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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCSS) (2010 Admission onwards) SEMESTERS I to 6 Scheme of Evaluation and Model Question Papers (Core and Complementary Courses) For Syllabi, Scheme and MQPs of Language Courses in this Programme, see BA,BSc

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Page 1: UNIVERSITY OF KERALA FIRST DEGREE …gmmic.weebly.com/uploads/4/6/5/9/4659230/model_qn_paper_english... · ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCSS) (2010 Admission onwards) ... METHODOLOGY

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCSS)

(2010 Admission onwards)

SEMESTERS I to 6

Scheme of Evaluation and Model Question Papers

(Core and Complementary Courses)

For Syllabi, Scheme and MQPs of Language Courses in this Programme, see BA,BSc

Page 2: UNIVERSITY OF KERALA FIRST DEGREE …gmmic.weebly.com/uploads/4/6/5/9/4659230/model_qn_paper_english... · ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCSS) (2010 Admission onwards) ... METHODOLOGY

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER I

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course 1 - METHODOLOGY & PERSPECTIVES OF HUMANITIES: EN 1141

Time: Three hours

Weights 30

I. Multiple choice

16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set.

(4 bunches from Module 1, 4 bunches from Module 2, 4 bunches from Module 3 and 4 bunches from

Module 4: 4+4+4+4 = 16 questions)

Weightage 1x 4= 4

II. Short answers

8 out of 12 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 60 words)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8

III. Short essays or paragraphs

5 out of 8 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10

IV. Long essays

2 out of 3 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER I

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course 1 - METHODOLOGY & PERSPECTIVES OF HUMANITIES: EN 1141

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

I. Choose the correct answer.

A. 1. The traditional objects of analysis in literary criticism are called

a. secondary sources b. monographs c. primary sources d. bibliography

2. Discourse can be defined as

a. any kind of classifiable linguistic expression c. list of works cited

b. dissertations and scholarly books d. an abstract theoretical topic

3. Humanities is primarily concerned with

a. grammar, rhetoric, history, poetry and moral philosophy c. theory and critical modes

b. science, technology and communication d. applied theories and discourse

4. The term „genre‟ comes from

a. English b. German c. Spanish d. French

B. 5. Beowulf belongs to

a. Old English Period c. Modern English Period

b. Middle English Period d. Postmodern English period

6. The term „Renaissance‟ signifies

a. Glory b. Honour c. Power d. Rebirth

7. Who among the following is a major writer of the Puritan period?

a. Nathaniel Hawthorne b. Thomas Kyd c. John Milton d. Samuel Richardson

8. Augustan age is also known as

a. Classical age b. Colonial age c. Neo-classical age d. New age

C.9. Cicero is a

a. rhetorician b. linguist c. University Wit d. philologist

10. Philology is a discipline that deals with

a. study of philosophy b. study of language c. study of culture d. study of rhetoric

11. Who wrote The New Criticism?

a. Cleanth Brooks b. J.C. Ransom c. Robert Warren d. Allen Tate

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12. Disposition in rhetorical discourse refers to

a. manner of presentation b. arrangement of material c. stylistic features d. choice of words

D.13. Lacan is associated with

a. reader response theory b. psychoanalysis c. new criticism d. reception theory

14. William Empson‟s major work is titled as

a. Seven Types of Ambiguity c. Ambiguity

b. Six Types of Ambiguity d. Theoretical Ambiguity

15. Wolfgang Iser introduced the concept of

a. anachronism b. blanks c. competence d. discourse

16. Biographical criticism focuses on

a. the author‟s life and views

b. the reader‟s life and views

c. the critic‟s life and views

d. biographies of characters (Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight of the following, each in about sixty words.

17. Text type.

18. Distinguish between Renaissance Humanism and Christian Humanism.

19. Short Story.

20. Shakespearean sonnet.

21. Restoration comedy.

22. The five constituent parts of rhetorical discourse.

23. Intentional Fallacy.

24. Stylistics.

25. Lacan‟s concept of the mirror stage.

26. Freud‟s contribution to literature.

27. Ambiguity

28. Biographical Criticism. (Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. Rhythmic-acoustic dimension in Poetry.

30. The Elizabethan Theatre.

31. Editing in Films.

32. Rhetoric.

33. Relevance of Philology in the modern era.

34. Historical Plays of Shakespeare.

35. Reader-response theory.

36. Victorian poets. (Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words.

37. The Novel.

38. The Romantic Age in literature.

39. Text-oriented approaches. (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER I

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Complementary Course I - HISTORY OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE: EN 1131

Time: Three hours Weights 30

I. Multiple choice

16 multiple choice Questions

(4 branches from each of the 4 Modules)

(Questions to test general understanding, but from within the syllabus)

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Short answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four modules

(Questions to be answered in about sixty words)

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four modules

(To be answered in about 100 words)

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Long essays

Two out of three from all the four modules

(To be answered in about 300 words)

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER I

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Complementary Course I - HISTORY OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE: EN 1131

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. Which of the following does not belong to the Indo- European family?

a. German b. Hebrew c. Dutch d. Czech

2. Portuguese belongs to the ……………. family.

a. Baltic b. Italic c. Sanskrit d. Celtic

3. ……………. is the language of Holland.

a. Dutch b. German c. English d. French

4. The prominent languages in the Germanic family are

a. German, French, Swedish c. German, Swedish, Russian

b. German, Dutch, Irish d. German, Dutch, English

B. 5. During Christianisation, English came into contact with

a. Latin b. Scandinavian c. French d. Hebrew

6. Irish language belongs to the ………. Family

a. Germanic b. Italic c. Celtic d. Baltic

7. The language spoken by the invaders from Normandy in the 11th century:

a. Norwegian b. English c. German d. French

8. The dialect used by King Alfred in the 9th

century:

a. West Saxon b. Northumbrian c. East Anglian d. Kentish

C. 9. The Authorized Version of the Bible (1611) was published in the reign of

a. Queen Elizabeth b. King James I c. King Henry VIII d. None of the above.

10. The work which cannot be classified as a Renaissance text:

a. Utopia c. Canterbury Tales

b. Macbeth d. The Bible (Authorised Version)

11. The word „lexicon‟ comes from:

a. German b. Celtic c. Sanskrit d. Greek

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12. “When I took the first survey of my undertaking, I found our speech copious without order, and

energetic without rules ….” This is from the preface of a famous 18th century text by……

a. Jonathan Swift b. Dr. Samuel Johnson c. John Dryden d. Daniel Defoe

D.13. „Edit‟ from „editor‟; „televise‟ from „television‟; „baby-sit‟ from „babysitter‟ are examples of:

a. Neologism b. Conversion c. Back formation d. Blends

14. „Magazine‟, „admiral‟, „crimson‟, „zero‟, „harem‟, are words from:

a. Armenian b. Sanskrit c. French d. Arabic

15. „ad‟, „demo‟, „exam‟, and „phone‟ are examples of:

a. clipping b. blends c. slang terms d. acronyms

16. „Pandemonium‟ is coined by

a. William Shakespeare b. John Milton c. John Dryden d. Dr. Johnson

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about sixty words:

17. Iranian group of languages

18. Dialects of Old English

19. Celtic place names

20. Impact of Christianisation on the English language

21. French ecclesiastical words

22. Differentiation in meaning of English and French words

23. Latin borrowings in Middle English

24. Words from the Romance languages

25. 18th

century attempts to refine English

26. American English

27. Generalisation in meaning

28. Back formation

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following questions, each in about 100 words:

29. The Germanic family of languages

30. The Scandinavian influence on Old English

31. Leveling of inflexions in the Middle English period

32. Middle English Grammar

33. Caxton and the Printing Press

34. Slang and Standard Speech

35. The process of Specialization

36. Shakespeare‟s contribution to the English language

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following questions, each in about 300 words:

37. The Indo-European family of languages

38. The Rise of Standard English

39. Influence of the Renaissance on English

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER II

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course II - Drama EN 1241

Time: Three hours Weightage: 30

I. Multiple choice

Four bunches from each of the four Modules: 4 x 4 = 16 Questions

Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about sixty words)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four Modules

(To be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long essays

Two out of three – 1 question each from Modules two to four.

(To be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER II

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course II - Drama EN 1241

Model Question Paper

Time: Three hours Weightage: 30

I. Choose the correct answer:

A. 1. Everyman is a --------------- play.

a. mystery b. miracle c. morality d. religious

2. Body of actors who report in a Classical drama.

a. clowns b. chorus c. witches d. torch bearers

3. Ben Jonson is associated with the

a. Comedy of Humours c. Comedy of Errors

b. Comedy of Manners d. Sentimental Comedy

4. …….. is a private theatre.

a. The Globe b.The Curtain c.The Theatre d.The Blackfriars

B. 5. Duncan was the King of

a. Ireland b.Scotland c. Denmark d. England

6. Internal evidence suggests that Macbeth was written

a.before King Lear c. before Julius Caesar

b. after King Lear d. before Antony and Cleopatra

7. Macbeth becomes a victim of

a. ambition b. illusion c. desire d. power

8. Macbeth was killed by

a. Malcolm b. Fleance c. Banquo d. Macduff

C. 9. The play which was not written by Shaw.

a. Saint Joan b. Man and Superman c. A Doll’s House d.Caesar and Cleopatra

10. Arms and the Man appeared in the collection

a. Plays Pleasant b. Plays Unpleasant c. Shaw‟s Plays d. Plays of Ideas

11. Shaw has taken the title Arms and the Man from

a. Virgil b. Shakespeare c. Dryden d. Alexander Pope

12. The play Arms and the Man is set in

a. Vienna b. Russia c. Bulgaria d. Ireland

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D. 13. Anton Chekhov is…………playwright and short story writer

a. an Irish b. a Russian c. a German d. a French

14. “No man can be living for ever.” These are the words of

a. Nora b.Maurya c. Bartley d. Cathleen

15. The Red mare symbolizes

a. Victory b.death c. strength d. misfortune

16. J.M Synge was the director of

a.the Globe Theatre b. the Abbey Theatre c. the Blackfriars d. the New Theatre

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight each in about sixty words:

17. The structure of a play

18. Comedy of Humours

19. Masque

20. Verbal irony

21. What is the tragic flaw of Macbeth?

22. What is the prediction made by the witches?

23. Why does Macbeth hire murderers to kill Banquo and his children?

24. The themes of The Arms and the Man.

25. What is the basic difference between Bluntschli and Sergius?

26. What type of hero is Bluntschli?

27. The real protagonist in the Riders to the Sea.

28. Character of Natalia (Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five, each in about 100 words:

29. Difference between the Classical and the Romantic tragedies.

30. Importance of the Chorus.

31. How does Lamov get into his first argument with Natalia?

32. The witches in Macbeth.

33. The imagery in Macbeth.

34. The significance of the title Arms and the Man.

35. Raina‟s first meeting with Bluntschli.

36. Dramatic irony in Riders to the Sea.

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about 300 words:

37. In Macbeth the main emphasis is on evil – Discuss.

38. Discuss Arms and the Man as an Anti Romantic comedy.

39. Symbolism in The Riders to the Sea. (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER II

BA FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

COMPLEMENTARY COURSE III - History of English Drama: EN 1231

Time: Three hours Weightage: 30

I. Multiple choice

Four bunches from each of the four Modules: 4 x 4 = 16 Questions

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4).

II. Short answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four Modules

(Each question to be answered in about sixty words)

(Weightage 1 x 8 = 8).

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four Modules

(Each question to be answered in about 100 words)

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10).

IV. Long essays

Two out of three – 1 question each from Modules two to four.

(Each question to be answered in about 300 words)

(Weightage 4 x 2 = 8).

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER II

BA FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Complementary Course III: History of English Drama: EN 1231

Model Question Paper

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Choose the correct answer

A. 1. Liturgical plays originated out of

a. Christian religious rituals b. social rituals c. medieval folklore d. Morality plays

2. The early „miracle‟ plays were performed by

a. town guilds b. professional actors c. clergymen d. minstrels

3. Ralph Roister Doister is written by

a. Sackville and Norton b. John Heywood c. John Skelton d. Nicholas Udall

4. Which of the following statements about the Senecan plays is wrong?

a. Revenge is a powerful theme. c. As in Greek tragedy, violence is not depicted on the stage.

b. Presence of ghost. d. Has strong well developed and intricate plot.

