2 spеcial neurology

Modul 2 Special neurology

Tests

1. A patient diagnosed with a tumor of the occipital lobe. Indicate which of the following symptoms may occur:

A. * visual agnosia

B. auditory agnosia

C. gustatory agnosia

D. avtotopahnoziya

E. astereohnoziya

2. A patient diagnosed with a tumor of the occipital lobe. Indicate which of the following symptoms may occur:

A. * visual agnosia

B. auditory agnosia

C. gustatory agnosia

D. avtotopahnoziya

E. astereohnoziya

3. Add a benign slowly growing intracranial tumor, which differs little from the brain tissue and has petrificates that are visible on kraniohrami

A. adenoma

B. * oligodendroglioma

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

4. Add a benign slowly growing intracranial tumor, which differs little from the brain tissue and has petrificates that are visible on kraniohrami

A. adenoma

B. * oligodendroglioma

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

5. Add a tumor of cranial and spinal nerves

A. adenoma

B. * neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

6. Add a tumor of cranial and spinal nerves

A. adenoma

B. * neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

7. Add a tumor of the meninges

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. * meningioma

E. astrocytoma

8. Add a tumor of the meninges

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. * meningioma

E. astrocytoma

9. Add a tumor that is localized in the region of the ventricles

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. * ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

10. Add a tumor that is localized in the region of the ventricles

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. * ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

11. At posterior horn lesion one can observe

A. Sensory disorders in certain dermatome on the same side

B. Sensory disorders in certain dermatome on the opposite side

C. * Disorders of pain and temperature sensation in certain dermatome on the same side

D. Disorders of pain and temperature sensation in certain dermatome on the opposite side

E. Disorders of deep sensation on the same side

12. Call tumor originating from the meninges:

A. astrocytoma

B. * meninheoma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. anhioretykuloma


A. astrocytoma

B. * arahnoendotelioma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. anhioretykuloma


A. astrocytoma

B. * meninheoma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. anhioretykuloma


A. astrocytoma

B. * arahnoendotelioma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. anhioretykuloma

16. Call tumor that originates from neuroectodermal embryonic layer:

A. arahnoendotelioma

B. meninheoma

C. * astrocytoma

D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma


A. * multiforme sponhioblastoma

B. meninheoma

C. arahnoyidendotelioma

D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma


A. anhioretykuloma

B. meninheoma

C. arahnoendotelioma

D. * medulloblastoma

E. adenoma


A. * neuromas

B. meninheoma


D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma


A. arahnoendotelioma

B. meninheoma

C. * astrocytoma

D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma


A. * multiforme sponhioblastoma

B. meninheoma

C. arahnoyidendotelioma

D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma


A. anhioretykuloma

B. meninheoma


D. * medulloblastoma

E. adenoma


A. * neuromas

B. meninheoma


D. anhioretykuloma

E. adenoma

24. Call tumor that originates in the brain vessels:

A. astrocytoma

B. meninheoma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. * anhioretykuloma

25. Call tumor that originates in the brain vessels:

A. astrocytoma

B. meninheoma

C. medulloblastoma

D. neuromas

E. * anhioretykuloma

26. Central paresis of arm usually develops at lesion of

A. * Middle part of precentral gyrus

B. Corona radiate

C. Pons

D. Decussation of pyramids

E. Spinal cord

27. Central paresis of leg usually develops at lesion of

A. * Upper part of precentral gyrus

B. Internal capsule

C. Pons

D. Midbrain

E. Oblong brain

28. First aid of epilepsy attack on the way to hospital contains of:

A. General anesthesia, digitalis drugs

B. Anesthesia with nitrous oxide, Magnesiii sulfas 25% 10.0 in 40% glucose

C. Tracheobronchial tree drain, Natrii tiopentali 1g in 10 ml of physiological solution

D. * To release breathing air ways, digitalis drugs, Sibazonum 0.01g

E. Sibazonum 30 ml in 150 ml of physiological solution, in 10 min we add the medication up to 100 – 120 mg

29. First aid of epilepsy attack on the way to hospital contains of:

A. General anesthesia, digitalis drugs

B. Anesthesia with nitrous oxide, Magnesiii sulfas 25% 10.0 in 40% glucose

C. Tracheobronchial tree drain, Natrii tiopentali 1g in 10 ml of physiological solution

D. * To release breathing air ways, digitalis drugs, Sibazonum 0.01g

E. Sibazonum 30 ml in 150 ml of physiological solution, in 10 min we add the medication up to 100 – 120 mg

30. First stage of general seizures called:

A. * Initial stage

B. Tonic stage

C. Clonic stage

D. Late stage

E. Recovery stage

31. General attacks includes:

A. * Absance, tonic-clonic attacks, general atonic attacks

B. Absance, automatisms, temporal pseudoabsance

C. Focal attacks with secondary generalization, myoclonic attacks

D. Adversive motor attack, general atonic attacks

E. Autonomic – visceral and Emotional – affective partial attacks

32. How is a benign tumor that grows in the posterior third ventricle and is more common in children?

A. * pinealoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

33. How is a benign tumor that grows in the posterior third ventricle and is more common in children?

A. * pinealoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

34. How is a benign, slow steady increase of tumor that can be localized in the frontal, temporal, parietal lobe or in the brain stem

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. * astrocytoma

35. How is a benign, slow steady increase of tumor that can be localized in the frontal, temporal, parietal lobe or in the brain stem

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. * astrocytoma

36. How long could last clonic stage of general seizures?

A. Several seconds

B. 10-20 seconds

C. * 30-40 seconds

D. 1-5 minutes

E. 5-15 minutes

37. How long could last early recovery stage of general seizures?

A. Several seconds

B. 10-20 seconds

C. 30-40 seconds

D. * 1-5 minutes

E. 5-15 minutes

38. How long could last initial stage of general seizures?

A. * Several seconds

B. 10-20 seconds

C. 30-40 seconds

D. 1-5 minutes

E. 5-15 minutes

39. How long could last late recovery stage of general seizures?

A. Several seconds

B. 10-20 seconds

C. 30-40 seconds

D. 1-5 minutes

E. * 5-15 minutes

40. How long could last tonic stage of general seizures?

A. Several seconds

B. * 10-20 seconds

C. 30-40 seconds

D. 1-5 minutes

E. 5-15 minutes

41. Lesion of Holl and Burdach pathways at C5 level on the right will cause disturbances of muscle-joint sense in

A. * Right arm and leg

B. Left arm

C. Left arm and leg

D. Right leg

E. Right arm

42. Lesion of Holl and Burdah pathway at Th12 level on right side leads to loss of joint sense:

A. A. In right arm and leg

B. B. In left arm

C. C. In left arm and leg

D. * In right leg

E. In right arm

43. Lesion of Holl and Burdah pathways at C4 level on right side leads to loss of joint sense:

A. * In right arm and leg

B. In a left arm

C. In left arm and leg

D. In a right foot

E. In a right arm

44. Lesion of Holl and Burdah pathways at C7 level on left side leads to loss of joint sense:

A. In right a arm and leg

B. In a left arm

C. * In left arm and leg

D. In a right foot

E. In a right arm

45. Lesion of medial loop in middle and upper parts of brain stem is associated with

A. * Hemianesthesia of all types of sensation on the left

B. Hemianesthesia of all types of sensation on the right

C. Hemianesthesia of superficial sensation on the left

D. Hemianesthesia of superficial sensation on the right

E. Hemianesthesia of deep sensation on the left

46. Lesion of what nervous structure can cause disorders of all types of sensation?

A. Posterior roots

B. Anterior soldering

C. * Medial loop

D. Posterior funicular of spinal cord

E. Lateral funicular of spinal cord

47. Lesion of what nervous structure can cause sensory disorders according to the segmental type?

A. Medial loop

B. Internal capsule

C. Thalamus

D. * Spinal ganglion

E. Peripheral nerve


A. Medial loop

B. Internal capsule

C. Thalamus

D. * Anterior white soldering

E. Peripheral nerve


A. * Posterior root

B. Internal capsule

C. Thalamus

D. Medial loop

E. Peripheral nerve

50. Localization of craniovertebral tumors:

A. On the level of upper cervical part of spinal cord

B. * On the level of foramen occipitalis

C. On the level of cervical thickness of spinal cord

D. On the level of thoracic part of spinal cord

E. On the level of lumbar thickness of spinal cord

51. Main characteristics of epilepsy as a disease are:

A. Recurrent epileptic attacks on the background of pathologic focus in brain

B. Recurrent epileptic attacks on the background of severe alcohol intoxication

C. * Recurrent attacks with various clinical signs on the background of epileptic focus and personality disorders between attacks

D. Recurrent epileptic attacks with out any pathologic focus in brain

E. Recurrent attacks with personality disorders between them/

52. Medicines that improve brain metabolism

A. Trentalum, Actovegini, Reosorbilakt

B. * Piracetami Actovegini, Cerebrolizini

C. Piracetami Actovegini, Euphyllini

D. Piracetami Actovegini, Ticlid

E. Piracetami Actovegini, Curantili

53. Most important method in diagnostic of epilepsy is:

A. USG

B. CT

C. MRI

D. * EEG

E. EchoEG

54. Most informative method in diagnostic of epilepsy is:

A. Doppler examination

B. CT-scan

C. MRI

D. * EEG

E. EchoEG

55. Myoclonic absentia is characterized by

A. Decreasing of postural tonus

B. Hanging head and sudden drops

C. * Loss of consciousness, rhythmic bilateral myoclonus

D. Jerks of eyelids, periorbital muscles and decreasing of postural tonus

E. Apnoe, cyanosis, small skin hemorrhages

56. Note that the below-named with supratentorial tumors relates to:

A. cerebellum

B. brainstem

C. * frontal lobe

D. bridge-cerebellar angle

E. IV ventricle


A. * parietal lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle


A. * temporal lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle


A. * occipital lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle


A. cerebellum

B. brainstem

C. * frontal lobe


E. IV ventricle


A. * parietal lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle


A. * temporal lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle


A. * occipital lobe

B. brainstem

C. cerebellum


E. IV ventricle

64. Note that with the below-named tumors refers to subtentorial:

A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * brainstem


A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * cerebellum


A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * bridge-cerebellar angle


A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * brainstem


A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * cerebellum


A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. temporal lobe

D. occipital lobe

E. * bridge-cerebellar angle

70. Patient existing motor apraxia. Where is the fire damage:

A. * left parietal lobe

B. right parietal lobe

C. left temporal lobe

D. right temporal lobe

E. thalamus

71. Patient existing motor apraxia. Where is the fire damage:


B. right parietal lobe



E. thalamus

72. Prenatal risk factors of epilepsy are:

A. Dehydration, toxins

B. * Infections – cytomegalovirus, rubella, toxoplasmosis, toxicosis of pregnancy

C. Metabolic disorders

D. Dehydration, toxins, diet disturbances

E. Disorders of brain function

73. Second stage of general seizures called:

A. Initial stage

B. * Tonic stage

C. Clonic stage

D. Late stage

E. Recovery stage

74. Seizures in a patient with a violent start turning your head and eyes, then - heneralizuyutsya. Specify the location of the pathological focus:

A. average department pretsentralnoyi gyrus

B. posterior inferior frontal gyrus

C. * posterior middle frontal gyrus

D. upper portion of the temporal lobe

E. convexital surface of the occipital lobe

75. Seizures in a patient with a violent start turning your head and eyes, then - heneralizuyutsya. Specify the location of the pathological focus:

A. average department pretsentralnoyi gyrus

B. posterior inferior frontal gyrus

C. * posterior middle frontal gyrus

D. upper portion of the temporal lobe

E. convexital surface of the occipital lobe

76. Specify the tumor, which are localized in the temporal lobe, and often through the corpus callosum germination in both hemispheres

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. * glioblastoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

77. Specify the tumor, which are localized in the temporal lobe, and often through the corpus callosum germination in both hemispheres

