your launchpad for success - officers...

61, Basement, Near Darshan Dhaba, Old Rajinder Nagar Market, New Delhi

THE OFFICERSCLASSESYour Launchpad for Success

MENTORSHIP BY UPSC SELECTED CANDIDATES

PRACTICE TEST PAPER

t.me/theofficersclasses

Join our telegram channel

Q1. Which of the following factors may

cause inflation?

1. Rise in prices of petrol

2. Appreciation in the value of the

rupee

3. Increase in bond yields

4. Fall in interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) None of the above

Q2. The interest rate paid by Government of

India on its debt shall rise if

1. Inflation increases

2. Fiscal deficit increases

3. Ratings agencies increase India’s

rating

4. Exports fall


given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Q3. Currently base year for calculating GDP

is ?

(a) 2008-09

(b) 2010-11

(c) 2011-12

(d) 2007-08

Q4. What is “Predatory pricing”?

(a) Substantially undervaluing a

company to evade taxes

(b) Pricing of goods at a low level so

that other firms are forced to leave

the market

(c) Price paid for smugglers for buying

endangered predators

(d) Price of goods produced by Chinese

State owned companies

Q5. ICRA and CRISIL are ?

(a) Rating agencies

(b) Systemically important Non Banking

Financial Companies

(c) Non-Systemically important Non

Banking Financial Companies

(d) Payments Banks

Q6. Inflation is described as a regressive

form of taxation because,

(a) it affects exports and makes imports

attractive

(b) it leads to devaluation of the

currency

(c) it may cause recession

(d) it affects the poor and vulnerable

sections more

Q7. There has been a persistent deficit

budget year after year. Which of the

following actions can be taken by the

government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure

2. Introducing new welfare schemes

3. Rationalizing subsidies

4. Expanding industries


given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) All of the above

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are

correct regarding the ‘Monetary Policy

Committee (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark

interest rates.

2. It is a 12-member body including the

Governor of RBI and is reconstituted

every year.

3. It functions under the chairmanship

of the Union Finance Minister.


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q9. What is “Nominal rate” of economic

growth?

(a) Growth rate which includes growth in

nominal exports

(b) Growth rate which excludes inflation

(c) Growth rate which excludes growth

in nominal exports

(d) Growth rate which includes Inflation

Q10. What is “Nominal rate” of economic

growth?

(a) Growth rate which includes growth in

nominal exports

(b) Growth rate which excludes inflation

(c) Growth rate which excludes growth

in nominal exports

(d) Growth rate which includes Inflation

Q11. Terms of trade’ between agriculture

and industry has reference to

(a) Relative price movements between

the two sectors

(b) Relative quantities of production in

the two sectors

(c) The extent of trade existent between

the two sectors

(d) Relative international valuation of

the agricultural produce in contrast

to the industrial produce

Q12. With reference to inflation in India,

which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the

responsibility of the Government of

India only

(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no

role in controlling the inflation

(c) Decreased money circulation helps

in controlling the inflation

(d) Increased money circulation helps in

controlling the inflation

Q13. Which of the following statements

is/are true with respect to the protection

against preventive detention guaranteed

under Article 22?

1. The statement legislatures have

exclusive authority to make a law for

preventive detention for reasons

connected with the security of

statement and maintenance of public

order.

2. The Parliament has exclusive

authority to make a law for

preventive detention for reasons

connected with defence, foreign

affairs and security of India.


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. Which of the flowing statements is/are

correct with regard to Article 32?

1. It is the basic feature of the Indian

Constitution

2. The Chief Justice of India can

empower the High Court to issue

writs of all kinds

3. The right to move to the Supreme

Court shall never be suspended


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q15. Which of the following features of the

Indian Constitution have been borrowed

from the Government of India Act of 1935?

1. Parliamentary government and the

Rule of Law.

2. Emergency provisions and

administrative details

3. Parliamentary privileges and

bicameralism

4. Federal Scheme and Office of the

Governor.


below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Q16. Which of the following is/are implied in

the context of teh word ‘sovereign’ in the

Preamble?

1. India is an independent state

2. India can acquire foreign territory.

3. India can cede a part of its territory

in favour of a foreign state.


below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q17. ‘To separate the judiciary from the

executive in the public services of the State’

is a Directive principle under which of the

flowing articles of the Indian constitution?