B. 5. The play which is not based on Holinshed‟s Chronicles:

a. Richard II b. King John c. Hamlet d. Henry IV Part I

6. Shakespeare‟s first tragedy:

a. Titus Andronicus b. Macbeth c. Hamlet d. Romeo and Juliet

7. The four principal tragedies of Shakespeare are:

a. Hamlet, Othello, Antony and Cleopatra and Richard II

b. Hamlet, Othello, King Lear and Macbeth

c. Hamlet, Othello, Julius Caesar and Richard II

d. Hamlet, Othello, Julius Caesar and Henry VIII

8. Brainworm, Kitely, Bobadill etc. are characters in:

a. Shakespeare‟s Love’s Labour’s Lost b. Ben Jonson‟s Volpone

c. Ben Jonson‟s Every Man in His Humour. d. None of the above

C. 9. The first major woman dramatist in England:

a. Jane Austen b. Elizabeth Gaskell c. Mary Wollstonecraft d. Aphra Behn

10. Dryden‟s Secret Love, Etherege‟s The Man of Mode, and Wycherley‟s The Country Wife belong to

the genre:

a. Comedy of Manners b. Ballad Opera c. Absurd Drama c. Melodrama

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11. Dryden‟s All for Love is a heroic drama based on

a. Senecan tragedy c. Shakespeare‟s Antony and Cleopatra

b. Greek tragedy d. Shakespeare‟s Romeo and Juliet

12. Mrs Malaprop is a character in

a. The School for Scandal b. The Rivals c. She Stoops to Conquer d. The Country Wife

D. 13. Oscar Wilde‟s play The Importance of Being Earnest was published in

a. 1759 b. 1859 c. 1795 d. 1895

14. The Forsyte Saga is by

a. John Ervine b. John Galsworthy c. John Masefield d. Granville Barker

15. The playwright who was not associated with the Irish Theatre

a. Sean O‟Casey b. J.M.Synge c. W.B.Yeats d. G.B.Shaw

16. The characters Estragon and Vladimir appear in Samuel Beckett‟s

a. End Game b. Happy Days c. Waiting for Godot d. Krapp’s Last Tape

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight each in about sixty words:

17. Interludes

18. Gorboduc

19. The University Wits

20. Shakespeare‟s early plays

21. Major tragedies of Shakespeare

22. Ben Jonson as a playwright

23. Heroic drama

24. Plays of Goldsmith

25. Sheridan‟s contribution to English drama

26. Importance of Being Earnest as a Comedy of Manners

27. Royal Court theatre

28. Black Comedy (Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five each in about 100 words:

29. Miracle Plays

30. Senecan tragedy

31. Elizabethan theatre

32. Last plays of Shakespeare

33. Etherege as a Restoration playwright

34. Abbey theatre of Ireland

35. One-act plays of the twentieth century

36. The problem plays of Bernard Shaw (Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two each in about 300 words:

37. Shakespearean comedies

38. English drama in the Restoration period

39. Post-war British drama (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER III

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

INFORMATICS

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE FOUNDATION COURSE 2: EN 1321

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a)

ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH FOUNDATION COURSE 2: CG 1321

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

I. Multiple choice

There are 16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set. All are to be answered. (A part

is from module 1, B part is from module 2, C is from module 3 and D is from module 4).

(Weights 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Short answers

In this section, there are twelve questions from all the four modules. Answer any eight of them in about one

or two sentences each.

(Weights 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Here are eight questions from all the four modules. Answer any five of them in about 100 words.

(Weights 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Long essays

The three questions under this section are taken from all the four modules. Answer any two of them in about

300 words.

(Weights 4 x 2 = 8)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER III

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

INFORMATICS

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE FOUNDATION COURSE 2: EN 1321

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a)

ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH FOUNDATION COURSE 2: CG 1321

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1) A Visual Display Unit is commonly called …..

a. Monitor b. Cabinet c. Mouse d. Hard Disk

2) The term Bluetooth stands for …..........

a. Sophisticated technology b. Wireless technology c. Hardware components d. Operating systems

3) …........ stands for the amount of data that can be transferred through a network.

a. Bits b. Bandwidth c. Modem d. Baseband

4) Of the following software …............ is an Operating System.

a. Microsoft Word b. Adobe Photoshop c. Linux d. PageMaker

B. 5) …..... is a data transfer technology, that is more efficient than ISDN.

a. I Phone b. Wi-Fi c. DSL d. Dial-up

6) Of the following ….......... is not a Web browser

a. Chrome b. Firefox c. Firewall d. Opera

7) ….......... is not a Search Engine.

a. iTunes b. Google c. Yahoo d. Ask.com

8) Project Gutenberg is a very comprehensive archive of …......

a. E-books b. Educational software c. Paintings d. Application software

C. 9) …...... launched the GNU Project which was the beginning of the free software movement.

a. Bill Gates b. Steven Spielberg c. Richard Stallman d. Mark Zuckerberg

10) Illegal copying, use and dissemination of commercial software is …........

a. Hacking b. Phishing c. Piracy d. Plagiarism

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11) Symbian and Android are software developed for …........

a. Spaceships b. Notebook Computers c. Mobile Phones d. iPads

12) Respecting others' privacy and not doing anything online that will annoy others is part of .......

a. Netiquette b. Internet Protocol c. Cyber security d. Malware

D. 13) Skype is a popular software used for ….. and has great possibilities in Educational use.

a. audio/video calling b. Language learning c Edutainment d. Digital library

14) NeGP (National e-Governance Plan) is a plan of ….... Government to make all Government services

available to the citizens of that country via the electronic media

a. American b. South Korean c. French d. Indian

15) ….. is a special effect in motion pictures and animations that changes one image into another through a

seamless transition.

a. Morphing b. Motion-capture c. Imaging d. Screenshot

16) …......... happens when special glasses and headphones attached to a computer system creates a make-

believe world.

a. Fantasy b. Virtual Reality c. Romance d. Animation

(1 x 4= 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions in about one or two sentences each:

17) How would you define the term 'software'?

18) Mention two types of connections through which internet can be accessed?

19) Explain INFLIBNET.

20) Give a short note on open access initiatives

21) What is Wi-Fi?

22) What is plagiarism?

23) Explain the notion of 'digital divide'.

24) What is special about Unicode?

25) Point out an example of the application of IT in healthcare and medicine.

26) Give two examples for Educational Software.

27) Explain 'artificial intelligence'.

28) What is e-waste? (I x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following words in about one hundred words:

29) Write briefly on the main Operating Systems that are used world wide?

30) Write a note on Intellectual Property Rights with special relation to IT.

31) Ways to search for academic information in the internet.

32) Write briefly on the application of IT in teaching and learning.

33) How would you describe Open Source software?

34) Write briefly on Cyber Addiction?

35) Write on accessing internet in mobile phones.

36) What changes did IT bring in the field of journalism? (2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following in about three hundred words each:

37) Write on how the internet has become an indispensable tool in modern education.

38) Attempt a brief survey of the ethical and legal issues related to IT.

39) Write an overview of the application of IT in different walks of life in India. (4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER III

BA FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course III – POETRY: EN 1341

Time: Three hours

Weights: 30

I. Multiple choice

There are 16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set.

All questions are to be answered.

(Part A is from Module I, B from Module 2, C from Module 3 and D from Module 4)

(Weights 1 × 4 = 4)

II. Short answers

Twelve questions from all the four modules. Choose any eight questions and answer them in about one

or two sentences each.

(Weights 1 × 8 = 8)

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Eight questions from all the four modules. Answer any five of them in about 100 words.

(Weights 2 × 5 = 10)

IV. Long essays

Three questions under this section are taken from all the four modules. Answer any two of them in about

300 words.

(Weights 4 × 2 = 8)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER III

BA FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course III: EN 1341

POETRY

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. The Italian sonnet is often known as: a. Petrarchan b. Shakespearean c. Spenserian d. Chaucerian

2. The Heroic Couplet was first used in England by: a. Wordsworth b. Coleridge c. Shelley d. Chaucer

3. A Narrative poem in short stanzas with a recurrent refrain is called:

a. ode b. ballad c. elegy d. lyric

4. John Milton‟s Lycidas is an:

a. epic b. ode c. elegy d. idyll

B. 5. The poet associated with Metaphysical poetry:

a. John Keats b. Matthew Arnold c. John Donne d. S.T. Coleridge

6. A notable satire in English poetry:

a. Ode to a Nightingale b. Faerie Queene c. Mac Flecknoe d. Paradise Lost

7. A rhymed lyric poem in the form of an address is called:

a. ballad b. idyll c. ode d. epic

8. The literary movement started by the publication of Lyrical Ballads in 1798 is called:

a. Humanism b. Classicism c. Realism d. Romanticism

C. 9. Many of the later poems of W.B. Yeats were initiated by his frustration in his acquaintance with: a. Lady Gregory b. Anne Butler Yeats c. Maud Gonne d. Georgie Hyde Lees

10. Who wrote The Waste Land? a. W.B. Yeats b. T.S. Eliot c. W.H. Auden d. Dylan Thomas

11. Philip Larkin is associated with:

a. Pre-Raphaelite poetry b. Georgian poetry c. Movement poetry d. Metaphysical poetry

12. The Second Coming was written by:

a. T.S. Eliot b. Seamus Heaney c.W.H. Auden d. W.B.Yeats

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D. 13. Name the poet who was awarded the Pulitzer Prize four times:

a. Seamus Heaney b. Philip Larkin c. Robert Frost d. Ted Hughes

14. “Dull Sublunary lovers‟ love” is an instance of

a. assonance b. personification c. metaphor d. oxymoron

15. What is the figure of speech used in “Love is not Time‟s fool”?

a. Oxymoron b. Onomatopoeia c. Personification d. Metaphor

16. “darkness visible” is an instance of :

a. assonance b. alliteration c. oxymoron d. metaphor

(1×4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions in about one or two sentences each:

17. What is meant by a Heroic couplet? Give an example.

18. What is not true love, according to Shakespeare in Sonnet 116?

19. What is the impact of the solitary reaper‟s song on William Wordsworth?

20. What are the two key ideas in the first 26 times of John Milton‟s Paradise Lost?

21. “... I will fly to thee ... on the viewless wings of poesy”. Explain.

22. What does the image of the hand signify in Alfred Lord Tennyson‟s In Memoriam?

23. What is the theme of Donne‟s AValidiction: Forbidding Mourning?

24. Explain the significance of the image of the laurel tree in W.B. Yeats‟ A Prayer for my Daughter.

25. Comment on Eliot‟s use of mythical parallels in Sweeney among the Nightingales.

26. What are the various reactions to death presented in Dylan Thomas‟ Do Not Go Gentle into That Good

Night?

27. Why did the poet not observe the wedding parties at first, in the poem, Whitsun Weddings?

28.What does the title Digging imply? (1 × 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following questions in about 100 words, choosing one from each section.

Section A

29. How is a satire different from a ballad? Cite examples.

30. Draw the contrast between a similie and a metaphor with suitable examples.

Section B

31. “If this be error and upon me proved,

I never writ, nor no man ever loved.”

Discuss the significance of this couplet in William Shakespeare‟s Sonnet 116.

32. What guesses does William Wordsworth make about the possible themes of the solitary reaper‟s song?

33. Describe the qualities that W.B. Yeats wants his daughter to possess as portrayed in A Prayer for My

Daughter.

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Section C

(Explain with reference to the context)

34. ... what in me is dark

Illumine, what is low raise and support;

That, to the height of this great argument,

I may assert Eternal Providence,

And justify the ways of God to men.

35. Was it a vision, or a waking dream?

Fled is that music- do I wake or sleep?

36. And sang within the bloody wood

When Agamemnon cried aloud,

And let their liquid siftings fall

To stain the stiff dishonoured shroud. (2 × 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following in about 300 words each:

37. “W.H.Auden‟s The Unknown Citizen is a satire on standardization at the expense of individualism.” Do

you agree?

38. Examine Robert Browning‟s My Last Duchess as a Dramatic Monologue.

39. Attempt a critical analysis of the following poem. [Hints: theme - analysis - metre and rhyme - figure of

speech and other poetic devices - comments]

How soon hath Time, the subtle thief of youth,

Stol‟n on his wing my three and twentieth year!

My hasting days fly on with full career,

But my late spring no bud or blossom shew‟th.

Perhaps my semblance might deceive the truth

That I to manhood am arrived so near,

And inward ripeness doth much less appear,

That some more timely- happy spirits endu‟th.

Yet be it less or more, or soon or slow,

It shall be still in strictest measure even

To that same lot, however mean or high,

Toward which Time leads me, and the will of Heaven;

All is, if I have grace to use it so,

As ever in my great Taskmaster‟s eye. (4 × 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER III

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Complementary Course V - HISTORY OF ENGLISH POETRY: EN 1331

Time: Three hours Weights 30

I. Multiple choice

16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set. All questions are to be answered.

(A- part is from module 1, B is from module 2, C from module 3 and D from module 4).

(Weights 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Short answers

Twelve questions from all the four modules. Choose any eight questions and answer them in about one

or two sentences each.

(Weights 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Eight questions from all the four modules. Answer any five of them in about 100 words.

(Weights 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Long essays

The three questions under this section are taken from all the four modules.Answer any two of them in

about 300 words.

