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Corporate Financial Policy

Semester A 2012-13City University of Hong Kong

AC4331 Topic 6

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Topic 6

.

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1-2

Introduction to Financial Management

Free Cash Flow

Financial Planning and Forecasting

Financial Assets and Time Value of Money

Risk and Return Bond and Stock Valuation

Cost of Capital

Cash Flow Estimation and Risk Analysis Capital Structure and Leverage

Treasury and Valuation

Enterprise Risk Management Dividends and Share Repurchase

Merger and Acquisitions

Working Capital Management

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Extra Ref:Financial Management, Theory and Practice, 12eEugene and

Brigham

Topic 6:Cash Flow Estimation

And Risk Analysis

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Chapter 12

Should webuild thisplant?

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Analysis of potential additions to fixedassets.

Long-term decisions; involve large

expenditures. Very important to firms future.

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1. Estimate CFs (inflows & outflows).

2. Assess riskiness of CFs.

3. Determine the appropriate cost of capital.

4. Find NPV and/or IRR.5. Accept if NPV > 0 and/or IRR > WACC.

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Independent projects if the cash flows ofone are unaffected by the acceptance of theother.

Mutually exclusive projects if the cash flowsof one can be adversely impacted by theacceptance of the other.

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Normal cash flow stream Cost (negative CF)followed by a series of positive cash inflows.One change of signs.

Nonnormal cash flow stream Two or morechanges of signs. Most common: Cost(negative CF), then string of positive CFs,then cost to close project. Nuclear power

plant, strip mine, etc.

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Sum of the PVs of all cash inflows andoutflows of a project:

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N

0tt

t

)r1(CFNPV

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NPVS = $19.98

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Year CFt PV of CFt

0 -100 -$100

1 10 9.09

2 60 49.593 80 60.11NPVL = $ 18.79

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Enter CFs into the calculators CFLO register. CF0 = -100 CF1 = 10 CF2 = 60 CF3 = 80

Enter I/YR = 10, press NPV button to getNPVL = $18.78.

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NPV = PV of inflows Cost

= Net gain in wealth

If projects are independent, accept if the

project NPV > 0. If projects are mutually exclusive, accept

projects with the highest positive NPV, thosethat add the most value.

In this example, accept S if mutuallyexclusive (NPVS > NPVL), and accept both ifindependent.

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IRR is the discount rate that forces PV ofinflows equal to cost, and the NPV = 0:

Solving for IRR with a financial calculator: Enter CFs in CFLO register.

Press IRR; IRRL = 18.13% and IRRS = 23.56%.

N

0tt

t

IRR)(1CF0

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They are the same thing.

Think of a bond as a project. The YTM onthe bond would be the IRR of the bond

project. EXAMPLE: Suppose a 10-year bond with a 9%

annual coupon and $1,000 par value sells for$1,134.20.

Solve for IRR = YTM = 7.08%, the annual return forthis project/bond.

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If IRR > WACC, the projects return exceedsits costs and there is some return left over toboost stockholders returns.

If IRR > WACC, accept project.If IRR < WACC, reject project.

If projects are independent, accept bothprojects, as both IRR > WACC = 10%.

If projects are mutually exclusive, accept S,because IRRs > IRRL.

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A graphical representation of project NPVs atvarious different costs of capital.

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WACC NPVL NPVS

0 $50 $40

5 33 29

10 19 20

15 7 1220 (4) 5

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-10

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

5 10 15 20 23.6

NPV($)

Discount Rate (%)

IRRL = 18.1%

IRRS = 23.6%

Crossover Point = 8.7%

SL

.

.

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.

..

..

... .

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If projects are independent, the two methodsalways lead to the same accept/rejectdecisions.

If projects are mutually exclusive If WACC > crossover rate, the methods lead to thesame decision and there is no conflict.

If WACC < crossover rate, the methods lead todifferent accept/reject decisions.

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Size (scale) differences the smaller projectfrees up funds at t = 0 for investment. Thehigher the opportunity cost, the morevaluable these funds, so a high WACC favorssmall projects.