A. adenoma

B. neuromas

C. * glioblastoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

78. Specify which could be a fire damage if the patient observed metamorfopsiyi.

A. * occipital lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. left frontal lobe

E. right frontal lobe

79. Specify which could be a fire damage if the patient observed metamorfopsiyi.

A. * occipital lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. left frontal lobe


80. The clonic stage includes:

A. Apnoe, cyanosis, trismus

B. Extension of great toe

C. * Tongue biting, clonic vocalisation

D. Seizures involve all the muscles

E. Seizures dominates in the face

81. The development of epilepsy could be explaned with:

A. High level of Ca in blood

B. Extremaly low level of K in blood

C. * Disorders of K / Na pump

D. Disorders of Mg / Na pump

E. Disorders of balance between alaninum, GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

82. The early recovering stage includes:



C. Tongue biting, clonic vocalisation

D. Enlargement of pupils

E. * Seizures dominates in the face

83. The early recovering stage often finishing with:


B. * Muscles atonia






B. * Involuntary urination





A. * Midriasis

B. Apnoe, cyanosis, trismus






B. Tongue biting, clonic vocalisation

C. * Loss of consciousness



87. The initial stage can manifest as:

A. * Bilateral general muscle jerks


C. Extension of great toe

D. Tongue biting, clonic vocalisation






D. * Loss of consciousness






D. Seizures dominates in the face

E. * Autonomic changes





D. * Enlargement of pupils


91. The late recovering stage includes:

A. * Automatic behavior





92. The late recovering stage is characterised by:


B. * Decreasing of midriasis

C. Loss of consciousness




A. * Babinsky sign







B. * Automatic behavior






B. Loss of consciousness

C. * Complete amnesia



96. The main differential feature of complex focal attacks from simple is:

A. Involve other group of muscles

B. * Loss of consciousness

C. Presence of autonomic or psychiatric symptoms

D. Speech disorders or involuntary vocalization

E. Complex illusion or hallucinations

97. The main reasons for increasing intra-cranial pressure

A. weight of the tumor

B. cerebral edema

C. violation of the outflow of blood and CSF from the cranial cavity

D. malabsorption of CSF

E. * are numbered

98. The main reasons for increasing intra-cranial pressure

A. weight of the tumor

B. cerebral edema

C. violation of the outflow of blood and CSF from the cranial cavity

D. malabsorption of CSF

E. * are numbered

99. The most frequently age of beginning epilepsy is:

A. 20-40 years

B. Eldier than 40

C. * Under10-30 years

D. 40-60 years

E. Under 10 years

100. The patient developed visual agnosia. Specify which could be a fire damage:

A. left frontal lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. * occipital lobe


101. The patient developed visual agnosia. Specify which could be a fire damage:


B. temporal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. * occipital lobe


102. The tonic stage includes:




D. * Seizures involve all the muscles


103. Third stage of general seizures called:

A. Initial stage

B. Tonic stage

C. * Clonic stage

D. Late stage

E. Recovery stage

104. What is characteristic of tumor corpus callosum?

A. severe mental defects of memory impairment for recent and current events

B. Dementia

C. apraxia

D. paralysis of one-or two-sided

E. * all of the above is true

105. What is characteristic of tumor corpus callosum?

A. severe mental defects of memory impairment for recent and current events

B. Dementia

C. apraxia

D. paralysis of one-or two-sided

E. * all of the above is true

106. What is characteristic of tumor thalamus?

A. gross defects psyhikydementsiya

B. apraxia

C. paralysis of one-or two-sided

D. contralateral hemianesteziya with kauzalhichnymy pain

107. What is characteristic of tumor thalamus?

A. gross defects psyhikydementsiya

B. apraxia

C. paralysis of one-or two-sided

D. contralateral hemianesteziya with kauzalhichnymy pain

108. What is epileptic focus?

A. * A group of neurons with pathologic activity

B. A group of neurons with unability to enforce and spread the activity

C. A group of neurons without any signs of activity

D. A group of neurons with ability to enforce and spread normal activity

E. A. group of pathologic neurons without activity.

109. What is not typical for tumor subcortical nodes?

A. rapidly developing hypertension and dislocation syndromes

B. hyperkinesis

C. amiostatychnyy syndrome with plastic hypertension

D. hemiplegia, hemianesteziya, hemianopsia

E. * apraxia

110. What is not typical for tumor subcortical nodes?

A. rapidly developing hypertension and dislocation syndromes

B. hyperkinesis

C. amiostatychnyy syndrome with plastic hypertension

D. hemiplegia, hemianesteziya, hemianopsia

E. * apraxia

111. What is not typical for tumors of the occipital lobe?

A. * hyperkinesis

B. homonimna hemianopsia

C. Disorders of color vision

D. visual agnosia

E. metamorfopsiyi

112. What is not typical for tumors of the occipital lobe?

A. * hyperkinesis

B. homonimna hemianopsia

C. Disorders of color vision

D. visual agnosia

E. metamorfopsiyi

113. What is the earliest and the most reliable sign of gradual lesion of deep sensation pathway?

A. Sensitive ataxia

B. Pseudoathetosis

C. * Paresthesia

D. Seismhypesthesia

E. Batihypesthesia

114. What is the first stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. * radicular

B. Brown-sekarivskoho syndrome

C. complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord

D. segmental

E. initial

115. What is the first stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. * radicular



D. segmental

E. initial

116. What is the first stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. * segmental

E. initial

117. What is the first stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. * segmental

E. initial

118. What is the most important sign of sensitive ataxia?

A. Seismanesthesia

B. Decreased vibration sense

C. * Visual control

D. Tactile paresthesia

E. Gait disorders

119. What is the most reliable sign of cerebellar ataxia?

A. Wandering gait

B. * Intentional tremor

C. Instability in Romberg posture

D. Muscle hypotonia

E. Nystagmus

120. What is the reliable sign of Midbrain lesion?

A. * Parino syndrome

B. Hypersomnia

C. Amyostatic syndrome

D. Diplopia

E. Anizokoria

121. What is the reliable sign of partial extramedullar lesion of thoracic part of spinal cord?

A. Homolateral spastic leg paresis

B. * Circle-like radiculopathy

C. Contralateral hypalgesia

D. Homolateral sensitive ataxia

E. Homolateral bathianesthesia

122. What is the reliable sign of Pons’ lesion?

A. Central tetraparesis

B. * Alternating hypalgesia

C. Bilateral Babinski sign

D. Segmental hypalgesia on face

E. High reflexes on legs

123. What is the reliable sign of process localization in posterior horn of segment С8?

A. * Loss of extending elbow reflex

B. Paroxysmal migrating pain in arm

C. Hypalgesia in ulnar edge of hand and forearm

D. Anesthesia of elbow edge of hand and forearm

E. Paresis of adducting muscles of hand

124. What is the second stage of extramedullar tumor?

A. Radicular not expressed

B. * Broun-Sequar syndrome

C. Complete lesion of spinal cord

D. Segmental

E. Radicular

125. What is the second stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. radicular

B. * Brown-sekarivskoho syndrome


D. segmental

E. initial

126. What is the second stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. radicular

B. * Brown-sekarivskoho syndrome


D. segmental

E. initial

127. What is the second stage of intramedullar tumor?


B. Broun-Sequar syndrome

C. * Complete lesion of spinal cord

D. Segmental

E. Radicular

128. What is the second stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular


C. * complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord

D. segmental

E. radicular

129. What is the second stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. segmental

E. radicular

130. What is the sign of thalamus lesion?

A. * Hemianesthesia on the opposite side

B. Hemiplegia on the opposite side

C. Sensory Jackson

D. Monoanesthesia

E. Segmental dissociated anesthesia

131. What is the third stage of extramedullar tumor?



C. * Complete lesion of spinal cord

D. Segmental

E. Radicular

132. What is the third stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. segmental

E. initial

133. What is the third stage of extramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. segmental

E. initial

134. What is the third stage of intramedullar tumor?



C. Complete lesion of spinal cord

D. Segmental

E. * Radicular

135. What is the third stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. segmental

E. * radicular

136. What is the third stage of intramedullary tumors?

A. radicular



D. segmental

E. * radicular

137. What sign of thalamus lesion is topically the most reliable?

A. Hemianopsia

B. Hemiataxia

C. Hemianesthesia

D. * Hemialgia

E. Hemiambliopia

138. What type of epileptic attack belong to simple motor?

A. * Adversive

B. Automatisms

C. Dysmnestic

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Automatisms

B. Dysmnestic

C. * Postural

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Automatisms

B. * Focal motor with march

C. Dysmnestic

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Automatisms

B. Dysmnestic

C. Typical absence

D. * Focal motor without march

E. Myoclonic


A. Automatisms

B. Dysmnestic

C. Typical absence

D. * Phonatory simple

E. Myoclonic

143. What type of epileptic attack belong to simple with psychiatric disorders?

A. Adversive

B. Automatisms

C. * Dysmnestic

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Adversive

B. * Aphatic

C. Automatisms

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Adversive

B. Automatisms

C. Typical absence

D. * Hallucinatory

E. Myoclonic


A. Adversive

B. Automatisms

C. * Emotional-affective

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic


A. Adversive

B. * With thinking disturbances (ideatory)

C. Automatisms

D. Typical absence

E. Myoclonic

148. Where localized craniovertebral tumors:

A. level of verhnoshyynoho

B. * at occipital aperture

C. at the level of the cervical enlargement

D. at the level of the thoracic

E. at the level of lumbar enlargement

149. Where localized craniovertebral tumors:

A. level of verhnoshyynoho

B. * at occipital aperture

C. at the level of the cervical enlargement

D. at the level of the thoracic

E. at the level of lumbar enlargement

150. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors of the midbrain?

A. * Weber, Benedict.

B. Fovillya, Miyyara-Gubler

C. Jackson Avelisa, Schmidt

D. Schmidt, Wallenberg-Zakharchenko

E. Miyyara-Gubler, Jackson

151. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors bridge:

A. Weber, Benedict.

B. * Fovillya, Miyyara-Gubler




152. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors medulla?

A. Weber, Benedict.



D. * Schmidt, Wallenberg-Zakharchenko, Jackson Avelisa


153. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors of the midbrain?

A. * Weber, Benedict.





154. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors bridge:

A. Weber, Benedict.

B. * Fovillya, Miyyara-Gubler




155. Which alternating syndromes characterized by tumors medulla?

A. Weber, Benedict.



D. * Schmidt, Wallenberg-Zakharchenko, Jackson Avelisa


156. Which diagnostic method is most informative for verification of Subarachnoidite hemorrhage?

A. EchoEG

B. CT

C. * Lumbar puncture

D. Research of eye fundus

E. Ultrasound doplerography

157. Which diagnostic method is most informative for verification of stroke?

A. Echoencephaloskopy

B. Research of coagulative properties of blood

C. * CT-scan

D. Contrastic angiography

E. Ultrasound doplerography

158. Which medicine you should prescribe to prevent cerebral vessel spasm to patient with haemorrhage stroke?

A. * Nimotop

B. Actovegini

C. Dicinoni

D. EAFA

E. Actilaza

159. Which methods of examination are not informative in the diagnosis of tumors:

A. kraniohrafiya in two projections.

B. Echo EG

C. CT and MRI

D. EEG

E. * ENMH

160. Which methods of examination are not informative in the diagnosis of tumors:

A. kraniohrafiya in two projections.

B. Echo EG

C. CT and MRI

D. EEG

E. * ENMH

161. Which of the following signs is the most reliable symptom of posterior horns lesion?

A. Pain

B. Absent deep reflexes

C. Paresthesia

D. * Segmental hypalgesia

E. Dysesthesia

162. Which of tumors may have a cyst in different sizes?

A. * anhioretykuloma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

163. Which of tumors may have a cyst in different sizes?

A. * anhioretykuloma

B. neuromas

C. ependymoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

164. Which tumor grows from the remnants of Rathke pocket?

A. meninheoma

B. meninheoma

C. anhioretykuloma

D. * kraniofarinheoma

E. pinealoma

165. Which tumor grows from the remnants of Rathke pocket?

A. meninheoma

B. meninheoma

C. anhioretykuloma

D. * kraniofarinheoma

E. pinealoma

166. According to localization there are such forms of arachnoiditis except

A. Convex

B. Interpeduncular

C. optic – chiasmal

D. * Pontine

E. ponto – cerebellar

167. Anterior cerebral artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. * Paresis of distal part of lower extremity, symptoms of oral automatism, psychiatric disorders

B. Paresis of distal part of lower extremity, retention of urine, apraxia

C. Paresis of distal part of lower extremity, retention of urine, symptoms of oral automatism

D. Paresis of distal part of lower extremity, psychiatric disorders

E. Paresis of distal part of lower extremity, retention of urine, symptoms of oral automatism, psychiatric disorders

168. Artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. * Coma, alternating syndromes of Fowill or Miyar-Hyubler, pseudobulbar syndrome, cerebellar hemianopsia

B. Temporary consciouness disorders, visual disorders, vestibular and equilibrium disorders

C. Peripheral face paresis, opposite side – paresis of extremities and hemianesthesia

D. Weber syndrome, hypersomnia

E. Benedict, Rajmonda syndrome, vestibular ataxia

169. At chronic luetic meningitis usually is involved

A. * Visual nerve

B. Acoustical

C. Abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal

170. For arachnoiditis in ponto – cerebellar angel is typical everything except

A. ear noise

B. hypoakusis

C. dizziness

D. * Hypoosmia

E. prosoplegia

171. For convex arachnoiditis is typical everything except

A. Hemi - , mono- , paresis

B. Hemihypoesthesia

C. Jackson attack

D. * Hemianopsia

E. Headache

172. For optic – chiasmal arachnoiditis is typical everything except

A. Ambliopia

B. anopsia

C. Optic nerve atrophy

D. * Hypoakusis

E. Scotoma

173. How long the first stage of ALS does last?

A. * 2 – 3 years

B. 6 months – 2 years

C. 4 months – 2 years

D. 3 months – 1 year

E. 3 – 4 years

174. How long the forth stage of ALS does last?

A. 2 – 3 years



D. * 3 months – 1 year

E. 3 – 4 years

175. How long the second stage of ALS does last?

A. 2 – 3 years

B. * 6 months – 2 years



E. 3 – 4 years

176. How long the third stage of ALS does last?

A. 2 – 3 years


C. * 4 months – 2 years


E. 3 – 4 years

177. How many days do the paralytic stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis lasts?

A. 1 – 3 days

B. * 7 – 10 days

C. 2 – 3 weeks

D. 1 month

E. 6 months

178. How many days do the preparalytic stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis lasts?

A. * 1 – 3 days

B. 7 – 10 days

C. 2 – 3 weeks

D. 1 month

E. 6 months

179. If the internal carotid artery is occluded before ophthalmic artery:

A. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, gaze paresis, speech disorders

B. Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, pseudomelia

C. Hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, apraxia

D. * Alternal optic – hemiplegic syndrome

E. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymic hemianopsia

180. If the internal carotid artery is occluded before ophthalmic artery:


B. * Blindness, or visual disorders on the side of lesion and hemiparesis on opposite side

C. Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, pseudomelia

D. Hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, apraxia


181. If the internal carotid artery is occluded intracranial:

A. Blindness, or visual disorders on the right side and hemiparesis on the left one



D. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymic hemianopsia

E. * Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, well expressed general cerebral symptoms

182. If the left internal carotid artery is occluded before ophthalmic artery:





E. * Blindness, or visual disorders on the left side and hemiparesis on the right one

183. If the left middle cerebral artery main trunk is occluded:

A. * Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, gaze paresis, speech disorders

B. Agnostic syndrome


D. Alternal optic – hemiplegic syndrome


184. If the left middle cerebral artery main trunk is occluded:

A. Agnostic syndrome

B. * Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, gaze paresis, speech disorders




185. If the left middle cerebral artery’s cortical branches are occluded:


B. Hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, apraxia

C. Anozognosia, autotopagnosia

D. * Alexia, apraxia, acalculia, hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, motor and sensory disorders in upper extremity


186. If the left middle cerebral artery’s cortical branches are occluded:

A. * Alexia, apraxia, acalculia, hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, motor and sensory disorders in upper extremity

B. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, gaze paresis, speech disorders


D. Anozognosia, autotopagnosia


187. If the left middle cerebral artery’s posterior branches are occluded:

A. * Alexia, hemianesthesia, bathianesthesia, astereognosis, afferent paresis of extremities, hemianopsia apraxia, acalculia, sensory aphasia, agraphia, apraxia





188. If the middle cerebral artery’s posterior branches are occluded:

A. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymic hemianopsia




E. * Alexia, hemianesthesia, bathianesthesia, astereognosis, afferent paresis of extremities, hemianopsia apraxia, acalculia, sensory aphasia, agraphia, apraxia

189. If the right internal carotid artery is occluded before ophthalmic artery:

A. * Blindness, or visual disorders on the right side and hemiparesis on the left one




E. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, gaze paresis, speech disorders

190. If the right middle cerebral artery main trunk is occluded:


B. * Agnostic syndrome

C. Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, hemianopsia






C. * Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, pseudomelia





B. Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, hemianopsia

C. Alternal optic – hemiplegic syndrome

D. * Agnostic syndrome




B. * Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, pseudomelia




194. If the right middle cerebral artery’s cortical branches are occluded:



C. * Anozognosia, autotopagnosia

D. Alexia, apraxia, acalculia, hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, motor and sensory disorders in upper extremity


195. If the right middle cerebral artery’s cortical branches are occluded:



C. Alexia, apraxia, acalculia, hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, motor and sensory disorders in upper extremity


E. * Anozognosia, autotopagnosia

196. If the right middle cerebral artery’s posterior branches are occluded:



C. * Alexia, hemianesthesia, bathianesthesia, astereognosis, afferent paresis of extremities, hemianopsia apraxia, acalculia, sensory aphasia, agraphia, apraxia



197. Infarction in the region of the posterior cerebral artery:

A. * Optical gnosis

B. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, well expressed general cerebral symptoms

C. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymic hemianopsia

D. Apraxia, astereognosia, autotopagnosia, pseudomelia

E. Hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, apraxia

198. Infarction in the region of the posterior cerebral artery:

A. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, well expressed general cerebral symptoms

B. Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, homonymic hemianopsia


D. * Visual agnosia, hemianopsia, hyperpathia, disorientation in space and time


199. Infarction in the region of vertebral artery:


B. * “Drop-attacks”, equilibrium disorders and paresis with sensory disturbances


D. Systemic dizziness, vestibular disorders, senso-motor aphasia, apraxia

E. Visual agnosia, hemianopsia, hyperpathia, disorientation in space and time

200. Ischemic stroke with gradual growth of focal symptoms needed to be differentiated with:

A. Hemorrhage stroke

B. * Brain tumor*

C. Brain abscess

D. Encephalitis

E. Dyscirculative encephalopathy

201. Left internal carotid artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. * Blindness or visual disorders on the opposite side

B. Right-side hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia

C. Right-side hemianesthesia

D. Sensory and motor aphasia

E. Right-side hemianopsia

202. Left internal carotid artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. * A. Blindness or visual disorders on the opposite side

B. B. Right-side hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia

C. C. Right-side hemianesthesia

D. D. Sensory and motor aphasia

E. E. Right-side hemianopsia

203. Left middle cerebral artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. Hemiparesis, hemianesthesia, sensory and motor aphasia, alexia

B. Spastic hemiplegia, total hemianesthesia, acalculia, motor aphasia

C. Central hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, anozognosia, autotopognosia

D. Hemianesthesia, astereognosis, hemianopsia, sensory aphasia,acalculia

E. * Spastic hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, hemianopsia, total aphasia, alexia

204. Most effective method in treatment of atherothrombotic brain infarction in first 3 hours is:

A. * To renew blood circulation in zone of ischemia (Actilaza)

B. Using anticoagulative therapy (Heparini, Fraxiparini)

C. Using antiagregants (Aspirini, Ticlid)

D. To improve perfusion using Cavinton, Penthoxiphyllini, Euphyllini.

E. Using cell protection (Sermioni, Aktovegini, Instenoni)

205. Most effective method in treatment of atherothrombotic brain infarction in first 3 hours is:

A. To improve perfusion by using Cavinton, Penthoxiphyllini, Euphyllini.



D. * To renew blood circulation in zone of ischemia (Actilaza)

E. Using cell protection (Sermioni, Aktovegini, Instenoni)

206. Most effective method in treatment of brain infarction is:

A. * To renew blood circulation in zone of ischemia (Actilaza)



D. Using cell protection (Sermioni, Aktovegini, Instenoni)

E. To improve perfusion by using Cavinton, Penthoxiphyllini, Euphyllini.

207. Most effective method in treatment of brain infarction in first 3 hours is:

A. To improve perfusion by using Cavinton, Penthoxiphyllini, Euphyllini.



D. Using cell protection (Sermioni, Aktovegini, Instenoni)

E. * To renew blood circulation in zone of ischemia (Actilaza)

208. Most important element in pathogenesis of atherothrombotic stroke is:

A. * Occlusion or stenosis MAH

B. Disturbance of rheologic blood properties

C. Increasing of adhesion and aggregation in blood cells

D. Disturbance of self-regulation of brain blood circulation with unstable blood pressure

E. Disturbance of brain blood circulation

209. Most important element in pathogenesis of atherothrombotic stroke is:

A. * Occlusion or stenosis MAH

B. Disturbance of rheological blood properties

C. Increasing of adhesion and aggregation in blood cells

D. Disturbance of self-regulation of brain blood circulation with unstable blood pressure

E. Disturbance of brain blood circulation

210. Most important method in diagnostic of atherothrombotic brain infarction is:

A. Angiography

B. * USG

C. CT

D. MRI

E. EEG

211. ?Most important reason that cause atherothrombotic brain infarction is:

A. * Atherosclerosis of main cerebral blood vessels

B. Embolism of cardiac origin

C. Hypertonic changes of blood vessels

D. Artery-arterial embolism

E. Coagulopathies

212. Most important reason that cause cardioembolic stroke is:

A. Atherosclerosis

B. Septic endocarditis

C. Artificial valves of heart

D. * Arrhythmia

E. Rheuimatizm

213. Most important reason that cause cardioembolic stroke is:

A. Atherosclerosis

B. Septic endocarditis

C. Artificial valves of heart

D. Rheuimatizm

E. * Arrhythmia

214. Most important sign of beginning atherothrombotic brain infarction is:

A. Focal symptoms developed during some ours and days

B. Prevalence of focal symptoms over the general cerebral once

C. Precursors

D. * Developing at night or in the morning time

E. Pale face

215. Name syndrome of damage in internal carotid artery:

A. Brisso-Siquar

B. Parino

C. Miyar-Hyubler

D. Fowill

E. * Alternal optic – hemiplegic syndrome

216. Posterior cerebral artery is occluded, main signs are:

A. Hemianesthesia, hyperpathia, hemianopsia

B. Lower qudrantive hemianopsia with preserved macular vision

C. Upper qudrantive hemianopsia, alexia, semantic aphasia

D. * Metamorphopsia, hemianopsia, sensory aphasia, alexia

E. Metamorphopsia, hemianesthesia, disappering hemiparesis

217. Reason that could cause a strock in the patient with bacterial endocarditis is:

A. Thrombosis of internal carotid artery

B. Vasculitis of common carotid artery

C. Rhytm disorders

D. * Creation of thrombs on leaves of valves

E. Creation of thrombs in the cavity of left ventricule

218. Symptoms of extracranial lesion of vertebral artery are:


B. * “Drop-attacks”, equilibrium disorders and paresis with sensory disturbances

C. Alternating syndromes of oblongate brain

D. Visual agnosia, hemianopsia, hyperpathia, disorientation in space and time


219. Symptoms of extracranial lesion of vertebral artery are:


B. * Systemic dizziness, vestibular, equilibrium disorders.

C. Visual agnosia, hemianopsia, hyperpathia, disorientation in space and time

D. Hemianopsia with senso-motor aphasia, apraxia

220. Symptoms of intracranial lesion of vertebral artery are:


B. “Drop-attacks”, equilibrium disorders and paresis with sensory disturbances

C. * Alternating syndromes of oblongate brain

D. Visual agnosia, hemianopsia, hyperpathia, disorientation in space and time


221. The duration of lifetime in patients with bulbar form of ALS is

A. 4 – 6 years

B. * 1 – 3 years

C. 6 – 8 years

D. 9 – 16 years

E. 20 and more years

222. The duration of lifetime in patients with cerebral form of ALS is

A. * 4 – 6 years

B. 1 – 3 years

C. 6 – 8 years

D. 9 – 16 years


223. The duration of lifetime in patients with cervical-thoracic form of ALS is

A. 4 – 6 years

B. 1 – 3 years

C. * 6 – 8 years

D. 9 – 16 years


224. The duration of lifetime in patients with lumbar-sacral form of ALS is

A. 4 – 6 years

B. 1 – 3 years

C. 6 – 8 years

D. * 9 – 16 years


225. The main clinical features of cardioembolicl ischemic stroke is:

A. Presents of precursors in anamnesis

B. Slow development

C. * All symptoms of stroke are present in the beginning

D. The main reason of this type of stroke is hypertensive disease.

E. Well-expressed meningeal syndrom

226. The main clinical features of haemorheological ischemic stroke is:

A. Presents of precursors in anamnesis

B. Patient has arrhythmia.

C. Well-expressed general cerebral symptoms

D. * The most frequent localization is zone of contiguous blood circulation

E. All symptoms are regressing during 1 week

227. The main clinical features of hyperkinetic hypertensive crisis

A. Slow development

B. Often complicated with ischemic stroke

C. Mainly diastolic blood pressure is increased

D. * Mainly systolic blood pressure is increased

E. Often complicated with lung edema

228. The main clinical features of hypokinetic hypertensive crisis

A. Acute development

B. Good responds to treatment

C. * Slow development, often complicated with ischemic stroke

D. Mainly systolic blood pressure is increased

E. Well-expressed autonomic disorders

229. The main clinical features of hypokinetic hypertensive crisis

A. Acute development

B. Good responds to treatment

C. * Mainly diastolic blood pressure is increased

D. Mainly systolic blood pressure is increased

E. Well-expressed autonomic disorders

230. The main clinical features of lacuna ischemic stroke is:

A. Presents of general cerebral symptoms

B. Well-expressed focal symptoms

C. Presents of meningeal syndrom

D. * Absent of general cerebral syndrome and disorders of mental function

E. All symptoms are regressing during 1 week

231. The most common cause of secondary purulent meningitis

A. Sepsis

B. Cranial – cerebral trauma

C. Purulent pulpitis

D. * Purulent sinusitis

E. Abscess – pneumonia

232. The most common clinical signs of herpetic encephalitis are

A. * Fever, meningeal signs, epileptic attacks, focal signs

B. Prodromal period during 2 – 3 weeks, fever, meningeal signs

C. Fever, epileptic attacks, mono – hemiparesis

D. Fever, hyperkinesis, lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF up to hundreds cells in 1mcl.

E. fever, Kernig sign, Jackson attack

233. The most common reason of secondary purulent meningitis

A. Sepsis

B. Cranial – cerebral trauma


D. * Purulent otitis

E. Abscess – pneumonia

234. The most common sign of general cerebral syndrome at secondary purulent meningitis is

A. * Headache

B. Dizziness

C. General hyperesthesia

D. Nausea

E. Vomiting

235. The most effective medications in the treatment of herpetic encephalitis are

A. dehydration

B. DNA- za, interferonum

C. Interferonum, glucocorticoids

D. * Acyclovirum, virolex, zovirax, idoksiridinum, interferonum, glucocorticoids

E. Immunomodulators (Ig, T – activinum, Timalinum, Timozinum).

236. Typical amyotrophic signs of residual period at tick encephalitis?

A. Atrophy of supra – and subostal muscles

B. * Hanging head

C. Atrophic tongue

D. Atrophy of interostal hand muscles

E. shoulders’ atrophy

237. Typical clinical form of tick encephalitis

A. bulbar

B. * poliomyelitic

C. polioencephalomyelitic

D. meningoencephalitic

E. meningeal

238. Typical feature of post encephalitic Parkinson disease is

A. myosis

B. anizokoria

C. paresis of vertical sight

D. * Vice verse Argil – Robertson symptom

E. bilateral ptosis

239. Usually in debut of secondary purulent meningitis one can observe such meningeal sign as

A. * Neck stiffness

B. Behterev phenomena

C. Kernig sign

D. Upper Brudzinski sign

E. Lower Brudzinski sign

240. What additional method doesn’t have diagnostic value at ALS?

A. ENMG

B. MRI

C. PET-scan

D. LP

E. * EEG

241. What alternative syndromes are typical for midbrain tumors?

A. * Weber, Benedict

B. Fovihl, Myar-Hubler

C. Jackson, Awellis, Schmidt

D. Schmidt, Valenberg-Zaharchenko

E. Myar-Hubler, Jackson

242. What alternative syndromes are typical for oblong brain tumors?

A. Weber, Benedict

B. Fovihl, Myar-Hubler


D. * Schmidt, Valenberg-Zaharchenko, Jackson, Awellis


243. What alternative syndromes are typical for Pons tumors?

A. Weber, Benedict

B. * Fovihl, Myar-Hubler


D. Schmidt, Valenberg-Zaharchenko


244. What arachnoiditis is associated with cerebellar disorders?

A. Convexital

B. Basal

C. Optic-chiasmal

D. Ponto-cerebellaris

E. * Posterior cranial fosse

245. What arachnoiditis is associated with decreased vision?

A. Convex

B. Basal

C. * Optic-chiasmal


E. Posterior cranial fossa

246. What arachnoiditis is associated with eye movements disorders?

A. Convexital

B. * Basal

C. Optic-chiasmal


E. Posterior cranial fosse

247. What arachnoiditis is associated with seizures?

A. * Convexital

B. Basal

C. Optic-chiasmal


E. Posterior cranial fossa

248. What are the criteria of refusing from antibiotics treatment at purulent meningitis?

A. * Cytosis less then 100 cells, 75 % of them are lymphocytes

B. Cytosis less then 200 cells, 75 % of them are neutrophils

C. Cytosis less then 150 cells, 25 % of them are lymphocytes

D. Cytosis less then 10 cells, 50 % of them are neutrophils

E. Cytosis less then 1000 cells, 15 % of them are lymphocytes

249. What are the earliest complications of transversal myelitis?

A. Pneumonia

B. * Bed sores

C. Cystitis

D. Pyelonephritis

E. Sepsis

250. What are the most common clinical signs of nervous system disturbances at primary HIV.

A. HIV – dimension

B. Acute meningoencephalitis

C. * atypical aseptic meningitis

D. myelopathy

E. sensory neuropathy

251. What are the most common residual effects after tuberculosis meningitis in children?

A. * psychomotor development delay, epileptic attacks

B. Eye movement’s disorders

C. Deafness

D. Hemiparesis

E. Neuroendocrine disturbances

252. What are the typical changes of CSF at meningococcal meningitis?

A. * Neutrophil pleocytosis

B. Lymphocyte pleocytosis

C. Fibrin plate

D. Ksantochrome CSF

E. Protein-cellular dissociation

253. What are the typical changes of CSF at meningococcal meningitis?

A. Bloody

B. Ksantokhromic

C. * Purulent

D. Opalescent

E. Transparent

254. What are the typical changes of CSF at tuberculosis meningitis?

A. Purulent

B. Ksantokhromic

C. Bloody

D. * Opalescent

E. Transparent

255. What blood index supposed to be under control if direct anticoagulants are prescribed?

A. Protrombin time

B. Protrombin index

C. * Coagulative time

D. Tolerant of plasma to the heparin.

E. Fibrinogen Index

256. What cause doesn’t lead to the development of ALS syndrome?

A. Insufficiency of spinal blood circulation

B. Vertebrogenous pathology

C. Trauma

D. Infections

E. * Alcohol abuse

257. What causes primary purulent meningits?

A. Staphilococcus

B. * Meningococcus

C. Streptococcus

D. Bacillus of Koh

E. Spirochete pallidum

258. What combination of motor disturbances is typical for ALS?

A. Increased muscle tone and pathological reflexes on lower extremities

B. Muscle atrophy and fasciculation

C. * Mixed paresis

D. Central paresis

E. Increased reflexes and muscle fasciculation

259. What criteria don’t have diagnostic value at ALS?

A. signs of peripheral motoneuron lesion

B. signs of central motoneuron lesion

C. progressive course not less then 6 months

D. not effective treatment

E. * signs of cerebellum lesion

260. What doesn’t include the schema of treatment of viral meningitis?

A. Immunoglobulin

B. * Benzilpennicilinum

C. Laferoni

D. Cycloferon

E. RNA

261. What dose of Benzilpenicillinum is prescribed as etiotropic treatment for purulent meningitis?

A. * 300 000 Unites per kg

B. 500 000 Unites per kg

C. 100 000 Unites per kg

D. 1000 000 Unites per kg

E. 10 000 Unites per kg

262. What form doesn’t belong to ALS?

A. Cerebral

B. Bulbar

C. Cervical-thoracic

D. Lumbar-sacral

E. * Peripheral

263. What form doesn’t belong to cerebral arachnoiditis?

A. Convex

B. Basal

C. Optic-chiasmal


E. * Generalized

264. What form doesn’t belong to the acute stage of tick-encephalitis?

A. Polioencephalomyelitic

B. Poliomyelitic

C. Meningeal

D. Encephalitic

E. * Mononeuritic

265. What from the list belongs to the nonspecific treatment of tick-encephalitis?

A. Gama-globulin

B. Serum immunoglobulin

C. Serum of recovered persons

D. Blood transfusion from people that suffered from tick-encephalitis

E. * Glucocorticoids

266. What from the list belongs to the specific treatment of tick-encephalitis?

A. RNA-asa

B. Glucocorticoids

C. * Gama-globulin

D. Vitamin therapy

E. Anti-edema drugs

267. What from the list doesn’t belong to dehydration therapy?

A. Lasics

B. Mannit

C. Manitolum

D. Albuminum

E. * Pentoxiphilinum

268. What from the list doesn’t belong to desensibilization therapy?

A. Suprastinum

B. Tavegil

C. Dimedrol

D. Lorantadini

E. * Kavinton

269. What from the list doesn’t belong to desintoxication therapy?

A. Rheopoliglucinum

B. Reosorbilact

C. Neohemodes

D. Hekodes

E. * Trental

270. What is the localization of tuberculosis meningitis?

A. * Basal

B. Convex

C. General

D. Primary

E. Secondary

271. What is the most common death reason at ALS?

A. * Breathing and heart activity disorders at bulbar syndrome

B. breathing disorders at plugging of breathing pathways

C. Heart – vascular insufficiency at myocardial infarction

D. Brain edema and its intrusion into large occipital opening

E. Acute suprarenal insufficiency

272. What is the most common reason of secondary purulent meningitis?

A. Sepsis

B. Cranial trauma


D. * Purulent sinusitis

E. Abscess pneumonia

273. What is the most common sign of general cerebral syndrome at secondary purulent meningitis?

A. * Headache

B. Dizziness

C. General hyperesthesia

D. Nausea

E. Vomiting

274. What is the most difficult complication for meningococcal meningitis?

A. Lesion of cranial nerves

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Central paresis

D. Meningococcemia

E. * Infectious-toxic shock

275. What is the preventive measure at tick encephalitis?

A. Insectofungicides

B. * Vaccination

C. Individual protective measures

D. Repellents

E. Ticks finding on skin

276. What medication doesn’t belong to the pathogenetic treatment of chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis of Economo?

A. Cyclodolum

B. Romparkin

C. Parkopan

D. Midantan

E. * Ridazini

277. What medication is being used for the treatment of tuberculoses meningitis?

A. * Riphampicinum

B. Benzilpennicilinum

C. Ampicillinum

D. Gentamicinum

E. Cyprofloksacinum

278. What meningitis is associated with purulent changes of CSF?

A. Tuberculosis

B. Syphilitic

C. * Meningococcal

D. Flu-associated

E. Herpetic

279. What meningitis is associated with serous changes of CSF?

A. Meningococcal

B. Staphylococcal

C. Pneumococcal

D. * Tuberculosis

E. Streptococcal

280. What meningitis is characterized by decreased level of glucose and chlorides in CSF?

A. * Tuberculosis

B. Syphilis

C. Meningococcal

D. Pneumococcal

E. Herpetic

281. What parts of nervous system suffer at herpetic encephalitis?

A. * Mediobasal structures of fronto-temporal lobe

B. Subcortical nuclei

C. Internal capsule

D. Pons

E. Oblong brain

282. What parts of nervous system suffer at lethargic encephalitis?

A. * subcortical nuclei

B. Brain cortex

C. Internal capsule

D. Oblong brain

E. Pons

283. What sign is typical for arachnoiditis in posterior cranial fosse?

A. * Cerebellar disorders

B. Speech disorders

C. Sensory disorders

D. Seizures

E. Motor disorders

284. What sign is typical for basal arachnoiditis?

A. * Eye movements’ disorders

B. Speech disorders


D. Cerebellar disorders

E. Motor disorders

285. What sign is typical for convex arachnoiditis?

A. * Seizures

B. Speech disorders



E. Motor disorders

286. What sign is typical for optic-chiasmal arachnoiditis?

A. Seizures

B. Speech disorders

C. * Secondary atrophy of optic nerve disc


E. Motor disorders

287. What signs are observed at meningococcal meningitis?

A. * Kernig sign

B. Lower paraplegia

C. Sensory disorders according to the segmental type

D. True urine incontinence

E. Motor aphasia

288. What signs are typical for tuberculosis meningitis?

A. * subacute course of the disease

B. Neutrophil pleocytosis

C. Increased sugar in CSF

D. Protein-cellular dissociation

E. Ksantokhromic CSF

289. What signs do not have diagnostic value in acute stage of epidemic encephalitis Economo?

A. Sleep disorders

B. Eye movements disorders

C. Fever

D. Hyper kinesis

E. * Paralysis of extremities

290. What signs do not have diagnostic value in chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis Economo?

A. Parkinson syndrome

B. Neuroendocrinologic syndrome

C. Hyperkinetic syndrome

D. Plastic hypertonus

E. * Eye movements disorders

291. What stage of ALS is associated with diffusion of the pathological focus to the neighboring zones (the duration of this stage is about 4 months up to 2 years)

A. І stage

B. ІІ stage

C. * ІІІ stage

D. ІV stage

E. V stage

292. What stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis is characterized by rapid increasing of temperature, running nose, complains on problem with digestive system, skin hyperesthesia, sleepiness?

A. * Preparalytic

B. paralytic

C. renewal

D. residual

E. Recurrent

293. What stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis is characterized by presence of paralysis with increased temperature?

A. Preparalytic

B. * paralytic

C. renewal

D. residual

E. Recurrent

294. What stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis is characterized by presence of active movements in paralyzed extremities and asymmetry of paralysis?

A. Preparalytic

B. paralytic

C. * renewal

D. residual

E. Recurrent

295. What stage of paralytic form of poliomyelitis is characterized by presence of deformations and contractures of extremities?

A. Preparalytic

B. paralytic

C. renewal

D. * residual

E. Recurrent

296. What structures are involved at ALS?

A. A. pyramidal pathways

B. B. Spino – muscular pathways

C. C. Anterior horns of the spinal cord

D. * D. Cortico – muscular pathways

E. E. Cortico – nuclear pathways

297. What symptoms are not typical for herpetic encephalitis?

A. Smell hallucinations

B. Taste hallucinations

C. Memory disorders

D. mental disorders

E. * Speech disorders

298. What symptoms do not belong to meningeal syndrome?

A. General skin hyperesthesia

B. Lessage sign

C. Behterev phenomena

D. * Lasseg sign

E. Neck stiffness

299. What syndromes are not typical for encephalitis?

A. General-infectious

B. General –cerebral

C. Focal

D. * Meningeal

E. All above

300. What syndromes are not typical for flu-associated encephalitis?

A. Cortical

B. Brain stem

C. Hypothalamic

D. Cerebellar

E. * Meningeal

301. What theory doesn’t belong to the etiology of ALS?

A. Prion diseases

B. Autoimmune

C. Genetic

D. Disorders of metabolism of amino acids, neuromediators, neuropeptides, that regulate apoptosis

E. * Viral

302. What therapy is effective in renewal period of Acaridae encephalitis?

A. * Anticholinestherase drugs

B. Biostimulants

C. Anabolic

D. Nootrops

E. Dehydration

303. What type of arachnoiditis is associated with well – expressed CSF – hypertensive syndrome?

A. Convex

B. Optic – chiasmal

C. Ponto – cerebellar

D. * Large cysterna

E. Interpeduncullar

304. What viruses usually cause primary multi seasonal encephalitis?

A. * Coxacci enter viruses (А9, В3, В6), ЕСНО (2, 11, 24)

B. unknown viruses

C. Herpes virus

D. flu viruses

E. Cytomegalovirus

305. What way of tick encephalitis contamination is the most common?

A. * Eating of milk from wild goats?

B. While blood transfusion

C. From sick person

D. From virus-carrier

E. Hereditary

306. Which disease is usually differentiated with post encephalitic Parkinson disease?

A. Sub cortical nodules tumor

B. Sub cortical nodules hemorrhage

C. Parkinson disease at CO poisoning

D. * Parkinson disease

E. Hepatocerebral dystrophy

307. Which encephalitis belongs to primary?

A. Rheumatic

B. Flu-associated

C. Parainfectious

D. Postvaccinal

E. * Tick encephalitis

308. Which encephalitis belongs to secondary?

A. Tick encephalitis

B. Moscito encephalitis

C. Herpetic

D. Enteroviral

E. * Rheumatic

309. Which form belongs to the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis Economo?

A. Oculocephalgic

B. * Parkinson syndrome

C. Abortive

D. Flu-associated

E. Lethargic


A. Oculocephalgic

B. Vestibular

C. * Hyperkinetic syndrome

D. Flu-associated

E. Lethargic


A. Oculocephalgic

B. Vestibular

C. * neuro-endocrinologic syndrome

D. Flu-associated

E. Lethargic

312. Which form doesn’t belong to the atypical one of acute stage of epidemic encephalitis Economo?

A. Ocolocephalgic

B. Vestibular

C. Hyperkinetic

D. Flu-associated

E. * Lethargic

313. Which form doesn’t belong to the chronic stage of tick-encephalitis?

A. Kozhevnikov epilepsy

B. Poliomyelitic

C. Syringomyelitic syndrome

D. ALS syndrome

E. * Meningeal form

314. Which form of poliomyelitis clinically looks like short-lasting infectious disease with the signs of light lesion of upper respiratory ways or digestive tract without lesion of nervous system?

A. Without symptoms

B. * Abortive

C. Non paralytic

D. Paralytic

E. Polyneuritic

315. Which form of poliomyelitis has several subtypes – spinal, bulbar, pontine and mixed?

A. Without symptoms

B. Abortive

C. Non paralytic

D. * Paralytic

E. Polyneuritic

316. Which form of poliomyelitis is characterized by lesion of meninges or spinal roots and clinically looks like serous meningitis?

A. Without symptoms

B. Abortive

C. * Non paralytic

D. Paralytic

E. Polyneuritic

317. Which from the list belongs to panencephalitis?

A. * Acaridae measles

B. Rheumatic

C. Flu-associated

D. At chicken pox

E. At measles

318. Which from the list belongs to panencephalitis?

A. * Mosquito-associated

B. Rheumatic

C. Flu-associated

D. At chicken pox

E. At measles

319. Which from the list belongs to polioencephalitis?

A. Mosquito-associated

B. Rheumatic

C. * Economo

D. Acaridae

E. At measles

320. Which from the list is parainfectious encephalitis?

A. * At German measles

B. Rheumatic

C. Flu-associated

D. Acaridae

E. Mosquito-associated


A. * measles

B. Rheumatic

C. Flu-associated

D. Acaridae



A. * At chicken pox

B. Rheumatic

C. Flu-associated

D. Acaridae


323. Which group of muscles is damaged in last turn at ALS?

A. Abdominal

B. B. Breathing

C. * C. Oculomotor

D. D. Throat

E. E. Tongue

324. Which of subtypes do not belong to the paralytic form of poliomyelitis?

A. Spinal

B. Bulbar

C. Pontine

D. Mixed

E. * Polyneuritic

325. ?Which of the following forms do not belong to poliomyelitis?