(Weights 4 x 2 = 8)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER III

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Complementary Course V - HISTORY OF ENGLISH POETRY: EN 1331

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. Which is the oldest extant poem in Old English Literature?

a) Widsith b) Beowulf c) The Dream of the Rood d) Genesis

2. The sonnet form is introduced into English Literature by …….

a) Wyatt and Surrey b) Marlowe c) Shakespeare d) Milton

3. …… is said to be a verbal portrait of the 14th Century England

a) Troilus and Creseyde b) Decameron c) The Canterbury Tales d) The Piers the Plowman

4. Shakespeare has written …… sonnets.

a) 162 b) 171 c) 145 d) 154

B. 5. Lyrical Ballads was published in the year ….

a) 1801 b) 1798 c) 1789 d) 1802

6. Who is the author of the famous quote “Beauty is truth, truth beauty”?

a) Coleridge b) Byron c) Keats d) Wordsworth

7. Coleridge‟s poems were noted for their ……

a) supernaturalism b) realism c) surrealism d) dadaism

8. “Ode to the West Wind” explains Shelley‟s ….. nature.

a) platonic b) classical c) revolutionary d) atheistic

C. 9. Sprung rhythm was the favourite metrical pattern of …..

a) Rossetti b) Tennyson c) Burns d) Hopkins

10. The Pre-Raphaelite Brotherhood is also known as …..

a) Movement poets b) Mavericks c) Fleshly School of poetry d) Pylon poets

11. Which is the form of poetry popularised by Robert Browning?

a) Dramatic Monologue b) Pastoral Elegy c) War Poetry d) Satire

12. Which poem of Tennyson mourns the death of his friend, Arthur Hallam?

a) Rugby Chapel b) Morte d‟ Arthur c) in Memoriam d) Dover Beach

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D. 13. Which of the following are War poets?

a) Eliot, Larkin and Owen b) Auden, Ted Hughes and Dylan Thomas

c) Heaney, Yeats and Sassoon d) Rupert Brooke, Sassoon and Owen

14. At a symbolic level, the title of the poem “Church Going” means ….

a) The act of going to church b) The disintegration of church

c) The erosion of faith d) death

15. The gyre symbol occurs in the poetry of …..

a) Ezra pound b) T.S. Eliot c) W.B. Yeats d) Seamus Heaney

16. Wasteland was published in the year ……

a) 1920 b) 1922 c) 1912 d) 1917 (1 x 4= 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions in about one or two sentences each:

17. What is the theme of Beowulf?

18. What is a Sonnet?

19. Name the two narrative poems of Shakespeare.

20. How do you define a Pastoral elegy?

21. Name the Cavalier poets.

22. Explain the Spenserian stanza.

23. Which are the twin poems of Milton?

24. What is a „mock heroic‟ poem? Give egs.

25. To whom are the sonnets of Shakespeare addressed?

26. What is the theme of Gray‟s “Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard”?

27. What is Free verse?

28. Why are the poets of the Auden group termed as Pylon poets?

(I x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following words in about one hundred words:

29. What are the features of Metaphysical poetry?

30. Briefly present the major influences on Romantic writers.

31. Write a short note on the poetry of Pre-romantics.

32. Ezra Pound‟s contribution to English poetry.

33. Animal imagery in Ted Hughes.

34. Sonnets of Elizabeth Barrett Browning.

35. The sources of Eliot‟s Wasteland.

36. Langland‟s contribution to English literature.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following in about three hundred words each:

37. The Elizabethan Age is predominantly an age of poetry. Do you agree?

38. The Christian spirit seen in Old English poetry.

39. Contributions of Tennyson, Browning and Arnold to Victorian literature.

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Core Course IV – PROSE: EN 1441

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Multiple choice

Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions

Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four modules

(Questions to be answered in about sixty words)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short essays or paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four modules

(Each to be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long essays

Two out of three from modules two to four.

(Each to be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Core Course IV – PROSE: EN 1441

Model Question Paper

Time: Three hours Weightage: 30

I. Choose the correct answer:

A. 1. The word “Essay” means . . . . . . . . .

a. attempt b. prose c. passage. d. irregular piece

2. “. . . .a loose sally of the mind, an irregular, indigested piece . . .” Who defined the „essay‟ thus?

a. Saintsbury. b. Pope c. Bacon d. Dr. Johnson

3. Francis Bacon belonged to the . . . . . . . . period.

a. Romantic b. Classical c. Renaissance d. Modern

4. Who introduced the Critical essay?

a. Montaigne b. Dryden c. Ben Jonson d. Cowley

B. 5. “Reading maketh a full man; conference a ready man and writing an exact man”. Whose words are

these?

a. Bacon b. Shakespeare c. Milton d. Hazlitt

6. Addison and Steele made the . . . . . . . . . . . essay popular.

a. Critical b. Character c. Periodical d. Aphoristic

7. The Tatler, the Spectator and the Rambler were periodicals common in . . . . . century England.

a. 16th b.17

th c.18

th d. 19

th

8. Charles Lamb who popularised the Personal essay used the pen name . . . . . . . .

a. Eliot b. Elia c. Phiz d. Pozo

C. 9. Bacon is a master of the --------------- style.

a. aphoristic b. private c. ornamental d. None of these

10. Samuel Pepys describes the incidents in the period of the reign of -------------

a. James I. b. Charles I. c. Charles II. d. Oliver Cromwell.

11. To whom did Dr. Johnson pay his compliment by addressing the plan of his monumental work?

a. Samuel Pepys b. Samuel Johnson c. Lord Chesterfield d. James Boswell

12. „We are not of Alice, nor of thee, nor are we children at all” Where do these words occur?

a. On Studies b. Dream Children c. On Familiar Style d. Indifference

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D. 13. Hazlitt adopts the ------------style in his essays.

a.familiar b. simple c. serious d. personal

14. “Life being short, and the quiet hours of it few, we ought to waste none of them in reading valueless

books . . .” Who commented thus?

a. William Hazlitt b. Charles Lamb c. John Ruskin d. Robert Lynd

15. Who recorded the “Holocaust” as “diabolical and systemetic state sponsored extermination -------”?

a. Samuel Pepys b. William Shakespeare c. Robert Lynd d. Anne Frank.

16. Albert Camus made his Acceptance Spech at the Nobel Banquet on 10 December . . . . . .

a. 1937 b. 1947 c.1957 d.1967

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight, each in about sixty words:

17. The Aphoristic essay.

18. The Periodical essay.

19. The Personal essay.

20. The three purpose of studies, according to Bacon.

21. The two companions of Will Wimble.

22. Dr. Johnson‟s Dictionary.

23. James Boswell as a biographer.

24. Lamb‟s “characters” in Dream Children.

25. The type of education, according to Ruskin, demanded by parents for their children.

26. The purpose of reading great authors.

27. What reasons does Anne Frank give for maintaining a diary?

28. The two goals, according to Albert Camus, towards which the modern generation must march.

(Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five, each in about 100 words:

29. The familiar essay.

30. Pepys‟ reaction to the London plague.

31. Boswell as a biographer.

32. Comment on the title of Lamb‟s essay.

33. Differences between oral communication and a book, according to Ruskin.

34. Lynd‟s justification of indifference.

35. Anne Frank‟s description of the persecution of the Jews by the Nazis.

36. The task ahead of the present generation, according to Camus.

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about 300 words:

37. Addison‟s presentation of the members of the Spectator Club.

38. Discuss the characteristics of Lamb‟s essay Dream Children: A Reverie.

39. Hazlitt‟s views on the salient features of the familiar style.

(Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

FICTION

Common for

English Language and Literature Core Course V: EN 1442

&

Career-Related First Degree Programme (CBCS) - Group 2(a) in

English and Communicative English Core Course V: CG 1441

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30

I. Multiple choice

16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set.

(4 bunches from Module 1, 4 from Module 2, 4 from Module 3 and 4 from Module 4: 4+4+4+4 = 16

questions)

Weightage 1 x 4 = 4

II. Short answers

8 out of 12 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 60 words)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8

III. Short essays or paragraphs

5 out of 8 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10

IV. Long essays

2 out of 3 – 1 question each from Modules 2, 3 & 4.

(Questions to be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

FICTION

Common for

English Language and Literature Core Course V: EN 1442

&

Career-Related First Degree Programme (CBCS) - Group 2(a) in

English and Communicative English Core Course V: CG 1441

Model Question Paper

Answer all questions

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30

I. Choose the correct answer

A. 1. Bildungsroman traces the development of

a. protagonist‟s character b. plot structure c. narrative strands d. antagonist‟s motives

2. The term „novella‟ means

a. a short story b. an interesting thing c. a little new thing d. an extended narrative

3. Which of the following is an epistolary novel?

a. Isabella b. Tom Jones c. Tristram Shandy d. Pamela

4. Stream of consciousness is associated with

a. William Empson b. William Jones c. William James d. William Faulkner

B. 5. Pinkie Brown in Brighton Rock is

a. an adventurous hero b. an antihero c. a romantic hero d. a deuteragonist

6. Ida Arnold acts as the

a. force of justice b. symbol of mercy

c. stereotypical mother d. representative of God‟s Love.

7. The title Brighton Rock is associated with

a. sea b. newspapers c. gang war d. confectionery

8. Brighton Rock challenges the religious doctrines of

a. Roman Catholicism b. Anglican Church c. Protestanism d. Presbyterian Church

C. 9. K calls his two assistants by this name ---------

a. Arthur b. Victor c. Oliver d. Edgar

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10. K‟s messages to Klamm are carried by

a. Hans b. Barnabas c. Momus d. Jeremiah

11. The Castle acts as a symbol of

a. bureaucracy and corruption b. heaven and hell c. power and glory d. sin and forgiveness

12. The Protagonist of The Castle is a

a. Priest b. Landlord c. Land Surveyor d. Coachman

D. 13. Saki is the pen name of

a. Thomas Munro b. James Munro c. M.H.Munro d. H.H.Munro

14. Lantin‟s wife had a fascination for

a. theatre and jewelry b. wine and luxuries c. clothing and jewelry d. gold and silver

15. Who is the main character in The Lottery Ticket?

a. Joseph b. Ivan c. Raynor d. Hugh

16. Albert Foreman becomes successful by starting ………

a. investments in various banks b. clothing business c. tobacco shops d. news agency

(Weightage 1x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight of the following, each in about sixty words.

17. What is a gothic novel? Give an example.

18. What is meta-fiction?

19. What is a „picaresque‟ novel?

20. Utopian fiction.

21. The symbolic significance of the title Brighton Rock.

22. The concepts of sin and morality as portrayed in Brighton Rock.

23. Pinkie‟s evolution as a sociopath

24. Narrative techniques employed in The Castle.

25. Theological significance of The Castle.

26. The role played by Amalia in The Castle.

27. What does Suzanne desire for a birthday present?

28. Irony in The Verger. (Weightage 1x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. Fable.

30. Autobiographical novel.

31. Rose as a pivotal character in Brighton Rock.

32. The relationship between Hale and Ida and its relevance in the narrative.

33. K as a representative hero.

34. Motifs in The Castle.

35. Evaluate and compare the characters Suzanne and Eleanor.

36. The contrast between Monsieur Lantin‟s first wife and his second wife. (Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words.

37. Major themes in The Castle.

38. Brighton Rock as a metaphor for human condition.

39. “Greed and avarice are essential human traits”. Explain the statement with reference to the stories

Fur and The Lottery Ticket. (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Complementary Course VII –HISTORY OF ENGLISH PROSE AND FICTION: EN 1431

[Revised syllabus – 2010 Admission]

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below;

1. Attendance - 1 weight

2. Assignments /Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments)

3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two)

Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

TIME: 3 HOURS

TOTAL WEIGHTS: 30

The exam contains four types of questions;

I. Four bunches of objective type questions containing 16 questions.

(1weight for each bunch. Total - 4 weights)

All questions are to be answered.

The questions will be based on all four modules

II. Twelve short answer type questions out of which students should answer 8, each in one or two sentences.

(Each question carries 1 weight. Total 1× 8 = 8 weights)

The questions will be based on all four modules

III. Eight short essays/ paragraph type questions, out of which students should answer five, each in about

hundred words. (Each question carries a weightage of 2. Total 2 ×5 = 10 weights)

The question will be based on all four modules.

IV. Long essays. (Each question carries a weightage of 4. Total 4 × 2 = 8 Weights)

Students should write two essays out of three, each in about three hundred words.

The essays will be based on all four modules.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER IV

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Complementary Course VII – HISTORY OF ENGLISH PROSE AND FICTION: EN 1431

[Revised syllabus – 2010 Admission]

Time 3 Hours Total Weight: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. Aphorism is the style of writing associated with ------------

a. Chaucer b. Bacon c. Milton d. Tyndale

2. Milton‟s prose work that demanded the freedom of the press is ----------

a. The Necessity of Atheism b. In Defence of the Press

c. Areopagitica d. The Reason of Church Government

3. Addison and Steele are chiefly remembered for their ---------------

a. political writings b. biographical writings

c. critical essays d. periodical essays

4. John Bunyan‟s . . . . . comes under Prison Literature

a. Irene b. Grace Abounding to the Chief of Sinners

c. Pigrim’s Progress d. Essay on Dramatic Poesy

B. 5. . . . . . is the famous biographer of Dr. Johnson

a. James Boswell b. Bertrand Russell c. John Dryden d. J.B. Priestley

6. Pamela is . . . . . novel by Samuel Richardson

a. an aphoristic b. an epistolary c. a picaresque d. a psychological

7. Which among the following writers had adopted the pseudonym “Elia”?

a. William Hazlitt b. E.M.Forster c. Charles Lamb d. Bertrand Russell

8. Who is the author of A Passage to India?

a. E.M.Forster b. J.B.Priestley c. Matthew Arnold d. Oliver Goldsmith

C. 9. Which is the area immortalized by Sir.Walter Scott in his novels?

a. Wessex b. Waverly c. Sessex d. Essex

10. Who is regarded as the greatest master of historical novels?

a. Jane Austen b. D.H. Lawrence c. Sir. Walter Scott c. Thomas Hardy

11. Who is the author of Robinson Crusoe?

a. Daniel Defoe b. Jonathan Swift c. Samuel Pepys d. George Eliot.