Timing differences the project with fasterpayback provides more CF in early years for

reinvestment. If WACC is high, early CFespecially good, NPVS > NPVL.

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NPV method assumes CFs are reinvested at theWACC.

IRR method assumes CFs are reinvested at IRR.

Assuming CFs are reinvested at theopportunity cost of capital is more realistic, soNPV method is the best. NPV method shouldbe used to choose between mutually exclusive

projects. Perhaps a hybrid of the IRR that assumes cost

of capital reinvestment is needed.

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Yes, MIRR is the discount rate that causes thePV of a projects terminal value (TV) to equalthe PV of costs. TV is found bycompounding inflows at WACC.

MIRR assumes cash flows are reinvested atthe WACC.

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66.012.1

10%

10%

-100.0

0 10%

PV outflows-100.0 $10

0

MIRR = 16.5%158.1

TV inflows

MIRRL = 16.5%

$158.1

(1 + MIRRL)3=

321

10.0 60.0 80.0

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MIRR assumes reinvestment at theopportunity cost = WACC. MIRR also avoidsthe multiple IRR problem.

Managers like rate of return comparisons,and MIRR is better for this than IRR.

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The number of years required to recover aprojects cost, or How long does it take toget our money back?

Calculated by adding projects cash inflowsto its cost until the cumulative cash flow forthe project turns positive.

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30 80PaybackL= 2 + /

= 2.375 years

PaybackS= 1.600 years

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CFt

Cumulative

0 1 2 3

-30

Project Ls Payback Calculation

-100 50-90

80-100 6010

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Strengths Provides an indication of a projects risk and

liquidity.

Easy to calculate and understand.

Weaknesses Ignores the time value of money.

Ignores CFs occurring after the payback period.

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Uses discounted cash flows rather than rawCFs.

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41.32 60.11Disc PaybackL = 2 + / = 2.7 years

CFt

Cumulative

0 1 2 3

-41.32-100 18.79-90.91

80-100 6010

10%

PV of CFt -100 9.09 49.59 60.11

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Enter CFs into calculator CFLO register.

Enter I/YR = 10. NPV = -$386.78.

IRR = ERROR Why?

-800 5,000 -5,000

0 1 2WACC = 10%

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Project P has cash flows (in 000s): CF0 = -$0.8 million, CF1 = $5 million, and CF2 = -$5 million.

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450

-800

0400100

IRR2 = 400%

IRR1 = 25%

WACC

NPV

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At very low discount rates, the PV of CF2 islarge and negative, so NPV < 0.

At very high discount rates, the PV of both

CF1 and CF2 are low, so CF0 dominates andagain NPV < 0.

In between, the discount rate hits CF2 harderthan CF1, so NPV > 0.

Result: 2 IRRs.

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When there are nonnormal CFs and morethan one IRR, use MIRR. PV of outflows @ 10% = -$4,932.2314.

TV of inflows @ 10% = $5,500.

MIRR = 5.6%.

Do not accept Project P. NPV = -$386.78 < 0.

MIRR = 5.6% < WACC = 10%.

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Chapter 13

Relevant Cash Flows

Incorporating Inflation

Types of Risk Risk Analysis

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Total depreciable cost Equipment: $200,000

Shipping and installation: $40,000

Changes in working capital Inventories will rise by $25,000

Accounts payable will rise by $5,000

Effect on operations

New sales: 100,000 units/year @ $2/unit Variable cost: 60% of sales

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Life of the project Economic life: 4 years

Depreciable life: MACRS 3-year class

Salvage value: $25,000

Tax rate: 40%

WACC: 10%

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Estimate relevant cash flows

Calculating annual operating cash flows.

Identifying changes in working capital.

Calculating terminal cash flows: after-tax salvagevalue and return of NWC.

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Initial OCF1 OCF2 OCF3 OCF4Costs +

TerminalCFs

NCF0 NCF1 NCF2 NCF3 NCF4

0 1 2 3 4

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Find NWC. in inventories of $25,000

Funded partly by an in A/P of $5,000 NWC = $25,000 $5,000 = $20,000

Combine NWC with initial costs.

