2 3 2

Section – IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 2 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 1 2

C

96 97 98 99 100 2 1 4 3 2



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OUR BRANCHES CHANDIGARH ( Tricity )

CHANDIGARH-8: SCO. 108-109, Top Floor, Sector- 8 C. Phone: 0172-4668810, 92162-78310 CHANDIGARH-34-I: SCO. 13-15, 1st Floor, Sector- 34 A. Phone: 0172-4181045, 93164-88310 CHANDIGARH-34-II: SCO. 134-136, Top Floor, Sector- 34 A. Phone: 0172-4648310, 93160-68310 CHANDIGARH-15: SCO. 72-73, Top Floor, Sector-15 D. Phone: 0172-4668310, 92160-78310 MOHALI: SCO 29, Phase 7, Mohali. Phone: 0172-5032710, 92165-78310 PANCHKULA: SCO. 34, Sector-11, Panchkula. Phone: 92169-68310, 0172-4604633

DELHI NCR NEW-DELHI: 45-46, Near Nirman Vihar Metro Station, Laxmi Nagar, Phone: 011-42147329, 92666-78310 ROHINI: C-9/25, 2nd Floor, Sector-7, Opp. Metro Piller No 400, Phone: 011-27058535, 99990-59511. BAWANA: Near SBI Bank, Above Punjab and Sindh Bank, First floor, Narela Road. Phone: 96509-38533. FARIDABAD: SCO 96, Above National Insurance, Sector-16, Hudda Market. Phone: 9899834310.

PUNJAB PATIALA: SCF. 109, Chhoti Baradari. Phone: 93169-68310 BATHINDA: GhodeWala chowk, Main Ajit Road, Opp-Street No. 16. Phone: 92169-78310 JALANDHAR: Bedi Paradise, 1st Floor, Opposite Hotel Residency, Near Bus Stand, Jawahar Nagar. Phone: 92167-78310 LUDHIANA: Lower Ground Floor, SEAR Tower, Opp. BSNL Exchange, Bharat Nagar Chowk. Phone: 92167-68310 FATEHGARH SAHIB: Bassi Sirhind Road, Opposite District Complex. Phone: 92162-58310, 92165-55578 BARNALA: Master Mind Complex, New Bus Stand Road. Phone: 92168-68310 KHANNA: SCF 11, 1st Floor, GTB Market. Mobile: 92167-77788 BATALA: SCO 170, 2nd Floor, Phuwara Chowk, Jalandhar Road, Batala. Phone: 9356868310

HARYANA AMBALA CANTT: 126 Staff Road, Opposite GPO. Phone: 0171-2642310, 92156-78310. AMBALA CITY: DAV College Road, Jagadhari Gate. Phone: 92157-78310. YAMUNANAGAR: Opp. Samsung Customer Care, Beside Madhu Hotel. Phone: 92156-46079. KARNAL: MM Building, Opposite Bus Stand. Phone: 92153-78310. KURUKSHETRA: SCO: 42, Top Floor, Above Allahabad Bank, Sector-13. Phone: 92154-78310.

HIMACHAL PRADESH SHIMLA: Sushant Bhawan, Near Co-operative Bank, Chhota Shimla. Phone: 94187-78310. PALAMPUR: Gurudwara Road, Ward No. 7, (Govt. College Road). Phone: 98166-24100.

JHARKHAND KODERMA: 2nd Floor, Ujala Tower, Ranchi Patna Road, Jhumari Telaiya. Phone: 9162162909, 9939725099. DHANBAD: Laxmi Complex, 2nd Floor, Opp. Induslnd Bank Bankmore. Phone: 9431154940 GIRDIH: 2nd Floor, Shakil Complex, Station Road, Giridih, Jharkhand. 97090-87542, 74809-31106

BIHAR PATNA: Road Number-2, Rajendra Nagar. Phone: 0612-2662212, 7070092379.



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ARRAH: Block Road, Old NCC Office, Opp. Dr. Kanhaiya Singh. Phone: 78707-14533 GAYA: Lalit Niwas, Ghughari Tand, Near Bypass. Phone: 854433833

UTTAR PRADESH SAHARANPUR: Madhav Nagar Chowk, Above Telephone Exchange, Near Company Gardan. Phone: 91520-23862 AGRA: G.D.V.M 11/48/3, Hathras Road Rambagh. Phone: 80062-22207. FIROZABAD: STG Compound, Behind Gurudwara, Station Road. Phone: 70600-06900

RAJASTHAN SUMERPUR: 1st Floor, Pan Kutir, Near Deputy Office, Sumerpur (Pali). Phone: 9887554666, 9587552666. SRIGANGANAGAR: 38 H Block Godara College Road, Near Nehru Park. Phone: 95211-68310

UTTRAKHAND DEHRADUN: 2nd Floor, CSM Wested, Chakrata Road, Near IMA Blood Bank, Ballupur. Phone: 88812-00300. KASHIPUR: Near Hotel Kumaon Plaza, Uttrakhand. Phone: 95689-66660 KOTDWARA: Opp. Kedar Palace, Near Motor Nagar, Devi Road, Kotdwara - Uttrakhand. Phone: 98374-54591, 90457-19131

ASSAM GUWAHATI: Zoo Road, Tiniali, Near Bandhan Bank, Byelane 1, House No. 3. Phone: 84040-71908

MAHARASHTRA NAGPUR: 1st Floor, Paradise Plaza, Above Bank of India, Kadhi Chowk, Kamptee Road, Nagpur. Phone: 96653-76786 PUNE: B-Wing Office No. 57 First Floor K.K Market, Near Shankar Maharaj Math, Satara Road, Pune Phone: 9028950200 VITA: Above State Bank of India, mayani Road, Vita, Maharashtra Phone: 95451-72831, 95183-03968.

KARNATAKA BANGALURU (JP-NAGAR): 1365, 1st Floor, JP Nagar, 1st Phase, Kankapura, Main Road, Bangluru (JP-Nagar). Phone: 7022368310

GUJRAT RAJKOT: 1st Floor, Shubh Complex, Near Nagrik Bank, Hanuman Madhi Chowk, Raya Road, Rajkot, Gujrat Phone: 0281-2451233

KERALA PALAKKAD: Koppam Road, Tharekkad Palakkad, Kerala-678001, 0491-2538818

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