(a) Article 48

(b) Article 49

(c) Article 50

(d) Article 51

Q18. Consider the following:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of

India can be initiated by the

introduction of a bill in the Lok

Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to

make changes in the federal

character of the Constitution, the

amendment also requires to be

ratified by the legislature of all the

States of India.

Which of the statement s given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Which of the following represent the

views of the Supreme court on Indian

federalism?

1. Federalism is the ‘basic feature’ of

the Indian constitution.

2. The States have an independent

constitutional existence

3. Federalism in the Indian Constitution

is a matter of administrative

convenience.


given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q20. Which of the following is a

non-responsible, fixed executive system of

government?

1. Presidential system

2. Parliamentary system


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Which of the following statements

is/are correct about the Controller General

of Accounts (CGA)?

1. It is the Principal Advisor on

Accounting matters to the Union

Government.

2. It comes under the Office of

Comptroller and Auditor General of

India

3. It is responsible for the preparation

of the accounts of the Union

Government.


given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q22. Consider the following:

1. The term ‘Anglo Indian’ is defined in

the Indian Constitution

2. Article 331 empowers the President

to nominate 2 Anglo Indians to the

Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. In the context of the ‘Council of

Ministers’ consider the following:

1. The Constitution doesn’t envisage a

situation where there will be no

Council of Ministers

2. Even after the dissolution of the Lok

Sabha, the President is bound by

the advice of the Council of

Ministers.

3. Exercise of powers of the President

without the advice of the Council of

Ministers shall be unconstitutional.


correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q24. The Prime Minister of India, at the time

of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member

of one of Houses of the Parliament

but must become a member of one

of the Houses within six months

(b) need not necessarily be a member

of one of the Houses of the

Parliament but must become a

member of the Lok Sabha within six

months

(c) must be a member of one of the

Houses of the Parliament

(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Q25. Amendment to which of the following

schedules of the Indian Constitution is

outside the scope of article 368?

1. Second Schedule

2. Fifth Schedule

3. Sixth Schedule

4. Seventh Schedule


given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q26. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the

Centre shall be collectively

responsible to the Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the

office during the pleasure of the

President of India

3. The Prime Minister shall

communicate to the President about

the proposals for legislation.


correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q27. Which of the following statement is

correct with respect to the impeachment

resolution of the President of India?

(a) It needs to be passed by a two-thirds

majority of the total membership of

the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

separately.

(b) It needs to be passed by a two thirds

majority of the total membership of

the Lok Sabha only

(c) It needs to be passed by a majority

of two-third of the total members

present and voting and 50% of the

total membership of both the houses

of the Parliament individually.

(d) It needs to be passed by a majority

of two-third of the total members

present and voting and 50% of the

total membership of only the houses

initiating the resolution.

Q28. In the context of the Pardoning Power

of the President, consider the following

statements:

1. President can pardon a death

sentence given under a state law.

2. The President sits as a court of

appeal while exercising this power.

3. The petitioner has no right to an oral

hearing by the President.


correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q29. Who among the following makes rules

for the more convenient transaction of the

business of the Government?

1. President

2. Prime Minister

3. Prime Minister’s office

4. Cabinet Secretary


given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 4 only

Q30. The Parliament of India acquires the

power to legislate on any item in the State

List in the national interest if a resolution to

that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its

total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less

than two-thirds of its total

membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of

its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not

less than two-third of its members

present and voting

Q31. Which of the following promote(s)

fiscal federalism in the country?

1. Finance Commission

2. Goods and Services Tax

3. GST Council

Select the correct option using the code

given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q32. Local self-government can be best

explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(c) Administrative delegation

(d) Direct democracy

Q33. With reference to the functions of the

Finance Commission of India, which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. It provides grants in aid to needy

states as per Article 282 of the

Indian Constitution.

2. It divides the proceeds of taxes

amongst the states as per Article

270 of the Constitution.

3. It recommends the state government

to improve the finances of

Panchayats.

Select the correct option using the code

given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q34. Which of the following is/are correct

about painted grey ware pottery

1. It is the type of pottery found during

later vedic period.

2. These are extremely fine to

touch,with a nice, smooth surface.