Equipment -$200,000

Installation -40,000

NWC -20,000Net CF0 -$260,000

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Year Rate x Basis Deprec.1 0.33 x $240 $ 792 0.45 x 240 1083 0.15 x 240 364 0.07 x 240 17

1.00 $240

Due to the MACRS -year convention, a3-year asset is depreciated over 4 years.

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1 2 3 4

Revenues 200.0 200.0 200.0 200.0

Op. costs -120.0 -120.0 -120.0 -120.0

Deprec. expense -79.2 -108.0 -36.0 -16.8

Operating income (BT) 0.8 -28.0 44.0 63.2

Tax (40%) 0.3 -11.2 17.6 25.3

Operating income (AT) 0.5 -16.8 26.4 37.9

+ Deprec. expense 79.2 108.0 36.0 16.8

Operating CF 79.7 91.2 62.4 54.7

(Thousands of dollars)

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Q. How is NWC recovered?

Q. Is there always a tax on SV?Q. Is the tax on SV ever a positive cash flow?

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Recovery of NWC $20,000Salvage value 25,000Tax of SV (40%) -10,000

Terminal CF $35,000

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No, dividends and interest expense shouldnot be included in the analysis.

Financing effects have already been taken

into account by discounting cash flows at theWACC of 10%.

Deducting interest expense and dividendswould be double counting financing costs.

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No, the building improvement cost is a sunkcost and should not be considered.

This analysis should only include incremental

investment.

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Yes, by accepting the project, the firmforegoes a possible annual cash flow of$25,000, which is an opportunity cost to becharged to the project.

The relevant cash flow is the annual after-taxopportunity cost. A-T opportunity cost:

= $25,000(1 T)= $25,000(0.6)

= $15,000

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Yes. The effect on other projects CFs is anexternality.

Net CF loss per year on other lines would bea cost to this project.

Externalities can be positive (in the case ofcomplements) or negative (substitutes).

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Enter CFs into calculator CFLO register, andenter I/YR = 10%.

NPV = -$4.03 million

IRR = 9.3%

MIRR = 9.6%

Payback = 3.3 years

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0

-260

1 2 3 4

79.7 91.2 62.4 89.7

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Yes, the old equipment would be sold, andnew equipment purchased.

The incremental CFs would be the changes

from the old to the new situation. The relevant depreciation expense would

be the change with the new equipment.

If the old machine was sold, the firm would

not receive the SV at the end of themachines life. This is the opportunity costfor the replacement project.

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Stand-alone risk

Corporate risk

Market risk

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The projects total risk, if it were operatedindependently.

Usually measured by standard deviation (orcoefficient of variation).

However, it ignores the firms diversificationamong projects and investors diversificationamong firms.

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The projects risk when considering thefirms other projects, i.e., diversificationwithin the firm.

Corporate risk is a function of the projectsNPV and standard deviation and itscorrelation with the returns on other firmprojects.

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The projects risk to a well-diversifiedinvestor.

Theoretically, it is measured by the projectsbeta and it considers both corporate andstockholder diversification.

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Market risk is the most relevant risk forcapital projects, because managementsprimary goal is shareholder wealthmaximization.

However, since corporate risk affectscreditors, customers, suppliers, andemployees, it should not be completely

ignored.

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Stand-alone risk is the easiest to measure.Firms often focus on stand-alone risk whenmaking capital budgeting decisions.

Focusing on stand-alone risk is nottheoretically correct, but it does notnecessarily lead to poor decisions.

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Yes, since most projects the firm undertakesare in its core business, stand-alone risk islikely to be highly correlated with itscorporate risk.

In addition, corporate risk is likely to behighly correlated with its market risk.

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Sensitivity analysis measures the effect ofchanges in a variable on the projects NPV.

To perform a sensitivity analysis, all variablesare fixed at their expected values, except forthe variable in question which is allowed tofluctuate.