A. Without symptoms

B. Abortive

C. Non paralytic

D. Paralytic

E. * Polyneuritic

326. Which of the following forms of poliomyelitis clinically is not expressed and is characterized by production of virus that is very dangerous epidemiologically?

A. * Without symptoms

B. Abortive

C. Non paralytic

D. Paralytic

E. Polyneuritic

327. Which of the stage do not belong to paralytic form of poliomyelitis?

A. Preparalytic

B. paralytic

C. renewal

D. residual

E. * Recurrent

328. Which sign from the list doesn’t belong to the early complications of meningococcal meningitis?

A. Acute brain edema

B. Bacterial endotoxic shock

C. Cutting-in syndrome

D. Syndrome of disseminated inner coagulation

E. * Seizures

329. Which sign from the list doesn’t belong to the general-cerebral syndrome?

A. Headache

B. Nausea

C. Vomiting

D. Seizures

E. * Paresis, paralysis

330. Which sign from the list doesn’t belong to the general-infectious syndrome?

A. Fever

B. * Meningeal signs

C. Shivering

D. Tachycardia

E. Tachipnoe

331. Which sign from the list doesn’t belong to the late complications of meningococcal meningitis?

A. CSF hypertension

B. Focal signs

C. Intellectual-mental disorders

D. Seizures

E. * Acute brain edema

332. Which syndrome is not typical for meningitis?

A. General-infectious

B. Meningeal

C. CSF-changes

D. General-cerebral

E. * Focal

333. It is necessary to use this group of medication at muscle-tonic syndromes

A. Spasmolytics

B. Myorelaxant

C. Dehydration

D. Biostimulants

E. Vitamins of group B

334. Most informative method of additional examination at lumbar – sacral compressive syndromes is

A. X – ray of spinal cord

B. Myelography with positive contrast

C. Ct – scan

D. * MRI of spinal cord

E. ENMG

335. Occlusion hydrocephalus at subarachnoid hemorrhage is a result of

A. * «obstruction» of CSF pass ways by fragments of elements of blood

B. Decrease venous outflow

C. Forming of ischemic focus in the brain tissue

D. Hyperproduction of CSF.

E. Increasing of blood pressure

336. Pathogenetic mechanisms of compressive - radicular symptoms at cervical osteochondrosis

A. degenerative process in between vertebral discs

B. prolabation of disc to the side of intervertebral opening

C. Falling out of disc to the side of intervertebral opening

D. * Uncovertebral arthrosis

E. Compression of root due to the development of spondiloarthrosis

337. Signs of Bone-Bobrovnikova, Soobrase, Wasten pillow are typical for

A. radiculopathy L5

B. coxarthrosis

C. * piriformis syndrome

D. radiculopathy S1

E. scalenus syndrome

338. The clinical features of Subarachnoid hemorrhage is most alike at:

A. Nimodipini

B. Lidokaini

C. * Euphyllini

D. Papaverini

E. Naniprus

339. The most common cause of root pain development on lumbar – sacral level is

A. * osteochondrosis

B. spondilolisthesis

C. primary tumors of vertebral column

D. Metastasis

E. Spinal arachnoiditis

340. The most effective medicine for treatment of hemorrhagic stroke is:

A. Vicasoli

B. Ascorutini

C. Chloridi calcium

D. Ascorbinic acid

E. * Nimotop

341. To decrease progression of degenerative changes in between vertebral discs it is necessary to use

A. non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

B. vitamins of group B

C. dehydration

D. * chondroprotectors

E. biostimulants

342. Vascular radicular-spinal syndromes are

A. * paralytic ischias

B. radiculopathy

C. scalenus-syndrome

D. shoulder-hand syndrome

E. iliotibial tract syndrome


A. Coccygodynia

B. radiculopathy

C. scalenus-syndrome

D. * myelogenic claudication

E. musclus pectoralis minor syndrome


A. paralytic ischias

B. radiculopathy

C. Piriformis syndrome

D. Stein Broker syndrome

E. * Caudogenous claudication

345. What clinical form is typical for alcoholic polineuropathy?

A. sensory

B. motor

C. sensory-motor

D. autonomic

E. * sensitive

346. What complains more informative for diagnostic of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A. Seizures

B. Loss of consciousness

C. * Sudden headache

D. Focal headache

E. Felling like a stroke on a head

347. What complains more informative for diagnostic of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A. * Sudden headache in occipital part

B. Local headache

C. Filling like a stroke on a neck

D. Canial nerve lesion

E. Seizures

348. What complains more informative on 3-4 days of disease for diagnostic of subarachnoidal hemorrhage?

A. Increasing of headache

B. * Pain in the lumbar level of the back

C. Diziness

D. Repeated vomiting

E. Mild increasing of body tempurature

349. What complains more informative on 3rd-4th days of disease for diagnostic of subarachnoidal hemorrhage?

A. Increasing of headache

B. * Pain in the lumbar level of the back

C. Dizziness

D. Repeated vomiting

E. Mild increasing of body temperature

350. What could possible cause appearing of focal symptoms in the patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage

A. * Spasm of vessels

B. Recedive

C. Occlusion hydrocephalus

D. Presence of aneurysm

E. Increasing of intracranial pressure

351. What from the list is forbidden to the patient with acute lumbar-sacral radiculopathy?

A. * paraphin application

B. Dehydration

C. Spasmolitic

D. Vitamins B

E. Intravenous injection of Baralgini

352. What is medication of choice at trigeminal neuralgia?

A. Suprastini

B. Pentalgini

C. * Karbamasepini

D. Baralgini

E. Dyclophenac

353. What is neurodystrophic syndrome of cervicobrachialgia?

A. Coccygodynia

B. * shoulder –hand syndrome

C. Syndrome of musculus pectoralis minor

D. Scalenus –syndrome

E. Piriformis syndrome

354. What is neurodystrophic syndrome of cervicobrachialgia?

A. coccygodynia

B. * epicondilosis

C. Musculus pectoralis minor syndrome

D. Scalenus syndrome

E. Piriformis syndrome

355. What is neurodystrophic syndrome of lumboischialgia?

A. * Coccygodynia

B. Piriformis-syndrome

C. Syndrome of iliotibial tract

D. Syndrome of Stein Broker

E. Vasoparetic type

356. What is pathogenetic mechanism of central nervous system lesion at PhOS poisoning?

A. Blockage of n-cholin receptors

B. * Blockage of acetylcholinestherase activity

C. Blockage of ?-adrenoreceptors

D. Blockage of m- cholin receptors

E. Destruction of cholin receptors

357. What is pathogenetic mechanism of cervicocranialgia?

A. * irritation of sympathetic nerve of vertebral artery

B. reflectory straining of paravertebral muscles

C. irritation of sinuvertebral nerve Lushka

D. compression of radiculo-medullar artery by intervertebral disc hernia

E. uncovertebral arthrosis

358. What is the absolute direction for the operative treatment of intervertebral disc hernia?

A. severe pain phenomena

B. Huge hernia

C. * Acute compression of horse tail

D. Well expressed static-dynamic disorders

E. Acute radiculopathy

359. What is the absolute direction for the operative treatment of intervertebral disc hernia?

A. severe pain phenomena during 1 month

B. size of hernia 5-6 mm

C. * Acute compression of radiculo-medullar artery

D. Well expressed static-dynamic disorders

E. Acute radiculopathy

360. What is the early sign of diabetic polineuropathy?

A. * lost deep reflexes

B. paresis of feet flexors

C. paresis of feet extensors

D. Lost deep sensation

E. Sensitive ataxia

361. What is the most common cause of pain syndrome on lumbar level?

A. Spondilitis

B. * oseochondrosis

C. tumors

D. Myeloma disease

E. trauma

362. What is the most common cause of radicular pain on lumbar –sacral level?

A. * hernia of intervertebral disc

B. Spondilolisthesis

C. Primary tumors

D. Metastatic tumors


363. What is the most common cause of radicular pain on lumbar – sacral region?

A. * Intervertebral disc hernia development

B. Spondilolisthesis

C. primary tumors

D. Metastasis


364. What is the most effective medication for treatment of lead encephalopathy?

A. Na tiosulphas

B. D-penicilamini

C. Unitiolum

D. MgSO4

E. * Clacium tetacini

365. What is the most frequent etiologic factor of SH?

A. Atherosclerotic

B. Blastomatose

C. Traumatic

D. Hypertensive

E. * Aneurysmatic

366. What is the most important complication of facial nerve neuropathy?

A. Conjunctivitis

B. * Contracture

C. Pain

D. Synkinesis

E. Fasciculation

367. What is the peculiarity of botulism polineuropathy development?

A. incubation period 12-24 days

B. normal temperature

C. * diplopia and photophobia

D. headache

E. mimic muscles paralysis

368. What is the sign of distal symmetric diabetic polineuropathy?

A. well expressed sensitive ataxia

B. * severe trophic disorders

C. flaccid paresis in distal parts of extremities

D. Atrophy of calf muscles

E. Steppage gait

369. What medication is antidote at PhOS poisoning?

A. Unitiolum

B. Ca tetacini

C. D-penicylamini

D. Reosorbilact

E. * Isonitrazid

370. ?What medication is prescribed in first row of treatment of cholinergic crisis?

A. lasix

B. * Atropini

C. Dipiroxim

D. Prednisoloni

E. KCl

371. ?What medication should be prescribed at PhOS poisoning?

A. Proserini

B. Nerviplex

C. Gangleroni

D. * Atropini

E. Anaprilini

372. What medicine is better to use for preventing spasm of vessels and ischemia of brain in case of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A. * Nimodipini

B. Lidokaini

C. Euphyllini

D. Papaverini

E. Naniprus

373. What nerves are leaving lateral secondary fascicle of brachial plexus?

A. radial and medial nerve

B. * ulnar and medial nerve

C. Radial and ulnar nerve

D. Radial, ulnar and medial nerve

E. Musculo-cutaneus nerve and medial nerve

374. What nerves are leaving medial secondary fascicle of brachial plexus?

A. radial and medial nerve

B. * ulnar and medial nerve




375. What nerves are leaving posterior secondary fascicle of brachial plexus?

A. * radial and axial nerve

B. ulnar and medial nerve




376. What pathogenetic group of medication is primary one at facial nerve neuropathy in acute period?

A. desensibilization

B. * dehydration

C. rheological

D. desintoxication

E. non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

377. What sign is not typical for lumbalgia?

A. straining of paravertebral muscles

B. painful palpation of paravertebral points

C. Deformation of lumbar lordosis

D. * Stretch phenomena

E. Signs of vertebral column instability

378. What sign is typical for dystrophic stage of periomarthrosis?

A. Severe limitation of movements in joint

B. sign of “frozen shoulder”

C. “pendulum-like” movements in shoulders are possible

D. * all is correct

E. non of the list

379. What signs are developed at extracranial lesion of facial nerve?

A. Prosoplegia, kserophthalmia, hyperakusis, ageysia

B. Prosoplegia, hyperakusis, ageysia

C. * Palsy of all mimic muscles, lacrimation, retroauricular pain

D. Palsy of lower mimic muscles, lacrimation, retroauricular pain

E. Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, hyperakusis

380. What signs are developed at lesion of facial nerve after leaving n. Petrosus major?



C. * Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, hyperakusis, ageysia

D. Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, ageysia


381. What signs are developed at lesion of facial nerve after leaving n. stapedius?



C. Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, hyperakusis, ageysia

D. * Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, ageysia


382. What signs are developed at lesion of facial nerve after leaving n. Chorda tympani?



C. Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation, hyperakusis, ageysia

D. * Prosoplegia, hyperlacrimation


383. What signs are typical for alcoholic polineuropathy

A. * hyperesthesia with hyperpathy in hands and feet

B. sensory disorders according to the conductive type

C. Pelvic disorders

D. Proximal paresis of extremities

E. Sensory disorders according to the segmental type

384. What syndrome is not typical for cervicocranialgia?

A. pain

B. vestibulo-cochlear

C. upper quadrant sympathetic

D. eye syndromes

E. * eye movements disorders

385. What time from the beginning of subarachnoid hemorrhage is more informative to make a lumbar puncture ?

A. 6 hours

B. 12 hours

C. * 24 hours

D. 36 hours

E. 48 hours

386. What treating measure is number one at acute Hyen-Bare poliradiculoneuropathy?

A. Artificial lung ventilation

B. Corticosteroids

C. * Plasmapharesis

D. Immunoglobulin

E. Anti- histamine

387. When heating procedures are prescribed at exacerbation of lumboischialgia?

A. from the 1st day

B. not earlier then after 7 days

C. not earlier then after 14 days

D. * not earlier then after 3 weeks

E. non of answers is correct

388. Which clinical form doesn’t belong to reflectory syndromes of osteochondrosis?

A. piriformis syndrome

B. Scalenus syndrome

C. * Radiculoischemia

D. Stein-Broker syndrome

E. Shoulder-scapular periarthrosis

389. Which disease we should think about if the patient complains on severe back pain after lifting heavy thing? There are positive Laseg and Neri signs on the right.

A. radiculopathy

B. * Lumbalgia

C. urine stone disease

D. Bile stone disease

E. femoral nerve neuritis

390. Which of medication is a myorelaxant?

A. Spasmalgon

B. Platyphilini

C. Baralgini

D. * Midocalm

E. Euphilini

391. Which of prescribed measures are forbidden for patient with acute lumbar – sacral radiculopathy

A. * heating procedures

B. dehydration

C. analgesics

D. Vitamins of group B

E. intravenous infusion of Euphillinum

392. Which of the following syndromes belong to muscle – tonic one on lumbar – sacral level?

A. scalenus syndrome

B. * piriformis muscle syndrome

C. small thoracic muscle syndrome

D. vertebral artery syndrome

E. lumbalgia

393. Which of the following syndromes depends to muscle – tonic on cervical level?

A. * scalenus syndrome

B. piriformis muscle syndrome

C. steinbroker syndrome


E. coccigodynia

394. Which of the following syndromes depends to muscle – tonic ones on cervical level?

A. steinbroker syndrome


C. * small thoracic muscle syndrome


E. coccigodynia

395. Which of the following syndromes depends to neuro – dystrophic ones on cervical level?



C. * steinbroker syndrome


E. small thoracic muscle syndrome

396. Which of the following syndromes depends to neuro – dystrophic ones on cervical level?



C. * Periomartrosis syndrome


E. small thoracic muscle syndrome

397. Which signs on X – ray prove that the patient has I stage of osteochondrosis?

A. Horizontal osteophits

B. Vertical osteophits

C. * slightly expressed lordosis

D. sclerosis of closing plate

E. Decreased height of intervertebral disc

398. Which symtoms are usually observed at cervico – cranialgia ?

A. Vestibular

B. cochlear

C. * Cephalgic

D. Optic – ocular

E. Autonomic

399. D Up to 10 years

A. A. 4-6 years

B. * B. Under 2 years

C. C. Under 4 mounth

D. E. Under 1 year

400. ]B. tabes dorsalis

A. * Meningovascular

B. progressive paralysis

C. Gumma

D. amyotrophic


A. * Visual nerve

B. Acoustical

C. Abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal


A. Acoustical

B. * Visual nerve

C. Abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal

403. Combination of which factors has the most important meaning in the development of MS?

A. * Genetic susceptibility, slow neuro infections, geographic factor

B. Genetic susceptibility, chronic intoxication, head trauma

C. Genetic susceptibility, high protein and fat diet, geographic factor

D. Genetic susceptibility, chronic intoxication by organic substances, geographic factor

E. Genetic susceptibility, geographic factor, distress

404. Fifth degree of MS characterised with:

A. Patient can’t walk without help

B. * Patient can’t walk

C. Patient has spastic-paretic gait, difficulty to walk and weakness on 200-300 m.

D. Patient has difficulty to walk only after physical training

E. Patient has difficulty to walk and weakness on 2-3 km.



B. * Patiend blindness




406. First degree of MS characterised with:


B. Patient can’t walk

C. Patiend blindness

D. * Patient has difficulty to walk only after physical training


407. First row therapy in the treatment of acute stage of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * Glucocorticoids