3. This pottery was common in use

during later vedic period.

Choose the correct option.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

Q35. Democracy in India has very deep

roots. Which of the following is /are correct

about it?

1. Janapadas, the land where the jana

set its foot, and settled down, were

ruled by elected Governments.

2. All Mahajanpdas were ruled by rajas

and people have say in the

government functioning.

3. Vajji, Mahajanpada with its capital at

Vaishali (Bihar), was under a form of

government, known as gana or

sangha where many men ruled

together.


(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q36. During Mauryan period, there were

three different kinds of people living in most

villages in the southern villages. Which of

the following is/are correct about it?

1. large landowners were known as

uzhavar

2. ordinary ploughmen were known as

vellalar

3. landless labourers, including slaves,

were known as kadaisiyar and

adimai.

Choose the correct option below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q37. Ring wells found during Mauryan

period were used for:

(a) Bathing

(b) Washing clothes

(c) Irrigation

(d) Drainage

Q38. ‘Buddhacharita’ the biography of the

Buddha, was written by:-

(a) Nagarjuna

(b) Ashvaghosha

(c) Kanishka

(d) Aananda

Q39. Which of the following is/are correct

about famous cartographer Al-Idrisi.

1. He was from Arab and visited India

during Akbar’s regime.

2. Maps drawn by him are almost

similar to the maps currently used.

3. He produced a compendium of

geographical information with the

title Kitab nuzhat al-mushtaq.


(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Q40. Consider the following statements -

1. In aquatic ecosystem, grazing food

chain is the major conduit of energy.

2. In terrestrial ecosystem, detritus

food chain is the major conduit of

energy.

Ans.

(a) Both 1 and 2 are true

(b) Both 1 and 2 are false

(c) Only 1 is true

(d) Only 1 is false


1. Around 60% of incident solar

radiation is Photosynthetically active

2. Plants capture 2-10 % of

photosynthetically active radiation

Ans.



(c) Only 1 is true

(d) Only 1 is false

Q42. Which of the following are examples of

Competition?

1. Abingdon tortoise got extinct after

introduction of goat due to better

grass browsing efficiency of goats.

2. Prickly pear cactus could be

controlled only after cactus-feeding

moth was introduced.

3. Survival of the fittest, as proposed

by Darwin

Ans.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Q43. Which was the decade of highest rate

of natural increase in population?

Ans.

(a) 1961-1971

(b) 1971-1981

(c) 1981-1991

(d) 1991-2001


1. Breaks in south-west monsoon are

only due to failing of rain-bearing

storms along the monsoon trough or

ITCZ.

2. In July, ITCZ shifts upto the

Narmada basin which pulls the trade

winds of southern hemisphere to the

North.

Ans.



(c) 1 is true, 2 is false

(d) 1 is false, 2 is true

Q45. Match the following

River Dam/Reservoir

1. Kaveri I- Hirakud

2. Godavari II- Nagarjun Sagar

3. Krishna III -Polavaram

4. Mahanadi IV-KrishnaRaja Sagar

Ans.

(a) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV

(b) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I

(c) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I

(d) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV

Q46. Find the odd one out.

1. Sun is over Tropic of cancer 2. Loos blow in North India 3. Western Disturbances causing rain

over Punjab 4. ITCZ shifts northwards

Ans.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q47. Which of the following are major automobile clusters in India?

(a) Chakan, Pune (b) Sanand, Gujarat (c) Chennai cluster (d) NCR, with Manesar and Gurugram

Ans.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All four are major clusters

Q48. Who among the following was not associated with Hindustan Socialist Republican Association?

Ans.

(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Sukhdev (c) Prafull Chaki

(d) Bhagwati Charan Vohra

Q49. Why was Lord Wellesley recalled from India by East India Company?

1. Company had incurred financial losses in ruinous wars

2. The threat of Napolean and thus, French had reduced

3. Company wanted to consolidate its gains of territory

Ans.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q50. Which of the following are true about urban working class of Britain in 18th and 19th century?

1. They enjoyed some of the best standards of living in the erstwhile world

2. Women and children had to work equally hard as men due to labour shortages

3. Sanitary systems were designed on modern scientific lines

Ans.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

your launchpad for success - officers...

Documents