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12. Mary Ann Evans wrote under the pseudonym . . . .

a. Ellis Bell b. George Eliot c. Currer Bell d. Elia

D. 13. William Golding‟s . . . . . won for him the Nobel Prize for Literature

a. 1984 b. Lord of the Flies c. The Spire d. Darkness Visible

14. James Joyce and Virginia Woolf employ . . . . . technique in their novels.

a. gothic b. realistic c. bildungsroman d. stream of consciousness

15. The short political satire, Animal Farm, was written by . . . .

a. Doris Lessing b. Joseph Conrad c. Graham Greene d. George Orwell

16. The phrase “stream of consciousness” was first used by . . . . in Principles of Psychology.

a. William James b. James Joyce c. Virginia Woolf d. D.H. Lawrence

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any 8 of the following questions each in about 60 words:

17. What is an epistolary novel?

18. The critical treatise published by Dryden.

19. What is an allegory?

20. Name the four wheels of English novel wagon.

21. How would you explain a picaresque novel?

22. Anglo Saxon Chronicle as a mile stone in the development of English prose.

23. The Dictionary of 1755.

24. The political writings of John Milton.

25. List the main features of gothic fiction.

26. Explain the term “bildungsroman”.

27. Fictional landscapes in English novel genre.

28. Explain biography and autobiography with suitable examples. (1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 100 words:

29. King Alfred as the creator of English prose.

30. Matthew Arnold as a critic.

31. Trace the development of periodical essays.

32. What are social and realistic novels? Give examples.

33. Contributions of Tyndale and Coverdale to the development of English prose.

34. Explain Bacon‟s aphoristic style of writing with suitable examples.

35. Evaluate Charles Lamb as an essayist.

36. Explain the “stream of consciousness” technique. (2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any 2 questions each in about 300 words:

37. The rise of the English novel

38. Discuss some of the main trends in 20th

Century English fiction.

39. Estimate the women novelists of the 19th Century. (4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course X - AMERICAN LITERATURE: EN1545

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice

Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers Eight out of twelve from all the four modules (Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four modules (Each to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays

Two out of three from modules two to four. (Each to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course X - AMERICAN LITERATURE: EN1545

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 Hours Total Weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. The first American novel is ……………. a. Power and Glory c. The Scarlet Letter b. The Power of Sympathy d. The Old Man and the Sea

2. The principal author of The Declaration of Independence was ………………. a. Ralph Waldo Emerson c. Thomas Jefferson b. Henry David Thoreau d. Ernest Hemingway

3. Who wrote Mourning Becomes Electra?

a. Eugene O’Neill b. Emily Dickinson c. Edgar Allan Poe d. Tennessee Williams

4. Moby Dick is a ……….. a. Whale b. Man c. Ship d. Village

B. 5. The occasion of the poem The Emperor of Ice cream is ………… a. A birthday party b. Death c. Summer time d. Christmas Eve

6. To what does Poe compare Helen’s beauty? a. rose b. moon c. ship d. hyacinth 7. I Hear America Singing is …………….. a. An elegy b. a sonnet c. patriotic lyric d. dramatic monologue 8. In her poem, Emily Dickinson suggests that the best way to overcome death is…………… a. to commit suicide b. to accept it c. turn to spirituality d. to pray to God C. 9. Thomas Lanier William is better known by his nickname………………. a Edgar Allan Poe b.Tennessee Williams c. Scott Fitzgerald d.Williams Carlos Williams 10. A Streetcar Named Desire is a tragedy with ………….. scenes. a. 8 b. 11 c.14 d. none of these 11. The name of the slum in A Streetcar Named Desire is……………….. a. Paradise b. Purgatory c. Hades d. Elysian Fields

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12. Blanche’s late husband was a ……………… a. criminal b. stage artist c. homosexual d. musician D. 13. The narrator of The Great Gatsby is ………………..

a. Dan Cody b. Nick Carraway c. Gatsby d. Myrtle Wilson

14. The pen name of William Sydney Porter is …………. a. Saki b. Mark Twain c. O’ Henry d. Alpha of the Plough

15. Emerson’s essay Manners begins with a small poem by ……………. a. Coleridge b. Tennyson c. Ben Jonson d. Browning

16. Who said “Gentility is mean, and gentilesse is obsolete”? a. The Buddha b. Gandhiji c. Emerson d. Plato (1x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. The themes of the earliest colonial writers. 18. The influence of Edgar Allan Poe on later European and American writers. 19. The Transcendentalists in American Literature. 20. Mark Twain. 21. The reasons given by Robert Frost for the breaking of his boundary wall. 22. The parallel that Poe draws between Helen and the Nicean barks. 23. The reasons the poet puts forward while stating that the tulips should be put behind bars. 24. The 2 kinds of music used in the stage craft of the play A Streetcar Named Desire. 25. The context for the title in A Streetcar Named Desire. 26. The role of Jordan Baker in The Great Gatsby. 27. The mystery surrounding Gatsby. 28. The reason for Jimmy Valentine’s reformation.

(1 x 8 = 8 weights) III. Write on any five of the following in about 100 words each:

29. Influence of Puritanism on American life and literature. 30. Indian thought in Emerson, Thoreau and Whitman. 31. The images in Emily Dickinson’s poem. 32. The tone of the poem “Emperor of Ice cream.” 33. Blanche Du Bois. 34. The relationship between Stella and Steve. 35. Emerson’s view that “a beautiful behaviour is better than a beautiful form”. 36. Symbolism in The Great Gatsby. (2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following, each in about 300 words:

37. Write a critical appreciation of Mending Wall as a poem that ‘begins in delight and ends in wisdom’. 38. Consider The Great Gatsby as a mirror of the Jazz Age. 39. What are the major themes explored by Tennessee Williams in A Streetcar Named Desire?

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

OPEN COURSES

Open Course I - COMMUNICATIVE APPLICATIONS IN ENGLISH: EN 1551.1

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers Eight out of twelve from all the four modules (Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs Five out of eight from all the four modules (Each to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays Two out of three from modules two to four. (Each to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

OPEN COURSES

Open Course I - COMMUNICATIVE APPLICATIONS IN ENGLISH: EN 1551.1

Time: 3 Hours Weight: 30

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. The Subject- Verb agreement in a sentence is called . . . .

a. phonology b. concord c. symphony d. syntax

2. The primary stress of the word „photographer‟ is marked as . . . .

a. ´photographer b. pho´tographer c. photo΄grapher d. photogra΄pher

3. Wh- questions are also called . . . .

a. interrogative b. subjective c. annotative d. subversive

4. The number of syllables in „probability‟ is . . . .

a. two b. three c. five d. seven

B. 5. Referring a dictionary would come under the reading strategy . . . .

a. skimming b. scanning c. selective reading d. intensive reading

6. . . . . is a phrase used to give an opinion

a. Never b. Of course c. If I were you d. Congratulations

7. Light is the . . . . of darkness

a. antonym b. synonym c. antigone d. metonym

8. In American English, the phrase “fresh off the boat” refers to . . . .

a. a novice b. a new sailor c. an old sailor d. an expert

C. 9. An expression used to interrupt a person to call attention is . . . .

a. I‟m afraid b. Absolutely c. Interesting d. Excuse me

10. We do not describe a person in terms of . . . .

a. height b. complexion c. hair d. texture

11. A letter of application for a specific position should have . . . . of the applicant attached to it.

a. recommendation letter b. testimonial c. curriculum vitae d. leave letter

12. A business letter will have the complimentary close . . . .

a. Yours affectionately b. Yours faithfully c. Yours forever d. Yours lovingly

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D. 13. The language of a work that needs translation is the . . . .

a. source language b. target language

c. continental language d. Indo-European language

14. The language to which a work is translated is the . . . .

a. celtic language b. source language c. target language d. native language

15. “A cat and dog life” means . . . .

a. live together b. always quarrelling c. to be selfish d. end the quarrel

16. “In the family way” means . . . .

a. closely related b. very intimate c. pregnant d. getting married

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. Define “Primary Stress”

18. Explain a few basic techniques of starting a conversation

19. The need to have eye contact during an interview.

20. Explain the term “ISP” (Internet Service Provider)

21. Write an e-mail to the local office complaining of the faulty internet connection

22. Explain two principal techniques of reading a book

23. Briefly explain the role of audio visual aids in communication

24. Main features of business communications

25. Features to be observed while writing the review of a movie

26. The differentiation between Source Language (SL) and Target Language (TL).

27. Explain Mother Tongue Interference (MTI)

28. Write down your arguments favouring the topic at a symposium: “Craze for Gold – is it

justifiable?”

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following questions, each in about 100 words: 29. You have witnessed an accident on your way to college. A reporter has come to interview you

about the same. Compose a possible conversation between yourself and the reporter.

30. Write a report of the “Kerala Day” celebrations in your college.

31. Write a letter to the District Collector complaining about the unethical waste disposal practiced

by people in your locality.

32. Prepare a CV for applying to the post of an office assistant in a local school.

33. Explain the idiom “step into one‟s shoes” in your words.

34. Describe your visit to a hill station.

35. Imagine you are going to compere of a film fare award programme. How would you introduce

the various items of entertainment of the programme?

36. Write the minutes of the meeting of the office bearers of English Literary Association convened

to chalk out its activities for the academic year.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two questions, each in about 300 words:

37. Review of a film you have seen / a book you have read.

38. Explain some of the qualities that are highly appreciated in an interviewee while appearing for

an interview.

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39. Translate the following Malayalam passage into English:

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course VIII - FILM STUDIES: EN 1543

SCHEME OF EVALUATION

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below;

1. Attendance - 1 weight

2. Assignments /Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments)

3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two)

Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

Time: 3 Hours

Total Weights: 30

The exam contains four types of questions

I. Four bunches of objective type questions containing 16 questions.

(1 weight for each bunch. Total - 4 weights)

All questions are to be answered. The questions will be based on all four modules

II. Twelve short answer type questions out of which students should answer any 8, each in about

one or two sentences.

(Each question carries 1 weight. Total 1× 8 = 8 weights)

The questions will be based on all four modules.

III. Eight short essays/ paragraph type questions, out of which students should answer five in

about hundred words.

(Each question carries a weightage of 2.

Total 2 × 5 = 10 weights)

The question will be based on all four modules.

IV. Long essays.

(Each question carries a weightage of 4. Total 4 × 2 = 8 Weights)

Students should write two essays out of three in about three hundred words each.

The essays will be based on modules two to four.

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SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course VIII - FILM STUDIES: EN 1543

Model Question Paper

Time: Three Hours Weightage: 30

I. Choose the correct answer:

A. 1. Who invented the cinematograph --------------

a. Lumiere Brothers b. Edison c. Chaplin d. Muybridge

2. The first ‘movie’ was shown in the year ----------

a. 1895 b. 1890 c. 1912 d. 1906

3. Montage is a technique in ------------

a. Film editing b. Filming c. Film Viewing d. Film theory

4. Mise-en-scene literally means ---------------

a. Put in the scene b. Painting c. Cinematography d. Camera angle

B. 5. The first Indian film show was held in the year -----------

a. 1896 b. 1900 c. 1910 d. 1920

6. Dhundiraj Govind Phalke directed the film --------------

a. Raja Harishchandra b. Pundalik c. Sujatha d. Manzil

7. ‘Duniya Na Mane’ was directed by

a. V.Shantaram b.Mehboob Khan c. Dhiren Ganguli d. Madan

8. ‘Balan’ was directed by name ----------------

a. Nottani b. J C Daniel c. T R Sundaram d. Aleppey Vincent

C. 9. If words are the basic units of literature, in film it is -----------

a. image b. screen c. actors d. None of these

10. Both film and literature are

a. Representational arts b. Performing arts

c. Elite forms of art d. None of these

11. Two different time frames can be employed in the narrative of

a. Both literature and cinema b. Cinema

c. Literature d. Only documentary films

12. A literary work describes a scene while a film ------------- it.

a. depicts b. deconstructs c. imagines d. makes an illusion of

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D. 13. Rashomon was directed by ------------

a. Akira Kurosawa b. John Ford c. Yasujiro Ozu d. Eisenstein

14. The character of Chembankunju in Chemmeen was played by-------------

a. Kottarakkara Sreedharan Nair b. Sathyan

c. Kottayam Chellappan d. Madhu

15. My Fair Lady is an adaptation of a play by----------------

a. George Bernard Shaw b. William Shakespeare

c. Oscar Wilde d. Thomas Middleton

16. My Fair Lady is a -------------

a. Musical b. Hollywood suspense thriller

c. Film noir d. Classic Western

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. The hybrid nature of films.