B. Vitamins B

C. Diuretics

D. Anticholinestherase

E. physiotherapy

408. Forth degree of MS characterised with:

A. * Patient can’t walk without help





409. In case of ALS differential diagnosis should be made with following diseases, except:

A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Myasthenia

D. Subacute poliomyelitis

E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Myopathy


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Neural amyotrophy


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Spinal infarction


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Hematomyelia


E. Radiculoischemia

414. In case of syringomyelia differential diagnosis should be made with following diseases, except:

A. Hematomyelia

B. Cervical ischemic myelopathy

C. ALS

D. Intramedullar tumour

E. * MS


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Radiculoischemia


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Myasthenia


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Myopathy


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Neural amyotrophy


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Subacute poliomyelitis


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Spinal amyotrlphy

421. Late forms of neurosyphilis are all except

A. amyotrophic

B. tabes dorsalis

C. progressive paralysis

D. gumma

E. * meningitis

422. Second degree of MS characterised with:



C. * Patient has spastic-paretic gait, difficulty to walk and weakness on 200-300 m.



423. Signs of MS cerebellar ataxia includes all except:

A. intention at coordinating tests

B. nystagmus

C. scanning speach

D. * decreasing of vibration sense

E. decreasing of muscules tones



B. * decreasing of deep sense

C. scanning speach

D. nystagmus




B. scanning speach

C. * dizziness

D. nystagmus




B. nystagmus

C. scanning speach

D. * vomiting, nausea



A. * ear noise

B. intention at coordinating tests

C. nystagmus

D. scanning speach


428. Signs of MS sensetive ataxia includes all except:

A. instable in Romberg posture

B. decreasing of deep sense

C. loss of vibration sense

D. depending ataxia of visual control

E. * scanning speech


A. * intention at coordinating tests

B. instable in Romberg posture

C. decreasing of deep sense

D. loss of vibration sense

E. depending ataxia of visual control


A. * instable in Romberg posture

B. vomiting, nausea




431. Signs of MS vestibular ataxia includes all except:

A. ear noise

B. * intention at coordinating tests

C. nystagmus

D. vomiting, nausea

E. instable in Romberg posture


A. ear noise

B. * decreasing of muscules tones

C. nystagmus

D. vomiting, nausea



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. * scanning speach

D. vomiting, nausea



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea

D. * movement assinergy



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea

D. instable in Romberg posture

E. * adiadochokinesis


A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea


E. * dysmetry

437. The most accurate diagnostic method of MS is:

A. CSF

B. EEG

C. CT

D. * MRI

E. Angiography

438. The most frequent typical clinical features of MS is:

A. Cerebellar ataxia

B. * Motor disorders

C. Visual and eye movement disorders

D. Sensory disorders

E. Vestibular ataxia

439. The most frequently appearing first symptoms of MS are:

A. A. Transient visual disturbances, parasthesia, disorders of urination, decreased vibration sense

B. * B. Transient visual disturbances, legs paresis, micturition, decreased vibration sense

C. C. Transient visual disturbances, lower paraparesis, absence of abdominal reflexes, parasthesia

D. D. Transient parasthesia, decreased vibration sense, muscle hypotonia, absence of abdominal reflexes

E. E. Hesitating at walking, absence of abdominal reflexes, urination disturbances, decreased visual acuity

440. Third degree of MS characterised with:





E. * Patient has difficulty to walk and weakness on 2-3 km.

441. Typical clinical signs of nervous system lesion at primary influence of AIDS

A. AIDS – dementia

B. * Acute meningoencephalitis

C. atypical aseptic meningitis

D. myelopathy






D. myelopathy


443. Typical optic sing of syphiliytic damage is

A. myosis

B. anizokoria



E. bilateral ptosis


A. ALS

B. * Tick’s encephalitis

C. Multiple sclerosis

D. para infectious encephalitis

E. Spinal tumor

445. Usually at chronic luetic meningitis we observe

A. Upper Brudzinski sign

B. Middle Brudzinski sign

C. Lower Brudzinski sign

D. * Neck stiffness

E. Kernig sign

446. What are the clinical criteria of MS diagnosis?

A. * Multiple lesion of CNS, chronic course

B. Acute infectious disease with lesion of all parts of NS

C. Chronic disease with monosymptomatic lesion of pyramid pathways

D. Acute stroke – like onset with gradual increasing of symptoms during the week

E. Peripheral NS lesion, including optic nerves


A. Pneumonia

B. * Bed sores

C. Cystitis

D. Pyelonephritis

E. Sepsis





D. myelopathy


449. What clinical form of MS is the most frequent?

A. Bulbar, cerebellar

B. * Brain stem – cerebellar – spinal

C. Optic – brain stem – cerebellar

D. Spinal - brain stem – cerebellar

E. Cerebellar – spinal




C. * Mixed paresis

D. Central paresis


451. What cytosis and which quantity can be diagnosed in CSF of patiene with acute syphilitic meningitis?

A. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)

B. Lymphocytic (1000 – 2000 in 1 mcl)

C. Neutrophil (1000 – 2000 in 1 mcl)

D. Mononuclear (100 – 300 in 1 mcl)

E. Neutrophil (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)

452. What dose of methylprednisolone has to be used in case of AMEM?

A. * 10-15 mg per kg i/v

B. 15-25 mg per kg i/v

C. 25-30 mg per kg i/v

D. 5-10 mg per kg i/v

E. 50-60 mg per kg i/v

453. What is a conservative treatment for syringomyelia?

A. * Radioactive P and J

B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif


A. * X-rey therapy

B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif

455. What is maximal dose of Dexametasone at MS pulse – therapy?

A. * 8 mg per day

B. 16 mg per day

C. 4 mg per day

D. 1 mg per day

E. 10 mg per day

456. What is maximal dose of methylprednisoloni at MS pulse – therapy?

A. 500 mg per day

B. 600 mg per day

C. 750 mg per day

D. 800 mg per day

E. * 1000 mg per day

457. What is perhaps etiology of AMEM?

A. Rapid progressive

B. * Stationary

C. Remittent

D. Slow progressive

E. Regressive

458. What is the best additional method for MS diagnostics?

A. CT

B. Echoencephalography

C. EEG

D. Angiography

E. * MRI







460. What is the most frequent type of MS clinical course?

A. * Remittent

B. Stationary

C. Slow progressive

D. Rapid progressive

E. Regressive



B. Stationary

C. * Slow progressive

D. Remittent

E. Regressive

462. What is the most popular pathogenetic theory of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * Autoimmune

B. Viral

C. infectious

D. intoxication

E. Hereditary

463. What is usuarly used in therapy at retrobulbar neuritis?

A. T-activinum

B. Copaxone

C. * Dexametasone

D. Prednisone

E. Methylprednisolon

464. What medicine is more effective in treatment of paroxysmal signs at MS:

A. Baclofen

B. * Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Sirdalude

465. What medicine is more effective in treatment of pelvis disorders at MS:

A. Baclofen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. * Proserinum

E. Sirdalude

466. What medicine is more effective in treatment of spasticity at MS:

A. * Baclofen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Halantaminum

467. What medicine is more effective in treatment of tremor at MS:

A. Baclfoen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. * Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Sirdalude

468. What medicine should be used in case of exacerbation of MS?

A. Methylprednison

B. Sirdalude

C. Clonasepam

D. * Halantaminum

E. Rebif


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexamethason

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Solu-medrolum

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Metypred

E. Proserinum

472. What parts of NS are usually involved in pathological process of MS?

A. * Optic nerves, posterior and lateral funiculi of spinal cord

B. Optic nerves, brain stem, posterior funiculi of spinal cord

C. Optic nerves, posterior funiculi of spinal cord, corona radiate

D. Optic nerves, posterior funiculi of spinal cord, brain stem

E. Optic nerves, corona radiate, posterior funiculi of spinal cord

473. What spinal clinical form of syringomyelia is the most frequent?

A. Total

B. * Cervical -thoracic

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. Lumbar-sacral

474. What spinal clinical form of syringomyelia is the most rare?

A. Total

B. Cervical -thoracic

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. * Lumbar-sacral


A. pyramidal pathways

B. Spino – muscular pathways

C. Anterior horns of the spinal cord

D. * D. Cortico – muscular pathways

E. E. Cortico – nuclear pathways

476. What structures of spinal cord are damaged in atactic stage of tabes dorsalis most of all

A. * Posterior columns

B. Posterior horns

C. posterior roots

D. lateral columns

E. anterior horns

477. What therapy should be given preference at treatment of MS?

A. Immune modulating

B. * Immune suppressive

C. Vitamin therapy

D. Physiotherapy

E. Symptomatic

478. When do the signs of MS appear for the first time?

A. * In 20 – 40 years

B. In 5 – 10 years

C. In 50 – 60 years

D. In 70 – 80 years

E. After 80 years

479. Which dose of metilprednisoloni intravenous injection (by drops) is used for the treatment of ADEM?

A. 1 – 2 mg per kilo

B. 2 – 4 mg per kilo

C. 5 – 6 mg per kilo

D. 8 – 9 mg per kilo

E. * 10 – 15 mg per kilo

480. Which dose of prednisoloni is used for the treatment of MS exacerbation?

A. 0.1 mg per kilo

B. 0.3 mg per kilo

C. 0.5 mg per kilo

D. 0.6 mg per kilo

E. * 1.0 mg per kilo

481. Which group of muscles is dieing last one at ALS?

A. Abdominal

B. Breathing

C. * Oculomotor

D. Throat

E. Tongue

482. Which medicine need to be used in case of AMEM ?

A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Methylprednisolone

E. Proserinum

483. Which medicine need to be used in case of AMEM?

A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednisolone

E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Corticosteroids

E. Proserinum

485. Which nerve is usually damaged at chronic luetic meningitis?

A. * Optic

B. acoustical

C. abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal

486. Which of the following clinical forms are the most often for acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * Encephalomyelopoliradiculoneuritis

B. Polioencephalomyelitis

C. Opticomyelitis

D. Disseminated myelitis

E. Myasthenic syndrome

487. Which of the following is differential diagnosis of encephalomyelitis?

A. * Multiple sclerosis

B. Tick’s encephalitis

C. ALS


E. Spinal tumor

488. Which of the following symptoms are not typical for the acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. Rapid onset

B. Fever

C. Multiple focuses

D. * New unstable symptoms

E. Lesion of roots and peripheral nerves

489. Which structures of spinal cord are usually involved at atactic stage of tabes dorsalis?

A. * posterior columns

B. posterior horns

C. posterior roots

D. lateral columns

E. anterior horns

490. Anterior branches of spinal nerves create such plexuses as all except

A. cervical

B. brachial

C. * abdominal

D. lumbar

E. sacral

491. At compression of L3 – L4 is well expressed such stretch phenomena as

A. * wasserman

B. Bone – Bobrovnikova

C. Fents

D. Laseg

E. Degerina

492. At compression of L3 – L4 the most expressed stretch phenomena is

A. * Wasserman

B. Neri

C. Fents

D. Mackevich

E. Degerina

493. At compression of L3 – S4 the most expressed will be such stretch phenomena

A. * Mackevich


C. Laseg

D. Neri

E. Degerina

494. At compression of L5 – S1 the most expressed stretch phenomena is

A. * Laseg sign


C. Mackevich

D. Wasserman

E. Degerina

495. At signs of compression on lumbar – sacral level for pain management usually is prescribed

A. * dehydration

B. analgesics

C. tranquilization

D. nonsteroid anti – inflammatory

E. vitamins of group B

496. At signs of compression on lumbar-sacral level for pain management is used

A. * dehydration therapy

B. analgesics

C. tranquilization

D. non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs


497. For Adamkevych artery compression by intervertebral disc hernia is typical all the signs except

A. lower paraparesis

B. conductive sensory disorders

C. * severe pain

D. pelvic disorders according to the central type

E. ulcers

498. For L5 radiculopathy is typical

A. * paresis of foot extensors

B. paresis of foot flexors

C. decreased Achielle reflex

D. hypotrophy of calf muscles

E. hypoesthesia on anterior surface of hip

499. For paralytic ischias are typical all the signs except

A. foot paralysis

B. lost Achielle reflex

C. Hypotrophy of calf

D. Steppage

E. * Severe pain

500. For Piriformis muscle syndrome is typical all except

A. positive Bone-Bobrovnikova sign

B. Positive Soobrase sign

C. Positive Wasten pillow sign

D. * Paresis of foot extensors

E. Piriformis lameness

501. For Piriformis Popelanski lameness is typical

A. weakness in legs while walking that enforce patient to stop and seat

B. Micturition while walking

C. * Severe pain in legs while walking that enforce patient to stop and seat

D. Paresthesia while walking

E. Acute retention of urine while walking

502. For S1 radiculopathy is typical

A. paresis of foot extensors, hypotrophy of anterior surface of calf

B. * paresis of foot flexors, hypotrophy of calf muscles

C. paresis of foot flexors, steppage-gait

D. hypotrophy of quadriceps femoris, anesthesia on anterior surface of hip

E. paresis of foot flexors, hypotrophy of anterior surface of calf

503. For scalenus syndrome are typical all the signs except

A. edema over clavicle

B. positive Edson sign

C. * hypoethesia on radial edge of forearm

D. hypoethesia on ulnar edge of forearm

E. painful palpation of over and under clavicle zones

504. For shoulder- scapular periarthrosis are typical all the signs except

A. painful putting the arms backwards

B. not painful “pendulum-like” movements in shoulders

C. * positive Edson sign

D. limitation of movements in shoulder

E. decreased space between joints on X-ray

505. For shoulder-hand syndrome are typical all the signs except

A. severe arm pain

B. hand edema

C. trophic disorders in hand

D. * hand muscles paresis

E. spot like osteodystrophy of Zudek

506. For vasoparetic type of lumbar ischialgia are typical all the signs except?

A. Feeling of hot in extremities

B. trophic disorders

C. * pale skin

D. Red skin

E. Autonomic type of pain

507. For vasospastic type of lumbar ischialgia are typical all the signs except?

A. cold extremities

B. trophic disorders

C. pale skin

D. * Red skin

E. Autonomic type of pain

508. Increased low back pain after bending head forward is called

A. Laseg sign

B. Degerina sign

C. Siquar sign

D. Wasserman sign

E. * Neri sign

509. Increasing pain on anterior surface of hip after leg flexion in knee joint in patient lying on abdomen is called

A. Laseg sign

B. * Matskevych sign

C. Siquar sign

D. Wasserman sign

E. Neri sign

510. Low back pain at coughing, sneezing is called

A. Laseg sign

B. * Degerina sign

C. Siquar sign

D. Wasserman sign

E. Neri sign

511. Pain on anterior surface of hip at leg flexing in hip joint in patient lying on abdomen is called

A. Turin sign

B. Matskevych sign

C. Siquar sign

D. * Wasserman sign

E. Neri sign

512. What are chondroprotectors?

A. Rumalon, Alflutop, Plasmol

B. Structum, Teraflex, dicloberl

C. * Artron, Alflutop, Zinaksin

D. Artron, Alflutop, Sermion

E. Chondroitini, plasmol, Calcemin

513. What are the most common signs of compressive-radicular syndrome at cervical osteochondrosis?

A. pain and paresthesia in certain dermatome

B. segmental hyper or hypoesthesia

C. * decreased reflexes

D. absent reflexes

E. domination of sensory disorders over the motor ones

514. What are the most important methods of cervical radiculopathy investigation?

A. * MRI

B. CT-scan

C. Spondilography

D. Myelography

E. Angiography

515. What are the signs of L2 radix lesion

A. Calf muscles hypotrophy

B. * Decreased knee reflex

C. Decreased Achielle reflex

D. Decreased plantar reflex

E. Hypoesthesia on external surface of hip, calf and foot


A. hypoesthesia on external surface of hip, calf and foot

B. difficulties at foot flexion

C. decreased Achielle reflex

D. difficulties at foot flexion

E. * hypoethesia on anterior surface of hip


A. difficulties at leg flexion in knee joint

B. difficulties at foot extension

C. * difficulties at leg extension in knee joint

D. difficulties at foot flexion

E. decreased Achielle reflex

518. What changes on X – ray prove that the patient has II stage of osteochondrosis?



C. slightly expressed lordosis

D. * sclerosis of closing plate


519. What changes on X – ray prove that the patient has III stage of osteochondrosis?





E. * Decreased height of intervertebral disc

520. What changes on X – ray prove that the patient has III stage of osteochondrosis?

A. * Horizontal osteophits





521. What hernia of intervertebral disc can cause compression of horse tail?

A. paramedial

B. * middle

C. lateral

D. foraminal

E. anterior

522. What is muscle-tonic syndrome of lumboischialgia?

A. Coccygodynia

B. * Piriformis-syndrome

C. Syndrome of Stein Broker

D. Coxarthrosis

E. Gonarthrosis

523. What is muscle-tonic syndrome of lumboischialgia?

A. Coccygodynia

B. * Syndrome of iliotibial tract

C. Syndrome of Stein Broker

D. Coxarthrosis

E. Achielle reflexes changes

524. What is the most effective method of compressive –radicular syndromes treatment at cervical osteochondrosis?

A. Drawing out of cervical part of vertebral column in seating position by Glisson loop

B. * Dehydration therapy

C. Analgesics

D. Paravertebral Novocaini blockade

E. Electrophoresis with Novocaini on collar zone

525. What is the name of stretch phenomena at sciatic nerve lesion?

A. * Laseg

B. Lesagge

C. Brudzinski

D. wasserman

E. Kernig

526. What is the sign of posterior root lesion?

A. fasciculation

B. * transversal lancinating pain

C. herpetic rash

D. flaccid paresis

E. hyperreflexion

527. What medication is used in dehydration therapy?

A. * Dexamethasoni

B. Platyphilini

C. Kurantil

D. Dexalgini

E. Ketorolak

528. What root innervates skin of external surface of hip, calf, foot and small finger?

529. What roots are usually damaged at vertebral compression on lumbar level?

A. * radix L5-S1

B. radix S1- S2

C. radix L4- L5

D. radix L3- L4

E. radix L1- L 2

530. What sign is not typical for algic stage of periomarthrosis?

A. limitation of movements in joint

B. painful movements in joint

C. * sign of “frozen shoulder”

D. all is correct

E. non of the list

531. What sign is not typical for algic stage of shoulder-hand syndrome?

A. severe pain in hand, arm

B. hand edema

C. cyanotic hand

D. * local osteoporosis

E. severe limitation of arm movements

532. What sign is not typical for compression of horse tail by intervertebral disc hernia?

A. lower flaccid paraparesis

B. pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type

C. sensory disorders according to the segmental-radicular type

D. * symmetry of lesion

E. asymmetry of lesion

533. What sign is not typical for compression of horse tail by intervertebral disc hernia?

A. radicular pain in legs and perineum

B. pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type

C. * sensory disorders according to the segmental-dissociated type

D. lower flaccid paraparesis

E. asymmetry of lesion

534. D Up to 10 years

A. A. 4-6 years

B. * B. Under 2 years

C. C. Under 4 mounth

D. E. Under 1 year

535. ]B. tabes dorsalis

A. * Meningovascular

B. progressive paralysis

C. Gumma

D. amyotrophic


A. * Visual nerve

B. Acoustical

C. Abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal


A. Acoustical

B. * Visual nerve

C. Abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal

538. ?Combination of which factors has the most important meaning in the development of MS?