Resulting changes in NPV are noted.

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Advantage Identifies variables that may have the greatest

potential impact on profitability and allowsmanagement to focus on these variables.

Disadvantages Does not reflect the effects of diversification.

Does not incorporate any information about thepossible magnitudes of the forecast errors.

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Yes, inflation causes the discount rate to beupwardly revised.

Therefore, inflation creates a downward biason PV.

Inflation should be built into CF forecasts.

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1 2 3 4Revenues 210 220 232 243

Op. costs (60%) -126 -132 -139 -146

Deprec. expense -79 -108 -36 -17

Oper. income (BT) 5 -20 57 80

Tax (40%) 2 -8 23 32

Oper. income (AT) 3 -12 34 48

+ Deprec. expense 79 108 36 17Operating cash flows 82 96 70 65

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Enter CFs into calculator CFLO register, and

enter I/YR = 10%. NPV = $15.0 million.

IRR = 12.6%.

0 1 2 3 4

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Terminal CF =

-260 82.1 96.1 70.0 65.1

35.0

100.1

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Suppose we are confident of all the variableestimates, except unit sales. The actual unitsales are expected to follow the followingprobability distribution:

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Case Probability Unit Sales

Worst 0.25 75,000

Base 0.50 100,000

Best 0.25 125,000

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All other factors shall remain constant andthe NPV under each scenario can bedetermined.

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Case Probability NPV

Worst 0.25 ($27.8)

Base 0.50 15.0

Best 0.25 57.8

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0.15$

)8.57($25.0)0.15($5.0)8.27$-(25.0E(NPV)

3.30$

])0.15$0.25($57.8

)0.15$0.5($15.0)0.15$.8[0.25(-$27

1/22

22NPV

2.00$30.3/$15.CVNPV

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With a CVNPV of 2.0, this project would beclassified as a high-risk project.

Perhaps, some sort of risk correction isrequired for proper analysis.

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We would expect a positive correlation withthe firms aggregate cash flows.

As long as correlation is not perfectlypositive (i.e., 1), we would expect it tocontribute to the lowering of the firmsoverall risk.

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The projects corporate risk would not bedirectly affected. However, when combinedwith the projects high stand-alone risk,correlation with the economy would suggest

that market risk (beta) is high.

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Reevaluating this project at a 13% cost ofcapital (due to high stand-alone risk), theNPV of the project is -$2.2.

If, however, it were a low-risk project, wewould use a 7% cost of capital and theproject NPV is $34.1.

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Numerical analysis sometimes fails tocapture all sources of risk for a project.

If the project has the potential for a lawsuit,it is more risky than previously thought.

If assets can be redeployed or sold easily, theproject may be less risky than otherwisethought.

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Machines A and B are mutually exclusive,and will be repurchased. If WACC = 10%,which is better?

Expected Net CFsYear Machine A Machine B

0 ($50,000) ($50,000)

1 17,500 34,000

2 17,500 27,500

3 17,500

4 17,500

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Enter CFs into calculator CFLO register forboth projects, and enter I/YR = 10%. NPVA = $5,472.65 NPVB = $3,636.36

Is Machine A better? Need replacement chain and/or equivalent annual

annuity analysis.

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Use the replacement chain to calculate anextended NPVB to a common life.

Since Machine B has a 2-year life andMachine A has a 4-year life, the common life

is 4 years.

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NPVB = $6,641.62 (on extended basis)

-50,000 34,000 27,500 34,000 27,500

-50,000

-22,500

0 1 2 310%

4

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Using the previously solved project NPVs, theEAA is the annual payment that the projectwould provide if it were an annuity.

Machine A Enter N = 4, I/YR = 10, PV = -5472.65, FV = 0;

solve for PMT = EAA = $1,726.46.

Machine B Enter N = 2, I/YR = 10, PV = -3636.36, FV = 0;

solve for PMT = EAA = $2,095.24. Machine B is better!

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To be posted in the blackboard after the topicis taught.