18. The 1950s as the golden age of Indian Cinema.

19. Name some directors of the Indian New wave.

20. The Soviet Montage theory.

21. German Expressionism

22. Realism and cinema.

23. Professor Higgins.

24. Genre films.

25. The Western.

26. Musicals

27. The contributions of Phalke to Indian cinema.

28. Sound effects.

(Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five, each in about 100 words:

29. The notion of authorship in film and novel.

30. Fidelity in adaptation

31. Compression of time in films.

32. Comment on the title Chemmeen.

33. Sheela as Karuthamma

34. Satyajit Ray and the Indian New Wave Cinema.

35. The features of Italian Neorealism.

36. Multiple narratives in Rashomon.

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about 300 words:

37. Comment on the adaptation of Thakazhi’s Chemmeen from fiction into film.

38. How is literary language different from and similar to film language?

39. What are the contemporary trends in Malayalam Cinema?

(Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System) - Group 2 (a)

Core Course VII - INDIAN LITERATURE IN ENGLISH: EN 1542

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below; 1. Attendance - 1 weight 2. Assignments /Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments) 3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two) Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions

Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers Eight out of twelve from all the four modules

(Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs Five out of eight from all the four modules

(Each to be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays Two out of three from all the four modules.

(Each to be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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SEMESTER V

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a) IN ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH

Core Course VII - INDIAN LITERATURE IN ENGLISH: EN 1542

Model Question Paper

Time: Three Hours Weightage: 30 I. Choose the correct answer A. 1. Who among the following wrote the Introduction to the English edition of Gitanjali ?

a. Ezra Pound 2. W.B. Yeats 3. W.H. Auden 4. T. S. Eliot 2. Toru Dutt’s Ancient Ballads and Legends is based on .................. a. French mythology b. Indian mythology c. Classical mythology d. Christian mythology 3. Who among the following is a confessional poet? a. Sarojini Naidu b. Toru Dutt c. Kamala Das d. A. K. Ramanujan 4. Which critic asked Sarojini Naidu to concentrate on Indian themes?

a. Edmund Gosse b. Aurobindo c. David Daiches d. none of these. B. 5. The poem ‘The Lotus’ is in the form of -----

a. Petrarchan sonnet b. Shakespearian sonnet c. an Ode d. apostrophe.

6. Raja Rao, R. K. Narayan and ............... are considered as the founding fathers of Indian English fiction.

a. Amitav Ghosh b. K.A. Abbas c. Mulk Raj Anand d. Raja Ram Mohan Roy 7. Which among the following is not a work by Ramanujan?

a. The Striders b. Relations c. The Interior Landscape d. The Four Quartets.

8. What is the last wish of the poet’s mother in Dawn at Puri? a. To live in Puri b. To die in Puri c. To be cremated in Puri d. none of these.

C.9. In Hayavadana, who transposes the heads of Devadatta and Kapila? a. Bhagavata b. Hayavadana c. Padmini d. None of these. 10. The central episode in Hayavadana is based on The Transposed Heads by ………… a. Karnad b. A.K.Ramanujan c. Thomas Mann d. None of the above. 11. How does Bhagavata describe Vighneswara? a. The destroyer of obstacles b. holy one c. omnipotent d. None of the above. 12. The place of action in Hayavadana is the city of ................ a. Dharmapura b. Mathura c. Mysore d. None of the above. D. 13. Nehru’s journeys and visits gave him an insight into India’s …………..

a. Antiquity b. architecture c. pilgrimages d. religions

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14. The only country, according to Nehru, having a continuity of tradition other than India is............ a.China b. Indonesia c. Cambodia d. Iran.

15. The place where the protagonist in The Legends of Khasak halts from the bus.............. a. Madras b. Ayemanam. c. Koomankavu.. d. None of the above. 16. Malgudi provides the setting for .............. a. “The Astrologer’s Day”. c.“The Barber’s Trade Union”. b. “Glory at Twilight”. d. None of the above.

(Weightage 1x 4 = 4) II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. The central theme of “The Lotus.” 18. Comment on the visual imagery of the poem ‘The Lotus’ 19. The celebration of the Festival of Dawn. 20. Comment on the theme of the poem, The 'Bird Sanctuary' 21. The reasons, according to Tagore, for the need to surrender his strength to God’s will. 22. Imagery in Ramanujan’s “A River.” 23. The problem referred to at the end of Act I of Hayavadana. 24. The ending of Hayavadana. 25. Aurobindo’s satiric description of Homer’s writing of his epics. 26. The reasons the patriot states in saying that ancient Indian wisdom is ‘hundred percent correct’. 27. The gravest problem, according to Radhakrishnan, faced by the leaders of the world. 28. Symbolism in “Glory at Twilight.”

(Weightage 1 x 8 = 8) III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. Nissim Ezekiel’s recreation of the Indian social scenario in his poem. 30. Compare the attitude of the new and old poets towards the floods as seen in “A River”. 31. The presentation of the death figure in the poem “Dawn at Puri”. 32. Significance of the subplot in Hayavadana. 33. The significance of the pilgrimage of the protagonist in The Legends of Khasak. 34. Radhakrishnan’s concept of education. 35. Nehru’s account of India’s intimate contact with other countries in the past. 36. Narayan’s use of humour in “An Astrologer’s Day.”

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words. 37. Evaluate the salient features of poem “The Patriot”.

38. Comment on Hayavadana as a play revealing the ambiguous nature of human personality. 39. What is the ideal Radhakrishnan place before the youth?

(Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course IX - LINGUISTICS AND PHONETICS: EN 1544

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers Eight out of twelve from all the four modules (Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs Five out of eight from all the four modules (Each to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays Two out of three from modules two to four. (Each to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER V

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course IX - LINGUISTICS AND PHONETICS: EN 1544

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1) A study of the changes in a language during its evolution is …………. a. Synchronic b. Phonetic c. Diachronic d. Semantic 2) The word ‘toilet’ is an example for ……… a. Euphemism b. Euphuism c. Eulogy d. Clipping 3) Two sounds that are in contrastive distribution are ……….. a. Allophones b. Phonemes c. Sonorants d. Morphemes 4) A morph that realizes a particular morpheme and is phonetically, lexically or grammatically

conditioned is a …………. a. Phoneme b. Allomorph c. Allophone d. Derivative B. 5) …........... was a linguist who emphasized the study of language from a structural point of view. a. Dell Hymes b. Saussure c. Noam Chomsky d. Leonard Bloomfield 6) Which of the following is a content word? a. that b. pretty c. between d. through 7) Which word is an example for affixation? a. daughter b. faster c. shelter d. master 8) What would you call the space between the vocal cords? a. Epiglottis b. Pharynx c. Windpipe d. Glottis C. 9) Which of the following is not a nasal sound? a. /tʃ/ b. /n/ c. /ŋ/ d. /m/ 10) Which of the following a voiced sound? a. /f / b. /s/ c. /d/ d. /k/ 11) A ………….. is a vowel-glide to a more prominent sound in the same syllable. a. Diphthong b. Semi-vowel c. Cardinal vowel d. Frictionless continuant

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12) In which syllable does the word ‘introduction’ have the stress. a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth D. 13) Which one of these words is spelt in the American manner. a. image b. honour c. Programme d. Neighbor 14) …………………. is the word for the change of one sound into another sound due to the influence of

neighbouring sounds. a. Assimilation b. Syncope c. Apocope d. Dissimilation 15) In which one of the following word would you find a zero modification? a. Sheep b. Feet c. Walked d. Slept 16) Cockney is an example for ……….. a. a dialect b. an accent c. a register d. a style

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17) Define the term 'Creole'. 18) Define ‘phonological conditioning’. 19) Transcribe the following words and mark primary stress: 1. Communism 2. Introduction 3. Example 4. Refugee. 20) Give a short note on Linking ‘r’. 21) Inflection and derivation. 22) Innateness hypothesis. 23) Explain the notion of ‘code switching’. 24) Explain ‘registers’. 25) Define ‘allomorph’. 26) Give two examples for dialects. 27) Explain ‘tone groups’. 28) The semantic process behind the word ‘modem’.

(I x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following words in about one hundred words: 29) Explain the human speech mechanism. 30) The concept of “Cardinal Vowels”. 31) Explain the process of ‘syncopation’. 32) Coherence and cohesion. 33) Explain the varieties of English. 34) Write briefly on Contrastive Analysis. 35) Two examples for ICT having an impact on English language. 36) Explain the concept of ‘interlanguage’.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights) IV. Answer any two of the following in about three hundred words each:

37) Explain how Immediate Constituent Analysis helps to describe the way sentences and their constituents are structured.

38) Attempt an essay on the chief similarities and dissimilarities between British English and Indian English.

39) Write an essay on the different ways of classifying morphemes. (4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER V

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE Core Course VI - LITERARY CRITICISM: EN 1541

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a) ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH

Core Course VI - LITERARY CRITICISM: CG 1541

Time: Three hours Weightage 30 I. Multiple Choice

Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four modules (Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four modules (Each to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays

Two out of three from modules two to four. (Each to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER V

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE Core Course VI - LITERARY CRITICISM: EN 1541

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a) ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH

Core Course VI - LITERARY CRITICISM: CG 1541

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hours Total weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the correct answer A. 1. Mimesis means.................... a. imitation b. purgation theory c. pleasure principle d. Imagination

2. Longinus is the author of.................... a. Poetics b. Sublime in Literature c. On the Sublime d. Theory and Practice 3. Which famous work discusses the concept of decorum? a. Republic b. Ars Poetica c. Defence of Poesie d. Tragedy 4. .............. is considered to be the soul of tragedy. a. Plot b. Thought c. Character d. Action B. 5. The alternate title of Defence of Poesie a. Poetry and Criticism b. An Argument for Poetry c. Poetic Defence d. An Apology for Poetry

6. Dr.Johnson defended................... a. Shakespeare’s character b. the use of classical mythology in Shakespeare’s plays c. the mixing of comic and tragic genres in Shakespeare’s plays d. Shakespeare’s use of history 7. Stephen Gosson criticised ............. in his work, School of Abuse. a. critics b. poets c. novelists d. philosophers

8. Who among the following are the speakers in Dryden’s Essay of Dramatic Poesy? a. Crites and Neander c. Theocritus and Ovid b. Leander and Oliver d. Eugenius and Plato C.9. Lyrical Ballads was published in a. 1799 b. 1800 c. 1797 d. 1798

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10. According to Coleridge,.................. is associated with the “mysterious power of the mind.” a. will power b. Intuition c. imagination d. fancy 11. The Touchstone method is advocated by a. Eliot b. Arnold c. Coleridge d. Blake 12. Wordsworth believed that poetic diction should be a. archaic b. obscure c. easy and understandable d. figurative D.13. In the essay, “Tradition and Individual Talent” Eliot talks about a. historic sense b. poetic sense c. organic sense d. logical sense 14. Who among the following is a New Critic? a. Louis Althusser b. Jacques Derrida c. Roman Jakobson d. Allen Tate 15. Northrop Frye is a practitioner of................. a. Archetypal criticism b. New Criticism c. Psychoanalysis d. Deconstruction 16. Of Grammatology is a work written by a. Spivak b. Foucault c. Derrida d. Brooks (Weightage 1x 4 = 4) II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. Plato’s concept of poetry. 18. The sources of sublime. 19. Differance. 20. Different types of imagination. 21. Arnold’s concept of culture. 22. Dissociation of sensibility. 23. Defamiliarization. 24. Parts of tragedy. 25. Johnson’s Lives of Poets. 26. Sidney’s concept of poetry. 27. Moralistic Criticism. 28. Dryden’s neo-classicism.

(Weightage 1x 8 = 8) III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. Catharsis 30. Decorum in Literature. 31. Basic tenets of New Criticism. 32. Objective correlative. 33. Johnson’s Shakespearean criticism. 34. Sidney’s views on poetry. 35. Differentiate between fancy and imagination. 36. Define high seriousness. (Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words.