A. * A. Genetic susceptibility, slow neuro infections, geographic factor

B. B. Genetic susceptibility, chronic intoxication, head trauma

C. C. Genetic susceptibility, high protein and fat diet, geographic factor

D. D. Genetic susceptibility, chronic intoxication by organic substances, geographic factor

E. E. Genetic susceptibility, geographic factor, distress



B. * Patient can’t walk






B. * Patiend blindness




541. First degree of MS characterised with:




D. * Patient has difficulty to walk only after physical training


542. First row therapy in the treatment of acute stage of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * A. Glucocorticoids

B. B. Vitamins B

C. C. Diuretics

D. D. Anticholinestherase

E. E. physiotherapy

543. Forth degree of MS characterised with:

A. * Patient can’t walk without help






A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Myasthenia


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Myopathy


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Neural amyotrophy


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Spinal infarction


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Syringomyelia

B. MS

C. * Hematomyelia


E. Radiculoischemia


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * MS


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Radiculoischemia


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Myasthenia


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Myopathy


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Neural amyotrophy


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Subacute poliomyelitis


A. Hematomyelia


C. ALS


E. * Spinal amyotrlphy

556. Late forms of neurosyphilis are all except

A. amyotrophic

B. tabes dorsalis

C. progressive paralysis

D. gumma

E. * meningitis

557. Second degree of MS characterised with:



C. * Patient has spastic-paretic gait, difficulty to walk and weakness on 200-300 m.





B. nystagmus

C. scanning speach

D. * decreasing of vibration sense




B. * decreasing of deep sense

C. scanning speach

D. nystagmus




B. scanning speach

C. * dizziness

D. nystagmus




B. nystagmus

C. scanning speach

D. * vomiting, nausea



A. * ear noise

B. intention at coordinating tests

C. nystagmus

D. scanning speach



A. instable in Romberg posture

B. decreasing of deep sense

C. loss of vibration sense

D. depending ataxia of visual control

E. * scanning speech


A. * intention at coordinating tests

B. instable in Romberg posture





A. * instable in Romberg posture

B. vomiting, nausea





A. ear noise

B. * intention at coordinating tests

C. nystagmus

D. vomiting, nausea



A. ear noise

B. * decreasing of muscules tones

C. nystagmus

D. vomiting, nausea



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. * scanning speach

D. vomiting, nausea



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea

D. * movement assinergy



A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea


E. * adiadochokinesis


A. ear noise

B. nystagmus

C. vomiting, nausea


E. * dysmetry

572. The most accurate diagnostic method of MS is:

A. CSF

B. EEG

C. CT

D. * MRI

E. Angiography

573. The most frequent typical clinical features of MS is:

A. Cerebellar ataxia

B. * Motor disorders

C. Visual and eye movement disorders

D. Sensory disorders

E. Vestibular ataxia

574. The most frequently appearing first symptoms of MS are:

A. A. Transient visual disturbances, parasthesia, disorders of urination, decreased vibration sense

B. * B. Transient visual disturbances, legs paresis, micturition, decreased vibration sense

C. C. Transient visual disturbances, lower paraparesis, absence of abdominal reflexes, parasthesia

D. D. Transient parasthesia, decreased vibration sense, muscle hypotonia, absence of abdominal reflexes

E. E. Hesitating at walking, absence of abdominal reflexes, urination disturbances, decreased visual acuity

575. Third degree of MS characterised with:





E. * Patient has difficulty to walk and weakness on 2-3 km.





D. myelopathy






D. myelopathy



A. myosis

B. anizokoria



E. bilateral ptosis


A. ALS

B. * Tick’s encephalitis

C. Multiple sclerosis


E. Spinal tumor

580. Usually at chronic luetic meningitis we observe

A. Upper Brudzinski sign

B. Middle Brudzinski sign

C. Lower Brudzinski sign

D. * Neck stiffness

E. Kernig sign

581. What are the clinical criteria of MS diagnosis?

A. * Multiple lesion of CNS, chronic course

B. Acute infectious disease with lesion of all parts of NS

C. Chronic disease with monosymptomatic lesion of pyramid pathways

D. Acute stroke – like onset with gradual increasing of symptoms during the week

E. Peripheral NS lesion, including optic nerves


A. Pneumonia

B. * Bed sores

C. Cystitis

D. Pyelonephritis

E. Sepsis





D. myelopathy


584. What clinical form of MS is the most frequent?

A. Bulbar, cerebellar

B. * Brain stem – cerebellar – spinal

C. Optic – brain stem – cerebellar

D. Spinal - brain stem – cerebellar

E. Cerebellar – spinal




C. * Mixed paresis

D. Central paresis


586. What cytosis and which quantity can be diagnosed in CSF of patiene with acute syphilitic meningitis?






587. What dose of methylprednisolone has to be used in case of AMEM?








B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif


A. * X-rey therapy

B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif

590. What is maximal dose of Dexametasone at MS pulse – therapy?

A. * 8 mg per day

B. 16 mg per day

C. 4 mg per day

D. 1 mg per day

E. 10 mg per day

591. What is maximal dose of methylprednisoloni at MS pulse – therapy?

A. 500 mg per day

B. 600 mg per day

C. 750 mg per day

D. 800 mg per day

E. * 1000 mg per day

592. What is perhaps etiology of AMEM?


B. * Stationary

C. Remittent

D. Slow progressive

E. Regressive

593. What is the best additional method for MS diagnostics?

A. CT

B. Echoencephalography

C. EEG

D. Angiography

E. * MRI








A. * Remittent

B. Stationary

C. Slow progressive

D. Rapid progressive

E. Regressive



B. Stationary

C. * Slow progressive

D. Remittent

E. Regressive

597. What is the most popular pathogenetic theory of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * Autoimmune

B. Viral

C. infectious

D. intoxication

E. Hereditary

598. What is usuarly used in therapy at retrobulbar neuritis?

A. T-activinum

B. Copaxone

C. * Dexametasone

D. Prednisone

E. Methylprednisolon

599. What medicine is more effective in treatment of paroxysmal signs at MS:

A. Baclofen

B. * Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Sirdalude

600. What medicine is more effective in treatment of pelvis disorders at MS:

A. Baclofen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. * Proserinum

E. Sirdalude

601. What medicine is more effective in treatment of spasticity at MS:

A. * Baclofen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Halantaminum

602. What medicine is more effective in treatment of tremor at MS:

A. Baclfoen

B. Carbamasepinum

C. * Clonasepam

D. Proserinum

E. Sirdalude


A. Methylprednison

B. Sirdalude

C. Clonasepam

D. * Halantaminum

E. Rebif


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexamethason

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Solu-medrolum

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Metypred

E. Proserinum

607. What parts of NS are usually involved in pathological process of MS?

A. * Optic nerves, posterior and lateral funiculi of spinal cord

B. Optic nerves, brain stem, posterior funiculi of spinal cord

C. Optic nerves, posterior funiculi of spinal cord, corona radiate

D. Optic nerves, posterior funiculi of spinal cord, brain stem

E. Optic nerves, corona radiate, posterior funiculi of spinal cord

608. What spinal clinical form of syringomyelia is the most frequent?

A. Total

B. * Cervical -thoracic

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. Lumbar-sacral

609. What spinal clinical form of syringomyelia is the most rare?

A. Total

B. Cervical -thoracic

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. * Lumbar-sacral


A. pyramidal pathways

B. Spino – muscular pathways

C. Anterior horns of the spinal cord

D. * Cortico – muscular pathways

E. Cortico – nuclear pathways

611. What structures of spinal cord are damaged in atactic stage of tabes dorsalis most of all

A. * Posterior columns

B. Posterior horns

C. posterior roots

D. lateral columns

E. anterior horns

612. What therapy should be given preference at treatment of MS?

A. Immune modulating

B. * Immune suppressive

C. Vitamin therapy

D. Physiotherapy

E. Symptomatic

613. When do the signs of MS appear for the first time?

A. * In 20 – 40 years

B. In 5 – 10 years

C. In 50 – 60 years

D. In 70 – 80 years

E. After 80 years

614. Which dose of metilprednisoloni intravenous injection (by drops) is used for the treatment of ADEM?

A. 1 – 2 mg per kilo

B. 2 – 4 mg per kilo

C. 5 – 6 mg per kilo

D. 8 – 9 mg per kilo

E. * 10 – 15 mg per kilo

615. Which dose of prednisoloni is used for the treatment of MS exacerbation?

A. 0.1 mg per kilo

B. 0.3 mg per kilo

C. 0.5 mg per kilo

D. 0.6 mg per kilo

E. * 1.0 mg per kilo

616. Which group of muscles is dieing last one at ALS?

A. Abdominal

B. Breathing

C. * Oculomotor

D. Throat

E. Tongue

617. Which medicine need to be used in case of AMEM ?

A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednisolone

E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum

620. Which nerve is usually damaged at chronic luetic meningitis?

A. * Optic

B. acoustical

C. abducens

D. Oculomotorius

E. trigeminal

621. Which of the following clinical forms are the most often for acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. * Encephalomyelopoliradiculoneuritis

B. Polioencephalomyelitis

C. Opticomyelitis

D. Disseminated myelitis

E. Myasthenic syndrome

622. Which of the following is differential diagnosis of encephalomyelitis?


B. Tick’s encephalitis

C. ALS


E. Spinal tumor

623. Which of the following symptoms are not typical for the acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A. Rapid onset

B. Fever

C. Multiple focuses

D. * New unstable symptoms

E. Lesion of roots and peripheral nerves

624. Which structures of spinal cord are usually involved at atactic stage of tabes dorsalis?

A. * posterior columns

B. posterior horns

C. posterior roots

D. lateral columns

E. anterior horns

Tasks

1. 10 y.o. child has involuntary muscle contraction in extremities, face and body. Where is the lesion?

A. palidonigral system

B. * neostriatum

C. cerebellum

D. fronto-prefrontal region

E. precentral gyrus

2. 10 y.o. patient suddenly noticed red face, bloody foam from mouth, clonic and tonic seizures. He was admitted to the hospital without being in consciousness. Pupils are large and do not react to the light. These attacks constantly repeat on the background of coma. Eye ground is without changes. Pulse - 62 per min, rhythmic, BP – 115/70. EEG – single acute waves in both hemispheres. What is your diagnosis?

A. sympatho-adrenal crisis

B. Morgani-Adams-Stocks attack

C. * epileptic status

D. vago-insular crisis

E. hysteric attack

3. 16 y.o. patient complains on short lasting attacks of loosing consciousness (up to 15 sec) that are associated with rolling up of eyes (the information received from witnesses). It is

A. * complicated typical absence

B. simple typical absence

C. simple atypical absence

D. absence

E. pseudoabsence

4. 18 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. BP – 140/90. Pulse rate – 98 per min. Before the attack she noticed unpleasant taste. Where is the lesion?

A. left occipital lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. right occipital lobe

D. * temporal lobe

E. frontal lobe

5. 18 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. Before the attack she noticed visual hallucinations. Where is the lesion?

A. left parietal lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. right parietal lobe

D. * occipital lobe

E. frontal lobe

6. 19 y.o. patient complains on headache during the last 2 months. Several days ago he suddenly noticed tonic seizures in right foot fingers that spread to the calf, hip, right hand and transformed into clonic. He doesn’t loose his consciousness. The duration of attack was 3 min. Objectively – there are paresis of right foot after attack, positive Babinski sign on the right. What kind of seizure are those?

A. * Jackson epilepsy

B. Kozhevnikov epilepsy

C. myoclonic absence

D. huge epileptic attack

E. hysterical attack

7. 23 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. Before the attack she noticed numbness of right half of body. Where is the lesion?


B. temporal lobe


D. occipital lobe

E. frontal lobe

8. 23 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. Before the attack she noticed jerking movements in right extremities. Where is the lesion?


B. temporal lobe


D. occipital lobe

E. * frontal lobe

9. 24 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. BP – 130/80. Pulse rate – 104 per min. Before the attack he felt dizziness, noise in ears. The patient forgot the attack. Where is the lesion?


B. frontal lobe


D. parietal lobe

E. * temporal lobe

10. 25 y.o. patient has periodical seizures with loss of consciousness, interrupting breathing, frequent pulse rate, enlarged pupils, tongue biting, urine incontinence. The duration of attack is 1-5 min with afterwards sleeping and complete amnesia of attack. What medications should be used in this case?

A. * anti-seizures

B. diuretics

C. hypotensive

D. tranquilizators

E. neuroleptics

11. 25 y.o. patient has periodical seizures with loss of consciousness, interrupting breathing, frequent pulse rate, enlarged pupils, tongue biting, urine incontinence. The duration of attack is 1-5 min with afterwards sleeping and complete amnesia of attack. What kind of attack is that?

A. * hysteric

B. simple absence

C. complicated absence

D. generalized seizure

E. partial attack

12. 27 y.o. patient had first epileptic attack. During the next 3 years he suffered from such attacks 1-2 times per year. The patient has frequent acute respiratory diseases, quinsy, hereditary arterial hypertension, smokes, is alcohol abuse. What is the most probable risk factor for the development of seizures?

A. arterial hypertension

B. smoking

C. * alcohol abuse

D. acute respiratory diseases

E. quinsy

13. 28 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. BP – 140/90. Pulse rate – 98 per min. Before the attack he felt smell of fried rubber. Where is the lesion?


B. * temporal lobe


D. parietal lobe

E. frontal lobe

14. 30 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. BP – 150/100. Pulse rate – 100 per min. Before the attack he felt dizziness, feeling of unreality, fear. The patient forgot the attack. What diagnosis is that?

A. Morgani-Adams-Stocks syndrome

B. * epilepsy

C. vestibular syncope

D. TIA

E. hyperventilative ischemic attack

15. 30 y.o. patient suddenly lost consciousness. There are tonic-clonic seizures. BP – 150/100. Pulse rate – 100 per min. Before the attack he felt dizziness, feeling of unreality, fear. The patient forgot the attack. Where is the lesion?


B. frontal lobe


D. parietal lobe

E. * temporal lobe

16. 30 y.o. patient with epileptic disease noticed 3 attacks of tonic-clonic seizures during 1 hour. Consciousness doesn’t appear between the attacks. BP – 160/100. Pulse rate – 100 per min. Breathing is noisy with help of additional muscles. What state is in patient?

A. * epileptic state

B. long-lasting epileptic attack

C. series of epileptic attacks

D. TIA

E. cerebral – vascular crisis

17. 30 y.o. patient with epileptic disease noticed 3 attacks of tonic-clonic seizures during 2 hours. Consciousness between the attacks renewed. BP – 150/90. Pulse rate – 96 per min. Breathing is noisy with help of additional muscles. What state is in patient?

A. epileptic state

B. long-lasting epileptic attack

C. * series of epileptic attacks

D. TIA


18. 30 years old patient noticed three attacks of tonic–clonic seizures during 1 hour. Between attacks consciousness is lost. BP – is 160/100mm. Heart rate is 100 per 1 min. Breathing is noisy with participation of additional muscles. What is the name of this state?

A. * epileptic status

B. long lasting epileptic attack

C. series of epileptic attacks

D. transient ischemic attacks


19. 30 years old patient suddenly lost his consciousness. There are tonic – clonic seizures. BP is 150/100. Heart rate is 100 per min. Before attack he felt dizziness, feeling of unreality, fear. He forgets about attack. Which diagnosis is in patient?

A. Morgan – Adams – Stocks syndrome

B. * Epilepsy

C. Vestibular dizziness

D. Transient ischemic attack

E. Futonomic crisis

20. 32 y.o. patient has involuntary jerking movements of eyes and head to the left before huge epileptic attack. What type of seizures are these?

A. * adversive

B. absence

C. procursive

D. Jackson

E. postural

21. 32 y.o. patient has involuntary jerking movements of eyes and head to the left before huge epileptic attack. Where is the lesion?

A. precentral gyrus

B. postcentral gyrus

C. * middle frontal gyrus

D. lower frontal gyrus

E. upper frontal gyrus

22. 32 years old patient has attacks of seizures. Involuntary movements of eyes and head to the left are observed before them. What type of seizures is observed?

A. * Adversive

B. Absans

C. Procursive

D. Jackson

E. postural

23. 34 y.o. patient had clonic jerking movements in right arm without loss of consciousness 3 days ago. Where is the lesion?

A. upper part of left precentral gyrus

B. * middle part of left precentral gyrus

C. lower part of left precentral gyrus

D. upper part of left temporal lobe

E. upper part of left parietal lobe

24. 34 years old patient has attacks of seizures. Involuntary movements of eyes and head to the left are observed before them. What type of seizures is observed?

A. Jackson

B. Absans

C. Procursive

D. * Adversive

E. postural

25. 35 y.o. patient is being treated in endocrinology department with Itsenko-Kushing syndrome. The doctor suspected hypophysis tumor. What visual disorder is the most typical in this case?

A. homonymous hemianopsia

B. * bitemporal hemianopsia

C. binasal hemianopsia

D. quadrant anopsia

E. amaurosis

26. 35 y.o. patient noticed numbness of forehead skin on the left. 1 month after numbness spread to cheek and was associated with paroxysmal pain in left part of face that were not treated by analgesics. 1 month more after she noticed double vision while looking to the left. Objectively – small inside cross-eye on the left, disturbances of left eye movements outside, hypoalgesia with hyperpathy in forehead and cheek skin. What disease can be suspected?

A. arachnoiditis

B. multiple sclerosis

C. * tumor

D. neuropathy

E. neuralgia

27. 35 y.o. patient noticed numbness of forehead skin on the left. 1 month after numbness spread to cheek and was associated with paroxysmal pain in left part of face that were not treated by analgesics. 1 month more after she noticed double vision while looking to the left. Objectively – small inside cross-eye on the left, disturbances of left eye movements outside, hypoalgesia with hyperpathy in forehead and cheek skin. What disease can be suspected?

A. trigeminal neuralgia

B. trigeminal neuropathy

C. * trigeminal neurinoma

D. abducens nerve neuropathy

E. abducens nerve neurinoma

28. 35 y.o. patient noticed numbness of forehead skin on the left. 1 month after numbness spread to cheek and was associated with paroxysmal pain in left part of face that were not treated by analgesics. 1 month more after she noticed double vision while looking to the left. Objectively – small inside cross-eye on the left, disturbances of left eye movements outside, hypoalgesia with hyperpathy in forehead and cheek skin. What nerves are involved in pathological process?

A. VII and IV

B. V and IV

C. VII and VI

D. V and III

E. * V and VI

29. 35 y.o. patient noticed numbness of forehead skin on the left. 1 month after numbness spread to cheek and was associated with paroxysmal pain in left part of face that were not treated by analgesics. 1 month more after she noticed double vision while looking to the left. Objectively – small inside cross-eye on the left, disturbances of left eye movements outside, hypoalgesia with hyperpathy in forehead and cheek skin. What additional method of examination should be prescribed first of all?

A. EEG

B. Ultrasonography of main arteries of head

C. * МRI

D. Echo-EG

E. Lumbar puncture

30. 35 y.o. patient noticed numbness of forehead skin on the left. 1 month after numbness spread to cheek and was associated with paroxysmal pain in left part of face that were not treated by analgesics. 1 month more after she noticed double vision while looking to the left. Objectively – small inside cross-eye on the left, disturbances of left eye movements outside, hypoalgesia with hyperpathy in forehead and cheek skin. What additional method of examination should be prescribed first of all?

A. EEG


C. * CT-scan

D. Echo-EG

E. Lumbar puncture

31. 35 y.o. patient suffers from short lasting without seizures attacks (stiffness),that are finished with involuntary laughing, elementary motor automatism and involuntary urination. What medication should be used for prevention of attacks?

A. Phenobarbital

B. * Karbamazepin

C. papaverinum

D. Difeninum

E. Hexamidinum

32. 35 y.o. patient suffers from short lasting without seizures attacks (stiffness),that are finished with involuntary laughing, elementary motor automatism and involuntary urination. What kind of attack is that?