37. Aristotle’s views on tragedy. 38. Dryden’s critical opinions. 39. Wordsworth and Romanticism. (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System) ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

SEMESTER V

Open Course I - THEATRE STUDIES: EN 1551.2

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30 I. Multiple Choice 16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set. Weightage 1x 4 = 4 II. Short Answers 8 out of 12 from first three Modules (Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8 III. Short Essays or Paragraphs 5 out of 8 from first three Modules (Questions to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10 IV. Long Essays 2 out of 3 from first three Modules (Questions to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System) ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

SEMESTER V

Open Course I - THEATRE STUDIES: EN 1551.2

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30 I. Choose the correct answer A. 1. According to Aristotle, tragic pleasure arouses the emotions of…………… a. pity and envy b. misery and sympathy c. envy and pride d. pity and fear

2. Peripety refers to……….. a. commotion b. discovery c. change d. consequence 3. Apollonian nature is contrasted with…………..

a. Euripedian nature b. Hellenic nature c. Aeschylean nature d. Dionysian nature

4. The chorus…………..

a. comments on the action of the play c. performs difficult actions b. praises the author d. stages a play within a play

B. 5. In Elizabethan drama, the role of women were enacted by………… a. young women b. young men c. children d. middle aged women

6. Which rasa is considered to be the ninth rasa? a. santa b. sringara c. karunam d. lasyam 7. Vidushaka in Kutiyattam enacts the role of…………… a. hero b. villain c. jester d. supernatural deity

8. Chakyar Kuthu is also known as…………….. a. Prabandha kuthu b. Purusharta Kuthu c. Nangiar kuthu d. Mantrankam Kuthu C. 9. Kathakali literally means……………. a. story performance b. story action c. song play d. story play 10. In Kathakali, the internal state of a character is referred to as……………. a. rasa b. bhava c. mudra d. guna 11. Which among the following is an absurd play? a. Endgame b. Murder in the Cathedral c. Pygmalion d. Tempest

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12. In order to attain the alienation effect, Brecht made use of …………… a. subjective narrator b. dominant narrator c. detached narrator d. sympathetic narrator D. 13. The Problem play was popularised by…………… a. Ibsen b. Beckett c. Wesker d. Brecht 14. Who among the following wrote Nagamandala? a. Kambar b. Karnad c. Tagore d. Kalidasa 15. Radio play is also known as……………. a. audio drama b. popular drama c. folk drama d. epic drama 16. Poetic drama usually employs………….. a. alexandrine and free verse c. free verse b. blank verse and alexandrine d. blank verse and free verse (Weightage 1x 4 = 4) II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. Importance of Seneca. 18. The concept of mimesis. 19. Explain ‘folk theatre’ 20. Alienation effect. 21. Jacobean theatre 22. Relevance of metatheatre. 23. The three unities. 24. Chorus in Classical drama. 25. Nangiar koothu. 26. Rasa in Indian drama. 27. Explain ‘poetic drama’. 28. Major dramatists associated with modern Indian theatre.

(Weightage 1x 8 = 8) III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words:

29. Kalidasa and Bhasa. 30. Catharsis. 31. Restoration Theatre. 32. Miracles and Mysteries. 33. Postcolonial theatre. 34. Dialogue in Kathakali performance. 35. Epic theatre and its practitioners 36. Existentialism and the Theatre of the Absurd.

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10) IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words:

37. Elizabethan stage and its conventions. 38. A critical analysis of Poetics. 39. Twentieth century Indian theatre. (Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SEMESTER VI

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course XI - WORLD CLASSICS: EN 1641

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below:

1. Attendance - 1 weight

2. Assignments/Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments)

3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two)

Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

TIME: 3 HOURS TOTAL WEIGHTS: 30

The exam contains four types of questions:

I. Four bunches of objective type questions containing 16 questions.

(1 weight for each bunch. Total - 4 weights)

All questions are to be answered.

(Bunch A is from Module I, B from Module 2, C from Module 3 and D from Module 4)

II. Twelve short answer type questions out of which students should answer 8 in one or two sentences.

(Each question carries 1 weight. Total 1× 8 = 8 weights)

The questions will be based on all four modules.

III. Eight short essays/ paragraph type questions.

Students should answer five, each in about hundred words.

(Each question carries a weightage of 2.

Total 2 × 5 = 10 weights)

The question will be based on all four modules.

IV. Long essays.

(Each question carries a weightage of 4. Total 4 × 2 = 8 Weights)

Students should write two essays out of three in about three hundred words each.

The essays will be based on modules two, three and four

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

Core Course XI - WORLD CLASSICS: EN 1641

Semester VI

Model Question Paper

Time 3 Hours Total weight: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following

A) 1. Homer‟s Iliad is an __________.

a. elegy b. epic c. epilogue d. ode

2. Who is the author of Lysistrata?

a. Sophocles b. Aeschylus c. Aristophanes d. Euripides

3. Bhasa‟s _______________ is based on Mahabharata.

a. Karna-bhara b. Pratima-nataka

c. Abhisheka-nataka d. Abhijnanasakuntalam

4. __________ is an example of a modern classic.

a. Aeneid b. The Frogs c. The Divine Comedy d. Animal Farm

B) 5. Which among the following is Kalidas‟s epic?

a.Raghuvamsam b. Mrichchhakatika c. Ritusamharam d. Gita Govinda

6. Ritusamhara literally translated means --------------

a. The Seasons. c. The Gathering of the Seasons

b. The Cloud Messanger d. None of these.

7. How many Indian seasons are depicted in the Ritusamhara?

a. two b. four c. twelve d. six

8. Which is the last season portrayed in the Ritusamhara?

a. spring b. summer c. autumn d. winter

C) 9. Sophocles‟ Antigone is based on a _________ legend.

a. Theban b. Latin c. Spanish d. Persian

10. Who among the following is a character in Sophocles‟ Antigone?

a. Phaedra. b. Haemon c. Ulysses d. Oedipus

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11. The daughter of Oedipus in Antigone -----------

a. Iphigenia. b. Eurydice. c. Antigone. d. Jocasta

12. The Chorus in Antigone is constituted by the ----------------

a. Thebans. b. Theban singers. c. Theban women. d. Theban elders.

D) 13. Who is the narrator in Zorba the Greek?

a. Alexis Zorba b. the young Greek intellectual

c. Stavridakis d. Kazantzakis

14. The modern classic which is set in Piracus __________.

a. Siddhartha. b. War and Peace. c. Zorba the Greek. d. The Canterbury Tales.

15. Who among the following is not a Russian?

a. Gogol. b. Pushkin. c. Hesse. d. Tolstoy.

16. . What is the major theme of The Death of Ivan Ilyich?

a. corruption b. class struggle c. violence d. meaning of life and death

(1x 4 = 4 weights)

II Answer any eight of the following questions in about one or two sentences each.

17. What is a classic?

18. What are pseudo classics?

19. Modern classics.

20. Name the seasons mentioned in Ritusamhara.

21. In Ritusamhara, what is the effect of summer on animals?

22. The moon as depicted in Canto1of Ritusamhara.

23. The role of the first messenger in Antigone.

24. The visualisation of the lovers in the opening of Canto1of Ritusamhara.

25. The tragic flaw of Creon.

26. Name any two plays of Sophocles.

27. Why does the young Greek intellectual leave for Crete?

28. Suspense in The Death of Ivan Ilyich.

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III Answer any five of the following in about one hundred words.

29. Fictional classics

30. The role of the Chorus in Antigone.

31. The character of Ismene

32. The dramatic significance of the Prologue in Antigone

33. Family as a predominant theme in The Death of Ivan Ilyich.

34. What does Ivan Ilyich realise on his deathbed?

35. What is the young Greek intellectual‟s impression about Alexis Zorba?

36. The role of the narrator in Zorba the Greek.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

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IV Answer any two of the following in about three hundred words each.

37. In Kalidasa, love and nature are entwined. Evaluate with reference to the depiction of the summer season

in Ritusamhara.

38. Assess Creon as a tragic hero.

39. Analyse the central theme in Tolstoy‟s The Death of Ivan Ilyich.

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Core Course XII

20th

CENTURY MALAYALAM LITERATURE IN ENGLISH TRANSLATION: EN 1642

Semester VI

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below:

1. Attendance - 1 weight

2. Assignments/Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments)

3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two)

Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

TIME: 3 HOURS TOTAL WEIGHTS: 30

The exam contains four types of questions:

I. Four bunches of objective type questions containing 16 questions.

(1 weight for each bunch. Total - 4 weights)

All questions are to be answered.

(Bunch A is from Module I, B from Module 2, C from Module 3 and D from Module 4)

II. Twelve short answer type questions out of which students should answer 8 in one or two sentences.

(Each question carries 1 weight. Total 1× 8 = 8 weights)

The questions will be based on all four modules.

III. Eight short essays/ paragraph type questions.

Students should answer five, each in about hundred words.

(Each question carries a weightage of 2.

Total 2 × 5 = 10 weights)

The question will be based on all four modules.

IV. Long essays.

(Each question carries a weightage of 4. Total 4 × 2 = 8 Weights)

Students should write two essays out of three in about three hundred words each.

The essays will be based on modules two to three.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Core Course XII

20th

CENTURY MALAYALAM LITERATURE IN ENGLISH TRANSLATION: EN 1642

Semester 6

Model Question Paper

Time 3 Hours Total weight: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following

A. 1. The two great Malayalam novelists considered as the most powerful spokesmen of the end of the 19th

century are O. Chandu Menon of Malabar and …………. of Travancore.

a. C. Kunhiraman Menon b. C.V. Raman Pillai c. V.C. Balakrishna Panikkar d. Appu Nedungadi

2. The grand poetic trinity of the 20th century renaissance in Malayalam poetry consisted of Asan, Ulloor and …..

a. Vallathol b. Cherusseri. c. Ezhuthachan d. Kunchan Nambiar.

3. A. Balakrishna Pillai‟s translation of Ibsen‟s play ……….. into Malayalam in 1936 heralded a significant

development in Malayalam drama in the 1930s.

a. Peer Gynt. b. Ghosts c. A Doll's House d. The Master Builder.

4. Among the 20th century Malayalam short story writers, …………….., whose representative work is Prakasam

Parathunna Penkutty, remained faithful to the genre without venturing into longer fiction.

a. T. Padmanabhan b. Madhavikutty c. O.V. Vijayan ` d. M.T. Vasudevan Nair

B. 5. Satchidanandan‟s poem “How to go to the Tao Temple” is dedicated to ………..

a. Jawaharlal Nehru. b. D.R. Nagaraj. c. U.R. Anandamoorthy d. B.R. Ambedkar.

6. The narrator of the poem “The Story of the Axe” ……….

a. Valmiki. b. Parasurama. c Lord Shiva. d. Balamani Amma.

7. “The Son of Sahayan” recollects the happy days of the protagonist in ………..

a. the forest of Sahya. b. the zoo. c. the plains of Wayanad. d. the mountains of Sahya.

8. “The Autograph Tree” contains memories of the poet‟s reference to …………

a. Indian customs and legends. b. English life and legends.

c. Greek life and legends. d. Irish life and legends.

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C. 9. The setting for M.T. Vasudevan Nair‟s novella Mist ............

a. Nainital. b. Coorg. c. Wayanad. d. Himalayas.

10. The name of Raghu‟s wife in Roots……….

a. Ammulu b. Geetha c. Suma d. Saraswathy

11. Raghu decided to sell his home in the village and build a new one at ………….

a. Mysore. b. Trivandrum. c. Kochi. d. Calicut.

12. “In the Moonlit Land” is a modern short story by ………..

a. Chandramati. b. C. Ayyappan. c. Gracy. d. Ashitha

D. 13. The lines that appear at the beginning of Kanchana Sita is believed to be recited by ……….

a. Kalidasa. b Vyasa. c. Valmiki. d. Sriraman.

14. The heroine of Kanchana Sita appears in the ………..

a. end of Act 1. b. beginning of Act 2. c. end of Act 2. d. end of the play.

15. “Aswamedham” is a ………… sacrifice performed by the ancient kings to prove their sovereignty.

a. horse. b. fire. c. flower. d. water.

16. „Rishyamookam‟ is the ……….. where Hanuman first met Sriraman in Sugreevan‟s kingdom.

a. city. b. riverside. c. forest. d. mountain.

(1x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. The opening of O.N.V. Kurup‟s poem.

18. Significance of the last line in Balamani Amma‟s poem: “In the bare foot that was placed on his

head”

19. How does the narrator in Vailoppilli‟s poem become a victim of his own fantasy?

20. Characteristics of postmodernism in “The Advent”

21. Symbolism in The Mist.

22. The significance of the title of Malayattoor‟s Roots.

23. The outcome of the encounter between the protagonist and the young girl in Padmanabhan‟s story.

24. The significance of the wooden cradles in Lalithambika Antharjanam‟s story.

25. Comment on the ending of “The (Postmodern) story of Jyoti Viswanath”

26. The central concern in “The Vein of Memory”

27. The role of Sita.

28. The character Vashishta.

. (1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. The poet‟s sense of despair on meaningless relationships in “Where is John?

30. The symbol of the bell in Sugathakumari‟s poem.

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31. The poet‟s deep interest in Tamil culture as seen in “Lay of the Anklet”

32. The ending of “In the Flood”

33. Humour in Vaikom Muhammad Basheer‟s story.

34. The purpose of introducing the story-within-story technique in “The Last Show”

35. Comment on the title The Mist.

36. The role of Ammulu in Roots.

. (2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words.

37. How far is “A Requiem to Mother Earth” an address of the issue of mutual coexistence?

38. Analyse the central theme of Malayattoor‟s Roots.

39. How far does the dramatist succeed in presenting Kanchana Sita a re-telling of the Ramayana story?

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH (CBCSS)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

CORE COURSE XIII: ENGLISH FOR THE MEDIA - EN 1643

Semester VI

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice

16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set.

(4 bunches each from Modules 1, 2, 3 and 4. 4+4+4+4 = 16 questions) Weightage 1x 4= 4

II. Short Answers

8 out of 12 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 60 words) Weightage 1 x 8 = 8

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs

5 out of 8 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 100 words) Weightage 2 x 5 = 10

IV. Long Essays

2 out of 3 from all the four Modules

(Questions to be answered in about 300 words) Weightage 4 x 2 = 8

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

Semester VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH (CBCSS)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

CORE COURSE XIII: ENGLISH FOR THE MEDIA - EN 1643

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 hrs Weightage 30

I. Choose the correct answer

A) 1. Uncommon words used by the tabloid press are called . . . . . . . . . . . .

a. tabloidese b. tabloid scoop c. taboo d. tabs

2. Short lines of text on the front cover of magazines that grab the reader‟s attention are called . . . . . . .

a. headlines b. quotes c. coverlines d. quips

3. „Slang‟ may be defined as . . . . . . . . . .

a. archaic words and expressions b. offensive statements

c. foreign words used in the media d. informal words that are more popular in spoken

language

4. What kinds of words are normally omitted from newspaper headlines?

a. nouns and verbs b. articles and pronouns

c. adjectives and nouns d. adverbs

B) 5. What is a „news list‟?

a. List of stories to be included in a programme. b. List of news readers.

c. List of anchors and their credentials. d. List of news channels.

6. A sentence that gives the paraphrase of the main idea in a paragraph is called . . . . . . . . . . .

a. main clause b. statement c. topic sentence d. ideal sentence

7. Compiling sequences and scenes in a film can be termed as . . . . . . . . . .

a. launching b. casting c. tracking d. editing

8. „Live‟ does not collocate with

a. coverage b. broadcast c. show d. crew

C) 9. „Hyperlink‟ is a . . . . . . . . . .

a. homepage b. link to another web document c. domain name d. link to design a website

10. „Blogs‟ can be classified as . . . . . . . . . .

a. Old media b. Development media c. New Media d. Conventional Media

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11. Which of the following does not match?

a. Podcast-Digital Media b.Website-Google.com

c. New Media-Magazines d.Old Media-Radio

12. In Podcast, words like „so‟ and „ok‟ signify . . . . . . . . . .

a. a strategy to move the conversation forward b. agreement

c. genuine admiration d. the speaker‟s apathy

D) 13. A copywriter is a person who . . . . . . . . . .

a. writes the minutes of a meeting b. writes the words for ads

c. assists the editor d. edits news.

14. The contact report usually adopts the layout of . . . . . . . . .

a. informal letter b. travel document c. formal letter d. blog entry

15. In advertising, „SS‟ stands for . . . . . . . . . .

a. shooting storyboard b. super story c. sequence setting d. slow shot

16. What kinds of words are used in ad slogans so as to suggest the audience‟s identification with the

product?

a. personal pronouns b. adverbs c. jargon d. strong words

(Weightage 1 x 4 = 4)

II. Answer any eight of the following, each in about sixty words.

17. What is meant by house style?

18. Convert into a headline:

The first phase of the campaign against mosquitoes and dengue in the capital city was

inaugurated by the Chief Minister.

19. Identify two linguistic features used to make this coverline effective:

Eat COOL to beat the summer heat!

20. Correct the following:

a)You are listening at All India Radio. Welcome on the Morning News.

b) Could you mind checking this story for accuracy? Submit your report from two days.

21. What is meant by running order?

22. Explain the concept of „voice-over‟.

23. Who is a stringer?

24. What is media convergence?

25. Mention the main features of a website?

26. What do you mean by the term „podcast‟?

27. What are the two types of media campaign that are used to sell products?

28. Create one slogan each for ads that sell: (i) fairness cream (ii) chocolate.

(Weightage 1 x 8 = 8)

III. Answer any five of the following, each in about hundred words.

29. Discuss the language devices adopted by newspapers to create catchy headlines?

30. Prepare four coverlines each for (i) a women‟s magazine and (ii) a parenting magazine.

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31. Prepare a news list for a popular radio station that lays equal emphasis on entertainment and news

value.

32. Write a brief for a photo shoot on „The Backwaters of Kerala‟ for a travel magazine.

33. Write a screenplay for a short scene that involves a family at a restaurant, deciding and ordering food.

34. Discuss the power and vulnerability of New Media.

35. Fill in the blanks using the following words: need to, shall, be, should, would, will

Designer: I assume you want a site that . . . . . . . . . . enable you to sell your product online.

Customer: That‟s right. I . . . . . . . . . . showcase our stock.

Designer: What domain name . . . . . . . . . . you like to have?

Customer: Frankly, I‟ve no idea. But, I . . . . . . . . . . like to keep it simple.

Designer: I think you . . . . . . . . . . use the web-hosting services of XYZ Company.

Customer: My virtual store would . . . . . . . . . . in good hands?

Designer: Yes. They . . . . . . . . . . take care of all the technical matters.

Customer: That‟s good. So, . . . . . . . . . . we talk of what to include in my web shop?

36. Develop a true life story from the hints provided in brackets:

(Deer leaps before Steve‟s car – slams into tree – smoke – Coogan witnesses – calls emergency –

rushes to car – door jammed – breaks window – pulls Steve out – petrol tank explodes – Steve

hospitalised – Coogan treated for bruised elbow – “My angel,” says Steve – bravery award for

Coogan)

(Weightage 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. Answer any two, each in about three hundred words.

37. Write a newspaper article that focuses on „Youth and Violence‟ and give an appropriate headline.

38. Write a review of a film you have recently watched.

39. Write a blog on „Social networking sites and their influence on the youth.‟

(Weightage 4 x 2 = 8)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE - Core Course XIV: EN 1644

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a) IN

ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH - Core Course XI - CG 1642

WOMEN’S WRITING

Time: Three hours Weightage 30

I. Multiple Choice

Four bunches from each of the four modules: 4 x 4 = 16 questions

Weightage 1 x 4 = 4.

II. Short Answers

Eight out of twelve from all the four modules

(Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each)

Weightage 1 x 8 = 8.

III. Short Essays or Paragraphs

Five out of eight from all the four modules

(Each to be answered in about 100 words)

Weightage 2 x 5 = 10.

IV. Long Essays

Two out of three from any of the four modules.

(Each to be answered in about 300 words)

Weightage 4 x 2 = 8.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS System)

Common for

ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE - Core Course XIV: EN 1644

&

CAREER-RELATED FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME (CBCS) - Group 2 (a) IN

ENGLISH & COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH - Core Course XI - CG 1642

WOMEN’S WRITING

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 Hours Total Weights: 30

Answer all questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. Virginia Woolf was a member of the ……………. of writers.

a. Post colonial group c. Bloomsbury group

b. Confessional group d. Black Power movement.

2. Currer Bell is the pseudonym of ……………….

a. Emily Bronte b. Nina Simone c. Mary Ann Evans d. Charlotte Bronte

3. The name of Alice Walker‟s mother ………….

a. Minnie Lou b. Bessie Smith c. Phillis Wheatley d. Elizabeth Catlett

4. Jasbir Jain in her essay on Indian Feminism discusses the works of Nayantara Sahgal, Anita Desai,

Shashi Deshpande and ………..

a. Veena Das b. Githa Hariharan c. Arundhathi Roy d. Kamala Markandaya

B. 5. The figure of speech employed by Elizabeth Browning in the line “The limpid water turbidly ran”……

a. Simile b. Synecdoche c. Metaphor d. Oxymoron

6. The poet quoted in Marianne Moore‟s poem ………….

a. W. B. Yeats b. T. S. Eliot c. John Dryden d. John Milton

7. “This is Number Three” in Plath‟s poem indicates…………..

a. The third decade in the poet‟s life b. The Nazi concentration camp.

c. The third attempt to commit suicide d. The speaker‟s number in the hospital records.

8. “I am not that Woman” is written by …………..

a. Kishwar Naheed b. Adrienne Rich c. Margaret Atwood d. Sumiti Namjoshi

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C. 9. . The „fly‟ in Katherine Mansfield‟s story represents……………

a. Man‟s helplessness in the hands of Fate b. Mr. Woodifield who is controlled by his family

c. An insect killed by the Boss d. The Boss who finally comes to terms with his loss.

10. The woman writer in “Inside Every Woman Writer” decided to go to …………..

a. Her parental house. b. The Writer‟s Workshop. c. Aunt Mable‟s house d. Purushothaman‟s house

11. The Christmas gift that changed Meimei‟s life..…………..

a. The chess set that Vincent got. b. The twelve pack of Life savers she got.

c. The box of intricate plastic parts Winston got d. The colouring book her friend got.

12. The meaning of the name “Meimei” ………………

a. Little Sister b. Little Child c. Young Daughter d. Little Friend

D. 13. “Molly and James” is set in………….

a. Washington b. Paris c. London d. Dublin

14. The meeting between Molly and James takes place on ………..

a. 12 August b. 21 August c. Before 12 August d. Before 21 August

15. Mamta Sagar‟s play is based on her work translated from …………….

a. Kannada b. Hindi c. Telugu d. Bengali

16. The name of the central woman character in “The Swing of Desire”

a. Manasa b. Bhava c. Meimei d. Sheila Walsh

(1x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. The use of male pseudonyms according to Virginia Woolf.

18. The two essential conditions, referred to in A Room of One’s Own, for a woman to be a writer.

19. Jasbir Jain‟s comments on the two Indian epics.

20. The significance of the „tigers‟ in the panel in Adrienne Rich‟s poem.

21. Margaret Atwood‟s account of the victimization of women during war.

22. The significance of the „grass blade‟ in Suniti Namjoshi‟s poem.

23. The major concerns in Katherine Mansfield‟s “The Fly”.

24. Sitabhai‟s remarks about fences in Shashi Deshpande‟s story

25. The expectations of the writer at Aunt Mable‟s house.

26. The significance of the title “Rules of the Game”.

27. The purpose of James‟ visit to Molly‟s house.

28. The reasons listed by the dramatist Mamta Sagar for Bhava‟s dissatisfaction.

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Write on any five of the following in about 100 words each:

29. Significance of the title “In Search of our Mother‟s Garden”

30. Anita Desai‟s depiction of motherhood.

31. Comment on the dual nature of art as depicted in the poem “Pan”

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32. The various forces at work, according to Marianne Moore, in the creation of good poetry.

33. The various in tone made use of by the poet in “Lady Lazarus”

34. Kishwar Naheed‟s expression of her anger against the objectification of the female body.

35. The oppressive circumstances faced by women writers both as a wife and as a mother, according to

Sarah Joseph.

36. The ending of Mamta Sagar‟s play.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two of the following, each in about 300 words:

37. Virginia Woolf‟s attempt to expose the double standards in the society and the unequal treatment

towards women artists.

38. Analyse Sylvia Plath as a confessional poet, with reference to “Lady Lazarus”

39. “Molly and James” as a subversive reworking of the concluding part of Joyce‟s novel from a

woman‟s perspective.

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EVALUATION

SEMESTER VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course – TRANSLATION STUDIES: EN 1661.1

CONTINUOUS EVALUATION (INTERNALS) (CE)

Weights to be distributed on a five points scale as shown below;

1. Attendance - 1 weight

2. Assignments/Seminar - 1 weight (minimum two assignments)

3. Test paper - 2 weights (minimum two)

Total = 4 weights

END SEMESTER EVALUATION

External Written Exam to be conducted by the University

TIME: 3 HOURS TOTAL WEIGHTS: 30

The exam contains four types of questions:

I. Four bunches of objective type questions containing 16 questions.

(1 weight for each bunch. Total - 4 weights)

All questions are to be answered. The questions will be based on modules 1, 2, and 4.

II. Twelve short answer type questions out of which students should answer any 8, each in one or

two sentences. (Each question carries 1 weight. Total 1× 8 = 8 weights)

The questions will be based on modules 1 and 2.

III. Eight short essays/paragraph type questions, out of which students should answer five in about

hundred words. (Each question carries a weightage of 2.

Total 2 ×5 = 10 weights)

The question will be based on modules 1, 2, and 3.

IV. Long essays. (Each question carries a weightage of 4. Total 4 × 2 = 8 Weights)

Students should write two essays out of three in about three hundred words each. The essays will be

based on the 4th module.

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SEMESTER VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course – TRANSLATION STUDIES: EN 1661.1

Model Question Paper

Time 3 Hours Total Weight: 30

Answer all Questions

I. Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1. Who translated Adyatma Ramayana into Malayalam?

a. Valmiki b. A. R. Raja Raja Varma c. Kunjan Nambiar d. Ezhuthachan

2. ............... is a form of translation wherein a human translator creates a target text with the assistance of

a computer program.

a. Computer Assisted Translation c. Software Translation

b. Programmed Translation d. Technical Writing

3. ...................... deal with the systematic study of the theory, the description and the application of

translation.

a. Linguistics b. Translation theories c. Translation Studies d. Technology-aided Translation.

B. 4. ............... is a central concept of translation.

a. Skill b. Langue c. Equivalence d. Perfection

5. ............... is the extent to which a translation accurately renders the meaning of the Source Text

without distortion.

a. Translatability b. Faithfulness c. Transparency d. None of these

6. ............... is A. R. Rajaraja Varma‟s translation of Kalidasa‟s Abhijnana Shakuntalam.

a. Malayala Shakuntalam c. Manipravala Shakuntalam

b. Abhijnana Shakuntalam d. Keraliya Bhashashakuntalam

7. ............... is the rendering of text from one language to another “word-for-word” rather than conveying

the sense of the original.

a. Technical Translation b. Legal Translation c. Literal Translation d. Machine Translation

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8. The language from which a text is translated is known as the ...............

a. Target Language b. Source Language c. Mother Tongue d. First Language

C. Identify the Malayalam equivalent of the following words:

9. Tale. a. b. c. d.

10. Breeze a. b. c. d.

11. Synonym. a. b. c. d.

12. Skill a. b. c. d

D. Identify the English equivalent of the following words:

13.

a. style b. diction c. theme d. language 14.

a. imply b. explain c. detail d. tell 15.

a. poor b. evil c. wrong d. sin 16.

a. retort b. symbol c. wait d. parallel

(1x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. Define translation.

18. Distinguish between „metaphrase‟ and „paraphrase.‟

19. Types of translation.

20. Hermann Gundert‟s role in the history of translation in Malayalam.

21. Point out the significance of „decoding‟ and „recoding‟ in translation.

22. Define „afterlife.‟

23. Explain the term „untranslatability‟.

24. Explain Cultural translation.

25. Define Target Language.

26. Explain „transparency‟ in translation.

27. Name a few tools employed in technology aided translation.

28. Explain Intralingual translation.

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

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III. Answer any five of the following in about one hundred words:

29. Explain briefly the central issues in translation.

30. The Linguistic Perspective in translation.

31. Some of the major problems encountered in translation.

32. Identify the role of translation in enriching Malayalam literature.

33. Paraphrase into English:

a.

b.

c.

d.

34. Paraphrase the following idioms into Malayalam:

a. A blessing in disguise

b. Actions speak louder than words

c. Back to square one

d. Every cloud has a silver lining.

35. Paraphrase the following proverbs into Malayalam:

a. A friend in need is a friend indeed.

b. A man is only as old as he feels.

c. As you sow, so shall you reap.

d. Barking dogs seldom bite.

36. Critically analyse the text below and comment on the extent to which translation has succeeded

in conveying the sense originally expressed in the Source Language:

My dear Saramma,

How does my dear comrade spend this all too brief phase of existence when life is

bubbling with youth and the heart is fragrant with love?

As for me, my life passes moment by moment in the love of Saramma. And you,

Saramma? Begging of you to think it over well and reward me with a sweet, kind reply,

Saramma‟s own,

Kesavan Nayar.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Translate any two of the following into Malayalam:

37. The earliest form of Indian drama was the Sanskrit drama. It began after the development of Greek

and Roman drama and before the development of theatre in other parts of Asia. It emerged

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sometime between the 2nd century BC and the 1st century AD and flourished between the 1st

century AD and the 10th, which was a period of relative peace in the history of India during which

hundreds of plays were written. With the Islamic conquests that began in the 10th and 11th

centuries, theatre was discouraged or forbidden entirely. Later, in an attempt to re-assert indigenous

values and ideas, village theatre was encouraged across the subcontinent, developing in a large

number of regional languages from the 15th to the 19th centuries. Modern Indian theatre developed

during the period of the colonial rule under the British Empire, from the mid-19th century until the

mid-20th.

38. Despite all problems, India still holds the best chance for saving the tiger in the wild. Tigers occur

in 17 States within the Republic of India, with 7 States reportedly having populations in excess of

100 tigers. There are still areas with relatively large tiger populations and extensive tracts of

protected habitat. Adequate funding and international pressure will help. But probably the most

effective way to implement tiger conservation action in India today is to enhance NGO

participation. There are a number of dedicated organisations that are effectively involved in tiger

conservation. They keep the issue energized on a national level and tenaciously try to increase

political will to secure the tiger‟s future. The Indian conservation and scientific community is now a

proven force. It needs to be strengthened.

39. With a total length of 346 km (215 mi), the Thames is the longest river in England and the second

longest in the United Kingdom. It rises at Thames Head in Gloucestershire, and flows into the North

Sea at the Thames Estuary. The river contains over 80 islands, and having both seawater and

freshwater stretches, it supports a variety of wildlife. The river has supported human activity from

its source to its mouth for thousands of years providing habitation, water power, food and drink. It

has also acted as a major highway through the Port of London for international trade, internally

along its length and by its connection to the British canal system. The river‟s strategic position has

seen it at the centre of many events and fashions in British history, earning it a description by John

Burns as “Liquid History”.

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SEMESTER VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course - COPY-EDITING: EN 1661.2

Time: Three Hours Weights 30

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE

16 multiple choice questions in 4 sets, with 4 bunches in each set. All questions are to be answered.

(A- part is from module 1, B is from module 2, C from module 3 and D from module 4).

(Weights 1 x 4 = 4)

II. SHORT ANSWERS

Twelve questions from all the four modules. Choose any eight questions and answer them in about one or

two sentences each.

(Weights 1 x 8 = 8)

III. SHORT ESSAYS or PARAGRAPHS

Eight questions from all the four modules. Answer any five of them in about 100 words.

(Weights 2 x 5 = 10)

IV. LONG ESSAYS

The three questions under this section are taken from all the four modules. Answer any two of them in about

300 words.

(Weights 4 x 2 = 8)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

SEMESTER VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE (CBCS System)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course - COPY-EDITING: EN 1661.2

Model Question Paper

Time: Three Hours Weights 30

I. Choose the correct answer:

A. 1.Which among the following comes under copy-editing?

a. binding b. formatting

c. printing d. publishing

2. The written or typewritten text for typesetting, printing or publication is called _______

a. copy b. paper

c. book d. thesis

3. _____ is the last process in the editorial cycle.

a. printing b. reporting

c. proofreading d. None of these

4. The typewritten copy of a manuscript especially intended for use as printer‟s copy is called _______

a. typescript b. manual

c. proof d. copy

B. 5. Which among the following falls under copyright?

a. distribution b. quoting

c. reading d. none of these

6. Illustration is a tool of ________

a. vocabulary b. syntax

c. visualization d. formatting

7. A blurb is usually found on the _________ of a book.

a. front cover b.back cover

c. inside cover d. None of these

8. Correcting inconsistencies falls under ______________

a. reporting b. publishing

c. printing d. proofreading

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C. 9. Expand PTI

a. Print and Text Industry b. Popular Television in India

c. Press Trust of India d. Periodicals Trust of India

10. Identify the ambiguous statement.

a. They can fish. b. He is queer.

c. I was lulled to sleep. d. They never cut a deal.

11. Parentheses means ________

a. single inverted coma b. brackets

c. semi-colon d. exclamation mark

12. _______ is a key element in copy editing.

a. printing machine b. in-house-style manual

c. newsprint paper d. reporting

D. 13. What does „MLA‟ in MLA Handbook stand for?

a. Modern Law Association b. Member of Legislative Assembly

c. Modern Linguistics Association d. Modern Language Association

14. Identify the erratic statement.

a. I bought a cake of soap. b.He moved the furnitures.

c. The sheep are black. d. It rained cats and dogs.

15. Identify the direct object in the sentence „He bought me an umbrella.‟

a. He b. bought

c. an umbrella d. me

16. Identify the wrongly spelt word.

a. immaturity b. senario

c. triangular d. dialogue

(1×4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following, each in about sixty words

17. What are the features of indexing?

18. Mention the various types of typescripts.

19. What is copyright?

20. Explain cross reference.

21. What is scanning?

22. Copy editing blurbs and covers

23. Explain multi-authorship.

24. What is an in-house style manual?

25. Bibliographical references of scientific books

26. What is substantive edit?

27. Explain online proofreading.

28. What are the five C‟s?

(1 x 8 = 8 weights)

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III. Answer any five of the following, each in about 100 words

29. Examine the problems of ambiguity.

30. Conversion of manuscripts.

31. Software tools.

32. Use of MLA handbook.

33. Proof reading

34. Acknowledgments and legal issues.

35. Including illustrations.

36. Copy editor

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

IV. Answer any two, each in about 300 words

37. Why is copy editing considered a multi-faceted job?

38. What are the various levels of editing?

39. Explain free lance proof reading.

(4 x 2 = 8 weights)

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH (CBCSS)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course - CREATIVE WRITING: EN 1661.3

Semester VI

Time: Three Hours Weights 30

I MULTIPLE CHOICE

16 multiple choice Questions in 4 sets, each set containing 4 bunches.

Questions from all the four modules.

(Weights 1 x 4 = 4)

(Questions from within the syllabus to test general understanding)

II SHORT ANSWERS

Twelve questions, answer any eight.

Questions from all the four modules.

(Questions to be answered in about one or two sentences each)

(Weights 1 x 8 = 8)

III SHORT ESSAYS or PARAGRAPHS

Eight questions, answer any five.

Questions from all the four modules.

(Each question to be answered in about 100 words)

(Weights 2 x 5 = 10)

IV LONG ESSAYS

Three questions with sub-divisions, answer any two.

Questions from modules 1, 2 & 4. This includes one question on critical appreciation of a comparatively

simple (unseen) poem and one on creative writing [to write a short story/poem in two pages/15-20 lines on a

reasonably simple topic]

(Each question to be answered in about 300 words)

(Weights 4 x 2 = 8)

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA

Semester VI

FIRST DEGREE PROGRAMME IN ENGLISH (CBCSS)

B.A. ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

Elective Course - CREATIVE WRITING: EN 1661.3

Model Question Paper

Time: 3 Hours Total Weights:

30

Answer all questions

I Choose the best option in each of the following:

A. 1.Which among these poetic forms has only 14 lines?

a. Ballad b. Sonnet c. Ode d. Epic.

2. The sonnet form was introduced into English Literature by …….

a. Milton b. Wordsworth c. Shakespeare d. Wyatt and Surrey

3. “I Heard a Fly Buzz When I Died” is a poem by ……….

a. Kamala Das b. Edgar Allan Poe c. Tagore d. Emily Dickinson

4. Keats‟ Grecian Urn is an example for ……….

a. a sonnet b. an elegy c. an ode d. a lyric

B. 5. Name the author of “The Voter” …..…….

a. Wole Soyinka b. Chinua Achebe c. Ruskin Bond d. None of these.

6. …………. is the only epic in English.

a. The Rape of the Lock b. Canterbury Tales c. Paradise Lost d. Paradise Regained

7. Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in ………

a. 1911 b. 1912 c. 1913 d. 1914

8. The author of The Chronicles of Narnia: The Lion, the Witch and the Wardrobe……. a. R.K.Narayan b. R.L. Stevenson c. Jules Verne d. C.S. Lewis

C. 9. The poet who wrote “The Tiger” ………..

a. Burns b. Blake c. Collins d. Gray

10. To which country does Wole Soyinka belong?

a. India b. Africa c. Australia d. None of these.

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11. The poet who introduced the dramatic monologue into English poetry ……….

a. Philip Larkin b. Robert Browning c. John Keats d. Elizabeth Barrett Browning

12. The famous Indian short story writer popularly referred to as the “Indian Chekhov” ……….

a. Ruskin Bond b. Mulk Raj Anand c. R. K. Narayan d. K. A. Abbas

D. 13. Who among the following is a contemporary fiction writer?

a. Lewis Carroll b. Khyrunnisa A c. H.G. Wells d. R.L.Stevenson.

14. Which among these literary works has/have been made into films:

(1) Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde, (2) Time Machine, (3) 20,000 Leagues Under the Sea?

a. Only 1 b. Both 1 & 2 c. 1, 2 & 3. d. None of these.

15. The author of Time Machine …………..

a. Jules Verne b. R. L. Stevenson c. Issac Assimov d. H. G. Wells.

16. ………. created the fictional character Sherlock Holmes

a. Agathe Christe b. Edgar Allan Poe c. A. C. Doyle d. Alfred Hithcock

(1 x 4 = 4 weights)

II. Answer any eight of the following questions, each in about one or two sentences:

17. What is “Subjective Poetry”?

18. Give two reasons why animal stories are popular.

19. Tagore‟s Gitanjali.

20. Major features of an epic.

21. Sonnet.

22. What is a Satire?

23. Explain “Mock epic”. Give an example.

24. Highlight any two dominant aspects of Kamala Das‟ poems.

25. The theme of Emily Dickinson‟s “I Heard a Fly Buzz When I Died”.

26. State three reasons why short stories are popular.

27. Give any two predominant features of the stories of O‟Henry.

28. Explain any four aspects of a film that a good reviewer must focus upon.

(I x 8 = 8 weights)

III. Answer any five of the following, each in about one hundred words:

29. The major Nature poets in English.

30. Predominant native themes in Indian English poetry.

31. Contributions of any two prominent Indian English short story writers.

32. The short story vs the novel.

33. Popular themes for children‟s fiction.

34. Science fiction as a branch of literature.

35. Science fiction and films.

36. Contributions of A. C. Doyle.

(2 x 5 = 10 weights)

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IV. Answer any two of the following, each in about three hundred words:

37. Review a recently released English movie.

38. Make a review of a recently published book in English.

39. Attempt a short story in about two pages, or a poem of about 30 lines, on the theme “Mother‟s day”.

(4 x 2= 8 weights)