A. * absence


C. myoclonus

D. generalized tonic-clonic attack

E. Jackson epilepsy

33. 35 years old patient suffers from short – lasting without seizure attack in form of immobility. The attack is finished with involuntary laughing, elementary – motor automatism and involuntary urination. Which medication should be used for attack prevention?

A. Phenobarbital

B. * Carbamazepin

C. Papaverin

D. Diphenin

E. Hexamidin

34. 43 y.o. patient suffers from smell and taste hallucinations during the last 2 weeks. Where is the lesion?

A. * temporal lobe

B. left frontal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. occipital lobe


35. 56 y.o. patient lost ability to dress herself, to use spoon and cup. There are no paresis. Where is the lesion?

A. left precentral gyrus

B. left postcentral gyrus

C. * left gyrus supramarginalis

D. left lower frontal gyrus

E. left middle frontal gyrus

36. 56 y.o. patient with visual acuity 1,0 lost ability to recognize relatives. What pathology is that?

A. * visual agnosia

B. heteronymous hemianopsia

C. amaurosis

D. homonymous hemianopsia

E. ambliopia

37. 56 y.o. patient with visual acuity 1,0 lost ability to recognize relatives during the last month. She suffers from headache and frequent dizziness. Where is the lesion?

A. * convex surface of occipital lobe

B. visual tract

C. medial surface of occipital lobe

D. optic nerve

E. thalamus

38. 6 months ago the patient noticed right ear noise. There were several attacks of dizziness. He even used phone on left ear as he lost hearing on right one. Several days before he was admitted to the hospital he noticed facial asymmetry. What pathology was suspected?

A. arachnoiditis

B. * ponto-cerebellar tumor

C. acoustical nerve neuropathy

D. facial nerve neuropathy

E. vertebro-basilar insufficiency

39. 6 months ago the patient noticed right ear noise. There were several attacks of dizziness. He even used phone on left ear as he lost hearing on right one. Several days before he was admitted to the hospital he noticed facial asymmetry. What additional method of examination should be prescribed?

A. EEG


C. * MRI

D. Echo-EG

E. Lumbar puncture

40. 6 months ago the patient noticed right ear noise. There were several attacks of dizziness. He even used phone on left ear as he lost hearing on right one. Several days before he was admitted to the hospital he noticed facial asymmetry. What structures of brain are involved in pathological process?

A. VIII CN

B. VII CN

C. * VII and VIII CNs

D. V CN

E. VIII and V CNs

41. A 34 years old women compliance for dizziness, emotional instability, suizures in upper extremities muscles, frequently at day time without loss of consciousness, tongue biting, or retention of urine. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Convunsive syndrome

B. Brain tumor

C. * Hysterical attack

D. Meningitis

E. TIA

42. A 36 years old women compliance for dizziness, emotional instability, suizures in upper extremities muscles, frequently at day time without loss of consciousness, tongue biting, or retention of urine. Put previous diagnosis:

A. * Hysterical attack

B. Motor Jackson

C. Epileptic attacks without seizures

D. Meningitis

E. TIA

43. In 10 years old patient face suddenly became red. There is bloody foam from mouth. Tonic and clonic seizures are present. He was hospitalized without consciousness. Pupils are wide and they do not react to light. These attacks are constantly repeated on the background of coma. Eye ground is without changes. Pulse is 62 per min, rhythmic. Bp – is 115 /70. On EEG there are single acute waves in both hemispheres. What is your diagnosis?

A. sympatho – adrenal crisis

B. Morgani- Adams – Stocks attack

C. * epileptic status

D. vago – insular crisis

E. hysteria

44. In 25 years old patient seizures are usually developed with lost of consciousness, interrupting breathing, frequent pulse rate, wideness of pupils, biting of tongue’s top, with

urination, sleeping after attack and amnesia of attack. Which medications are used in this case?

A. * anti seizure

B. diuretics

C. hypotensive

D. tranquilizers

E. narcoleptics

45. In patient are attacks of right foot jerking movements that spread to the whole leg and alst several min. She didn’t loose her consciousness. While examination there are right foot paresis, depp reflexes on right leg are increased, positive babinski sign on the right. What is the type of attack?

A. absans


C. myoclonus

D. generalized tonic – clonic attack

E. * Jackson epilepsy

46. On the background of electrical shock the patient received generalized epileptic attack. There are no pathological findings in neurological status. There are no focal signs on MRI. What did develop in this patient?

A. * epileptic reaction

B. epileptic disease

C. epileptic syndrome

D. alcohol abuse

E. hysteric reaction

47. ?Patient with brain tumor suffers from motor Jackson epilepsy. Where is the lesion?

A. * precentral gyrus

B. postcentral gyrus

C. middle frontal lobe

D. lower frontal lobe

E. upper temporal lobe

48. The baby is 3 months old. The size of head after childbirth was 35 sm, while examination it was 45 sm. Objectively – there are signs of excitement, bulging fontanel. The size of large fontanel are 4x4. Sagital suture is opened up to 1 sm. The baby vomits and is less developed in psychomotor aspect. There are features of stagnation on eye ground. It is

A. microcephalus

B. meningitis

C. rachitis

D. * hydrocephalus

E. craniostenosis

49. The doctor decided to use combinative therapy in patient with asynchronous and atypical seizures because of monotherapy ineffectiveness. What combination is not desirable in this patient?

A. lamotrigini/topiramat

B. walproats/topiramat

C. walproats/ lamotrigini

D. * karbamazepin/fenotoin

E. karbamazepin/walproats





D. * karbamazepin/ lamotrigini






D. * karbamazepin/ topiramat






D. * walproats / fenotoin


53. The patient complains on headache, decreased memory and disorders of vision. There are chocked disk of optic nerve on the right and atrophy of left optic nerve on the eye ground. What tumor is characterized by such clinical picture?

A. * pole of frontal lobe

B. pole of temporal lobe

C. Parietal lobe

D. Occipital lobe

E. Frontal lobe

54. The patient complains on headache, decreased memory and disorders of vision. There are chocked disk of optic nerve on the right and atrophy of left optic nerve on the eye ground. What visual syndrome is that?

A. salus I

B. chiasmal

C. * Foster-Kennedy

D. Salus II

E. Argil-Robertson

55. The patient complains on morning headache associated sometimes with nausea, tiredness, decreased memory and workability. She suffered from all above 3 months. Her colleagues noticed that she has changed in behavior – she becomes too slow, makes lots of faults in her professional activity. Objectively – mood is bad, positive Bechterev sign on the left, right side pyramidal insufficiency. What pathology can be suspected?

A. encephalopathy

B. depression

C. * brain tumor

D. stroke

E. encephalitis

56. The patient complains on morning headache associated sometimes with nausea, tiredness, decreased memory and workability. She suffered from all above 3 months. Her colleagues noticed that she has changed in behavior – she becomes too slow, makes lots of faults in her professional activity. Objectively – mood is bad, positive Bechterev sign on the left, right side pyramidal insufficiency, positive phenomena of Yanishevskyy. Where is the lesion?

A. parietal lobe

B. * frontal lobe

C. occipital lobe

D. temporal lobe

E. cerebellum

57. The patient complains on morning headache associated sometimes with nausea, tiredness, decreased memory and workability. She suffered from all above 3 months. Her colleagues noticed that she has changed in behavior – she becomes too slow, makes lots of faults in her professional activity. Objectively – mood is bad, positive Bechterev sign on the left, right side pyramidal insufficiency, positive phenomena of Yanishevskyy. What additional method of examination should be prescribed?

A. EEG


C. * CT-scan

D. Echo-EG

E. Lumbar puncture

58. The patient complains on morning headache associated sometimes with nausea, tiredness, decreased memory and workability. She suffered from all above 3 months. Her colleagues noticed that she has changed in behavior – she becomes too slow, makes lots of faults in her professional activity. Objectively – mood is bad, positive Bechterev sign on the left, right side pyramidal insufficiency, positive phenomena of Yanishevskyy. What additional method of examination should be prescribed?

A. EEG


C. * MRI

D. Echo-EG

E. Lumbar puncture

59. The patient complains on short lasting attacks of loosing consciousness (up to 15 sec) that are associated with falling of head to the chest. It is

A. absence

B. * complicated typical absence


D. simple typical absence

E. pseudoabsence

60. The patient complains on short lasting attacks of loosing consciousness (up to 15 sec) that are associated with chewing movements. It is

A. absence

B. simple typical absence


D. * complicated typical absence

E. pseudoabsence

61. The patient had generalized epileptic attack on he background of alcohol abuse and sleeplessness. There is no pathology in neurological status. There are no focal signs on MRI. What probably developed in patient?

A. epileptic disease

B. * epileptic reaction

C. epileptic syndrome

D. alcohol abuse

E. hysteric reaction

62. The patient has central tetraparesis, conductive sensory disorders and constant hiccup. Where is the tumor?

A. * on the level of upper cervical part

B. on the level of foramen occipitalis

C. on the level of cervical thickness

D. on the level of thoracic part

E. on the level of lumbar thickness

63. The patient has hearing hallucinations before the attack of seizures. Where is the lesion?

A. frontal lobe

B. lower temporal gyrus

C. postcentral gyrus

D. Gurus angularis

E. * Heshlia zone

64. The patient has left hand astereognosis. Superficial and deep sensation in hand are preserved. Where is the lesion?


B. * right parietal lobe



E. thalamus

65. The patient has peripheral arm’s paresis, increased reflexes and muscle tone in legs, pelvic organs disorder. Where is the tumor?

A. on the level of upper cervical part


C. * on the level of cervical thickness



66. The patient has precentral gyrus tumor. What sign is typical for this patient?

A. * motor Jackson epilepsy

B. anosmia

C. monoanesthesia

D. hemianopsia

E. alexia

67. The patient has sensory and amnestic aphasia that appears one month ago and are in progress. Where is the lesion?

A. right temporal lobe


C. left parietal lobe

D. * left temporal lobe


68. The patient noticed attacks of jerking movements in right foot that spread to the whole leg and last several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. While examination – there is paresis of right foot after attack, deep reflexes on right leg are increased, positive Babinski sign on the right. What kind of attack is that?

A. absence


C. myoclonus



69. The patient noticed attacks of jerking movements in right foot that spread to the whole leg and last several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. While examination – there is paresis of right foot after attack, deep reflexes on right leg are increased, positive Babinski sign on the right. Where is the lesion?


B. temporal lobe


D. occipital lobe

E. * frontal lobe

70. The patient noticed attacks of jerking movements in right foot that spread to the whole leg and last several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. While examination – there is paresis of right foot after attack, deep reflexes on right leg are increased, positive Babinski sign on the right. Where is the lesion?

A. * left precentral gyrus

B. left postcentral gyrus

C. right precentral gyrus

D. right postcentral gyrus

E. left lower frontal gyrus

71. The patient noticed attacks of numbness in right foot that spread to the whole right half of the body and last up to several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. What kind of attack is that?

A. absence


C. myoclonus



72. The patient noticed enlarged eyebrow arches, nose, ears, mandible and distal parts of extremities. What tumor can be suspected in this patient?

A. * hypophysis

B. thalamus

C. corpus callosum

D. frontal lobe

E. temporal lobe

73. The patient noticed enlarged eyebrow arches, nose, ears, mandible and distal parts of extremities. What kind of tumor can be suspected in this patient?

A. * adenoma of hypophysis

B. oligodendroglioma

C. ependimoma

D. meningioma

E. astrocytoma

74. The patient suffers from attacks of numbness in right foot, that spread to the whole right half of the body and last several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. Where is the lesion?


B. temporal lobe


D. occipital lobe

E. frontal lobe

75. The patient suffers from attacks of numbness in right foot, that spread to the whole right half of the body and last several min. She doesn’t loose her consciousness. Where is the lesion?

A. left precentral gyrus

B. * left postcentral gyrus

C. right precentral gyrus

D. right postcentral gyrus

E. left lower frontal gyrus

76. The patient suffers from epileptic disease during 12 years. He used walproats during all this period, but due to the increased frequency of attacks the doctor made correction of treatment and prescribed medication of new generation. Which of the next medications is the one from new generation?

A. walprokom

B. * tiagabin

C. karbamazepin

D. etosuxemid

E. clonazepam


A. walprokom

B. * keppra

C. karbamazepin

D. etosuxemid

E. clonazepam


A. walprokom

B. etosuxemid

C. karbamazepin

D. * gabapentin

E. clonazepam

79. The patient suffers from gradually developed deafness, cerebellar ataxia, facial paresis and loss of sensation on the left. It is

A. * Nevrinoma of acustic nerve

B. Arachnoiditis of ponto – cerebellar angel

C. Cerebellar tumor

D. Brain stem ischemic stroke

E. Tuberculosis meningitis

80. The patient suffers from increased subeyebrow arches, nose, ear shells, mandible, and distal parts of extremities. What tumor is in this patient?

A. * Adenoma of hypophysis

B. Oligodendroglioma

C. Ependimoma

D. Meningioma

E. Astrocytoma

81. The patient suffers from periodical smell hallucinations. Where is the lesion?


B. * temporal lobe

C. parietal lobe

D. occipital lobe


82. The patient was admitted to the hospital with central paresis of lower extremities, absent abdominal reflexes, conductive sensory disoders from the level D6. Where is the tumor?




D. * on the level of thoracic part


83. The patient was admitted to the hospital with peripheral legs paresis, true urine and feces incontinence. Where is the tumor?





E. * on the level of lumbar thickness

84. The patient was diagnosed brain metastasis on MRI. What tumor usually gives metastasis to brain?

A. kidney

B. prostate

C. suprarenal glands

D. * lungs

E. stomach

85. The patient was diagnosed brain metastasis on MRI. What additional methods of examination should be made first of all?

A. * CT-scan of lungs

B. Ultrasonography of kidneys

C. Ultrasonography of thyroid gland

D. Ultrasonography of prostate

E. Colonoscopy

86. The patient was diagnosed brain tumor. He doesn’t differ right and left side of his body. What symptom is that?

A. * autotopagnosia

B. agraphy

C. acalculia

D. apraxia

E. alexia

87. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with frequent generalized seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 4 and more per week

B. 4 and more per year

C. 4 and more per day

D. * 4 and more per month

E. 4 and more per half a year

88. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with rare generalized seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 1-2 per week

B. 1-2 per year

C. 1-2 per day

D. 1-2 per month

E. * 1-2 per half a year

89. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with moderately frequent generalized seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 3 per week

B. 3 per year

C. 3 per day

D. 3 per month

E. * 3 per half a year

90. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with frequent partial seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 5 and more per week

B. 5 and more per year

C. * 5 and more per day

D. 5 and more per month

E. 5 and more per half a year

91. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with rare partial seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 1-2 per week

B. 1-2 per year

C. * 1-2 per day

D. 1-2 per month

E. 1-2 per half a year

92. The patient was diagnosed epileptic disease with moderately frequent partial seizures. How many seizures in patient give us possibility to put such diagnosis?

A. 3-4 per week

B. 3-4 per year

C. * 3-4 per day

D. 3-4 per month

E. 3-4 per half a year

93. The patient with acromegaloid features of face was suspected hypophysis tumor. What visual disorder is the most typical in this case?

A. homonymous hemianopsia

B. * bitemporal hemianopsia

C. binasal hemianopsia

D. quadrant anopsia

E. amaurosis

94. The patient with acromegaloid features of face was suspected hypophysis tumor. What changes on craniogram are typical in this case?

A. osteosclerosis of Turkish saddle wall

B. * osteoporosis of Turkish saddle wall

C. discrepancy of sutures

D. no changes

E. osteoporosis of pyramidal top

95. The patient with epileptic disease has focus of pathological activity on EEG. What are pathophysiological properties of epileptic focus?

A. Increased synaptic conductivity

B. synphase of discharges

C. determination

D. * all above

E. synchronous discharges

96. The patient with epileptic disease has focus of pathological activity on EEG. What pathophysiological properties are not typical for epileptic focus?

A. Increased synaptic conductivity

B. synphase of discharges

C. determination

D. * decreased synaptic conductivity

E. synchronous discharges

97. The patient with severe headache that is associated with nausea and vomiting suffers from hesitating gate. In neurological status there are nystagmus, ataxia, scanning speech, intentional tremor. It is

A. * cerebellar ataxia

B. vestibular ataxia

C. sensitive ataxia

D. astasia-abasia

E. Menyer syndrome

98. The patient with spinal cord tumor has central palysis of right leg and disorders of superficial sensation from the level ThVIII according to the conductive type on the left. Where is the lesion?

A. Th VІІІ on the right

B. * Th VІ on the right

C. Th VІІІ on the left

D. Th VІІІ on the left

E. Th VІІ on the left

99. The patient with spinal cord tumor has central palysis of right leg and disorders of superficial sensation from the level ThVII according to the conductive type on the left. Where is the lesion?

A. Th VІІ on the right

B. * Th V on the right

C. Th VІІ on the left

D. Th VІІ on the left

E. Th VІІ on the left

100. The patient with tumor suffers from sensory aphasia. Where is the tumor?

A. right temporal lobe


C. left parietal lobe

D. * left temporal lobe


101. The patient with visual disorders was diagnosed lower quadrant leftside hemianopsia. Where is the lesion?

A. * cuneus of right occipital lobe

B. gyrus lingualis of right occipital lobe

C. cuneus of left occipital lobe

D. gyrus lingualis of left occipital lobe

E. right optic tract

102. The state of patient with diagnosis brain tumor got worse. There are severe headache, constant vomiting, unstable BP, bradycardia, midriasis, gaze paresis upwards. What complication appeared in this case? What syndrome is that?

A. focal

B. * dislocation

C. meningeal

D. intoxication

E. general cerebral

103. The state of patient with diagnosis brain tumor got worse. There are severe headache, constant vomiting, unstable BP, bradycardia, midriasis, gaze paresis upwards. What complication appeared in this case? What syndrome is that?

A. focal

B. * Brunse

C. meningeal

D. Burdenko-Kramer

E. general cerebral

104. 16 years old patient complains on headache in frontal and temporal parts, sub eyebrow arches, vomiting on the top of headache, pain while movements of eye bulbs, pain in joints. Objectively – she is excited. The temperature is 39 ?C. Pulse is 110 per min. There are tonic and clonic seizures. Meningeal signs are slightly expressed. What is your diagnosis?

A. * Flu with brain edema

B. Flu. Classic course of the disease

C. Respiratory-syncytial infection

D. para-flu

E. adenovirus infection

105. 17 years old boy got sick. The beginning of the disease was acute. In the morning he noticed severe headache, vomiting, fever up to 39,9 °C. He used some anti fever drugs, but the state got worse. In the evening he lost his consciousness. Meningeal signs are well expressed. What is your diagnosis?

A. Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock

B. Typhus

C. Viral meningoencephalitis

D. * Meningococcal infection, meningitis

E. Staphilococcal food intoxication

106. 17 years old patient was admitted to the hospital with complains on numbness in left arm, cheek. The disease started 2 months ago after emotional stress. During the last week these signs repeated twice. The duration of attacks is about 20 min. objectively – the general state of patient is satisfactory. Eyes are D

A. Bag-like aneurism

B. Tumor of right parietal lobe

C. Arterio-venous malformation

D. Rheumatic vasculitis

E. * Cerebral arachnoiditis

107. 18 years old girl got sick very rapidly – slight running nose, coughing, abdominal pain, liquid feces 2 – 3 times per day. Temperature is 38,5 ?С. On the third day of disease those symptoms disappeared. On fourth day of disease weakness in right leg was observed. Objectively – active movements in leg are absent, passive are painful. Sensation is preserved. Muscles of hip are flaccid. Palpation of nervous trunks is painful. Knee and Achilles reflexes on right leg are absent. In blood – there is leucocytes 4,2.109 , SR – 6 mm per hour. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. polyneuropathy

B. * Poliomyelitis

C. Botulism

D. encephalomyelitis

E. tick encephalitis

108. 2 days ago patient noticed severe pain in left chest, general weakness, sub febrile temperature. Objectively – there are vesicles with serous transparent content along 6th – 7th between ribs nerves on hyperemic skin. What is your diagnosis?

A. Herpetiformal dermatose of During

B. simple herpes

C. streptococcal impetigo

D. simple vesicles

E. * Transversal herpes

109. 23 years old patient is being treated in tuberculosis department with complains on headache, neck stiffness, positive Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, and eye movements’ disorders. After LP the headache decreased. What changes of CSF will be typical for this patient?

A. Bloody

B. Ksantochromic

C. * purulent

D. Opalescent

E. transparent

110. 23 years old patient was traveling by train near open window. In the morning she noticed that right eye is not completely closed, mouth is turned to the left, and meal is staying between right cheek and gum. Face is asymmetrical; skin folds on the right are smoothed, right eye is wider then the left one. Tears are on the right. Right eye brow cannot be lifted. Right cheek is blown. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. * Bell’s palsy

B. basal arachnoiditis

C. ponto – cerebellar tumor

D. facial myositis

E. facial hemispasm

111. 25 years old patient got sick gradually. Т 37-37,6 ?С. She suffers from moderate headache, rough dry coughing, pain in throat, dysphonia. While examination the patient is slow. She is afraid of pain. There are neck stiffness, slightly expressed Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Using of what diagnostic method is the most important in this case?

A. * LP

B. Bacterioscopy of “thick” drop

C. General blood analysis

D. nasal and pharynx smear

E. Serologic exam

112. 25 years old woman suddenly felt severe headache, nausea, neck pain, low back pain. She was hospitalized to the clinics. Objectively there is hemorrhagic rash. Temperature is 39,0C. Meningeal signs are well expressed. There is light, tactile, pain hyperesthesia. In blood – leucocytes are 25*109/l, SR-29 mm per hour. CSF is cloudy. There is neutrophil pleocytosis, meningococus in CSF. What is your diagnosis?

A. Staphylococcal meningitis

B. * meningococcal meningitis

C. Tuberculosis meningitis

D. Viral meningitis

E. Pneumococcal meningitis.

113. 27 years old patient complains on attack like pain in upper and middle part of face (up to 1- 2 min). He is been sick during 2 months. Objectively – there is painful palpation of supra and infraorbital points on the right. What is your diagnosis?

A. trigeminal neuropathy

B. Temporo – mandible arthritis

C. * trigeminal neuralgia

D. Sluder syndrome

E. ganglionitis

114. 27 years old patient is being treated in tuberculosis hospital. During the last 3 weeks he suffers from severe headache. There are positive meningeal signs. There is no paresis. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Meningitis

B. Encephalitis

C. Brain tumor

D. Cerebral arachnoiditis

E. Brain vessels endarteritis

115. 32 years old patient had flu with bronchitis, fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and pain in muscles of abdomen, chest pain, ulcers on pharynx. While examination there are positive Kernig sign, neck stiffness. CSF: cytosis up to 400 cells in 1 mm3. What is your diagnosis?

A. * Aseptic acute meningitis (Coxaki)

B. quinsy

C. Epidemic encephalitis

D. subarachnoid hemorrhage

E. Diphtheria

116. 35 years old patient after lifting heavy thing felt severe pain in lumbar region that irradiated to the right leg and increased at movements and coughing. Objectively – long muscles of back are strained. Achilles reflex on the right is decreased. Paravertebral points of lumbar region are painful. Positive Laseg sign is present on the right. Which additional method of investigation you will prescribe?


B. CT – scan

C. * MRI

D. Electromyography

E. LP

117. 35 years old patient got sick acutely. In the morning he noticed severe headache, vomiting, fever. The state got worse during the day. In the evening he lost consciousness. Objectively – there is well expressed neck stiffness, positive Kernig sign. In blood leucocytes are 18,0х109/l. What changes of CSF will be typical for this patient?

A. Bloody

B. Ksantochromic

C. * purulent

D. Opalescent

E. transparent

118. 35 years old patient was hospitalized on the third day of disease with complains on general weakness, double vision, decreased visual acuity and disorders of swallowing. Disease started with nausea, vomiting, and liquid feces. Day before this she ate mushrooms. Now the temperature is normal. State is severe. She is adynamic. Skin is pale. Voice is nasal. Ptosis is well expressed. There is midriasis, anizokoria, diplopia. Which factor is considered to be the main one in pathogenesis of this disease?

A. Stimulation by eksotoxin adenilatcyclasa

B. * nervous impulse transmittance disorders

C. Introducing of agent in enterocytes

D. Introducing of agent in lymphoid structures of small intestine

E. Introducing and fixing of agent in neurons of oblong brain and hippocampus

119. 36- years old men hospitalized to neurology department with severe headache, dyplopia, light and noise fear. It happened suddenly when he lifted heavy baggage. Objectively: patient has minimal disorders of consciousness, strabismus, symptom of Kernig positive on both sides. SCF with fresh blood. Which medicine should be used as soon as possible?

A. * Nimotop

B. Nicotinic acid

C. Glutamin acid

D. Ascorbinic acid

E. Heparinum

120. 37- years old men hospitalized to neurology department with severe headache, dyplopia, light and noise fear. It happened suddenly when he lifted heavy baggage. Objectively: patient has minimal disorders of consciousness, strabismus, dyplopia, symptom of Kernig positive on both sides 90, no signs of paresis. SCF with fresh blood. Which medicine should be used as soon as possible?

A. * Nimotop

B. Nicotinic acid

C. Heparinum

D. Ascorbinic acid

E. Glutamin acid

121. 40 years old patient suffers from meningococcal meningitis. He receives huge doses of penicillin during 7 days. During the last 4 days the temperature is 36,6-36,8 ?C. Meningeal signs are absent. What are the most optimal conditions for antibiotic refusing?

A. Hypertonia is absent; CSF is cloudy, increased cellular and protein content

B. There is no leucocytosis and increased quantity of cones in blood

C. At cytosis 100 and less in CSF, neutrophils dominate

D. * At cytosis 100 and less in CSF, lymphocytes dominate

E. At cytosis 150 in CSF, lymphocytes dominate

122. 41- years old men hospitalized to neurology department with severe headache, dyplopia, light and noise fear. It happened suddenly when he lifted heavy baggage. Objectively: patient has minimal disorders of consciousness, strabismus, dyplopia, symptom of Kernig positive on both sides, no signs of paresis. SCF with fresh blood. Which medicine should be used as soon as possible?

A. Heparinum

B. Nicotinic acid

C. * EAKA

D. Ascorbinic acid

E. Glutamin acid

123. 42 years old patient felt severe back pain in lumbar region after lifting heavy thing. Lumbar muscles are strained. Paravertebral points LV – S1 are painful. Scoliosis. Movements in lumbar region are limited. Positive Laseg sign is present on the left. Left Achilles reflex is low. On X – ray highness of disc L5 – S1 is decreased. Spikes on L5 – S1 are present. What is your diagnosis?

A. * left side radiculopathy

B. left side lumbar ischialgia

C. left side radiculoischemia

D. piriformis muscle syndrome

E. coccigodynia

124. 42 years old woman complains on leg weakness, hesitating while walking. She is sick during 10 years. She uses alcohol frequently. BP is 130/70. There is horizontal nystagmus, scanning speech. Abdominal reflexes are decreased bilaterally. Deep reflexes from lower extremities are high. There are positive pathological reflexes of Babinski and Rossolimo bilaterally. Gate is spastic – atactic. In blood – leucocytes - 8.109/l, SR - 8 mm per hour, RW – is “- “. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. toxic polyneuropathy

B. Parkinson disease

C. lumbar – sacral radiculitis

D. * multiple sclerosis

E. tabes dorsalis

125. 42 years old worker noticed severe acute lumbar pain with irradiation to the posterior part of hip. There is scoliosis of lumbar region to the right, weakness while extension of left foot fingers, low Achilles reflex on the left, hypoalgesia on external surface of left leg and foot. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. vertebrogenous lumboischalgia

B. * radiculoischemia L5

C. lumbago

D. Horse tail syndrome

E. myeloischemia

126. 42-years old patient during cleaning carpets appeared severe headache, vomiting, he couldn’t recognize well-known people. Consciousness is entangled, he is disorientated, motor excitement, pulse – 74 per 1 min, BP is 160/100, rigiditi of occipital muscles, symptom of Kernig is high expressed, Brydzinski positive on both sides, paralyses and disorders of sensation aren’t peasant and tendon reflexes are low. Which pathological process could possible cause those symptoms?

A. Dynamic cerebral blood circulation disturbances

B. Epileptic attack (type of twilight disorder of consciousness)

C. Hemorrhage in a left frontal lobe

D. A dislocation syndrome by brain tumor

E. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage

127. 43 years old patient with periodic attacks of pain in right facial part was diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia. Which medication should be prescribed?

A. solpadeinum

B. * Finlepsin

C. tramadolum

D. analginum

E. Indomethacinum

128. 45 years old patient was hospitalized on the second day of disease with complains on general weakness, double vision, dryness in mouth, constipation. Three days before the disease she ate home made pork. Objectively – pupils are wide, reaction on light is slow, ptosis and horizontal nystagmus are present. There is paresis of soft palate on the right. What is the most effective treatment of this disease?

A. salt solutions + sorbets

B. * antibotulism antitoxic serum

C. antiviral + antihistamine

D. antibiotics + prednisolonum

E. sulphanilamids + enzymes

129. 45 years old patient with open cranial trauma is in traumatology department. His state is severe. Meningeal signs are well expressed. There is neck stiffness. CSF is cloudy, pressure is 600 mm, protein is 0,9 gram per l, cytosis is 1200 (neutrophils -85 %, lymphocytes-15 %). What complication developed in patient?

A. Meningoencephalitis

B. Viral meningitis

C. * Bacterial meningitis

D. Brain abscess

E. Intracranial hematoma

130. 50 – years old woman complains on attacks of acute pain in right facial part during talking, eating. There is spasm of right mimic muscles. Skin in this part is red. Teeth are not healthy. There is no other pathology. What I s the most possible diagnosis?

A. facial nerve neuritis

B. * trigeminal neuralgia

C. migraine

D. chronic sinusitis

E. diffuse pulpitis

131. 68-years old man felt weakness of left arm and leg in the morning time. Objectively: body temperature is normal, PS-56/min, BP-200/140, no signs of consciousness disorders. Left mouth angle is located lower than normally, deviation of the protruded tongue to the left-side; paresis, muscular hypertension, hyperreflection, Babinski and Oppenheim’s sigs are positive on the left side. Blood analysis: Le-7?109/l.Put previous diagnosis:

A. Brain tumor

B. Hemorrhage stroke

C. * Ischemic stroke

D. Brain abscess

E. Acute meningitis

132. 70-years old man felt weakness of left arm and leg in the morning time. Objectively: body temperature is normal, PS-65/min, BP-230/140, no signs of consciousness disorders. Left mouth angle is located lower than normally, deviation of the protruded tongue to the left-side; paresis, muscular hypertension, hyperreflection, Babinski and Oppenheim’s sigs are positive on the left side. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Brain tumor


C. Brain abscess

D. * Ischemic stroke

E. Acute meningitis

133. 72-years old in the morning time couldn’t stand up from the bad, cause of paralysis of right extremities, had speech disorders. A day before he had a severe headache and dizziness. Objectively: BP-110/65, face paleness, no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, active movements in the right extremities are absent, on the right-side: hypotonia, hypesthesia, hyperreflexion, Babinski symptom. Put previous diagnosis:

A. * Atherothrombotic ischemic stroke


C. Embolism of anterior cerebral artery

D. Cardioembolic ischemic stroke in posterior cerebral artery

E. Hemorrhage in brain tumor

134. 81-years old woman in the morning time couldn’t stand up from the bad, cause of paralysis of right extremities, had speech disorders. Objectively: face paleness, no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, active movements in the right extremities are absent, on the right-side: hypotonia, hypesthesia, hyperreflexion, Babinski symptom. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Hemorrhage in brain tumor


C. Cardioembolic stroke of anterior cerebral artery

D. Haemodynamic ischemic stroke in posterior cerebral artery

E. * Atherothrombotic Ischemic stroke

135. A 67-years old man couldn’t stand up from the bad in the morning, ‘cause of paralysis of right extremities, had speech disorders. A day before he had a severe headache and dizziness. Objectively: face paleness, no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, active movements in the right extremities are absent, on the right-side: hypotonia, hypesthesia, hyperreflexion, Babinski symptom. Previous diagnosis:

A. Embolism of left middle cerebral artery

B. Hemorrhage stroke in right hemisphere

C. * Ischemic stroke caused by thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery

D. Nonthrombotic ischemic stroke in basin anterior cerebral artery

E. Hemorrhage in the tumor of right hemisphere

136. A 68 years old man is hospitalized with the signs of the intra-abdominal bleeding after falling from a height. After the operation – splenectomy, was found out the increase of fibrinolytic activity of blood. Most effective medicines in this case is:

A. EAKA with fibrinogeni

B. Protamini sulfatis

C. * Heparinum with fibrinolizini

D. Polyhybrid

E. Rheopolyglucinum

137. A 69-years old man has speech disorders. A day before he had a severe headache and dizziness. Objectively: face paleness, no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, active movements in the right extremities are absent, on the right-side: hypotonia, hypesthesia, hyperreflexion, Babinski symptom. Previous diagnosis:

A. * Ischemic stroke caused by thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery


C. Embolism of left middle cerebral artery



138. A 70-years old man in the early morning felt weakness in left extremities that was increasing during 24 hours. Objectively: no signs of consciousness disorders or meningeal syndrome, left-side hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia, hyperreflection. PS-74/min, BP-140/90, body temperature is normal. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Encephalitis

B. Brain tumor

C. Hemorrhage stroke

D. Dynamic cerebral blood circulation disturbances

E. * Ischemic stroke

139. A 72-years old man couldn’t stand up from the bad in the morning, ‘cause of paralysis of right extremities, had speech disorders. A day before he had a severe headache and dizziness. Objectively: BP-110/65, face paleness, : no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, active movements in the right extremities are absent, on the right-side: hypotonia, hypesthesia, hyperreflexion, Babinski symptom. Previous diagnosis:

A. * Ischemic stroke caused by thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery


C. Embolism of left middle cerebral artery



140. A 78 years old patient suffers from hypertonic disease and ischemic heart disease for many years, felt weakness in the left extremities that increased during 2 hours. Objectively: no signs of consciousness disorders, PS-68/min, BP-160/100, left mouth angle is located lower than normally, central paresis of left extremities, left-side hemihypesthesia. Put previous diagnosis:

A. * Ischemic stroke

B. Hemorrhagic stroke

C. Hypertensive cerebral crisis

D. Dyscirculative encephalopathy

E. Dynamic cerebral blood circulation disturbances

141. At 71 years old patient had began seizures with the loss of consciousness with retention of urine. Patient lost his speech ability. A face is asymmetric, a tongue deviates to the right, a moderate weakness in right extremities, BP-115/70, PS-68/min, arrhythmia. Breathing is normal, 20 per minute. What pathogenesis can explain this complication?

A. * Cardiogenic thromboembolism of cerebral vessels

B. Thrombosis of internal carotid artery

C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D. Repeated hard attack with shock

E. Full transversal blockade (Morganj-Adams-Stock attack)

142. In 37 years old man severe pain in lumbal – sacral region appeared after catching cold. Knee and Achilles reflexes are low. Hypoesthesia in zone L4 – S2 is well expressed. Positive Laseg and Neri sign. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Meningoradiculitis

B. Sciatic radiculitis bilaterally

C. * Lumbal – sacral radiculitis

D. Discogenic ischioradiculitis

E. Lumbalgia

143. In 49 years old patient, after disturbance of brain blood circulation, appeared right-side hemiparesis and motor aphasia. Which arteries are occluded?

A. * Left middle cerebral artery

B. Right posterior cerebral artery

C. Right middle cerebral artery

D. Left anterior cerebral artery

E. Right anterior cerebral artery

144. In 56 years old patient 2 days ago attacks of pain in left part of thorax appeared. These were associated with general weakness, fever, and headache. Objectively – along left IVth and Vth between ribs spaces vesicles with transparent content (2 – 4 mm in diameter) on the background of erythema and edema are observed. Which disease has such a clinical picture?

A. chicken pox

B. simple herpes

C. * Transversal herpes

D. streptococcal impetigo

E. rosacea

145. In a 48 years old patient with perforation of gastric ulcer on the second day, at the night time, after an operation appeared a central right-side hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia and speech disorders. What medication is better for patient?

A. Heparini

B. Trental

C. Piracetam

D. Aspirini

E. * Fenilini

146. In a 70-years old man with mild headache appeared and during 2 days increased speech disorders and weakness of right extremities. In anamnesis: hart attack and arrhythmia. In neurological status: elements of motor aphasia, central paresis of VII and XII pair of cranial nerves from a right side; central hemiparesis and hemihypesthesia on the same side. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Hemorrhagic stroke

B. * Ischemic stroke

C. Transient ischemic attack

D. Epidural haematoma

E. Brain tumor

147. In a 77-years old man with mild headache appeared and during 2 days increased speech disorders and weakness of right extremities. In anamnesis: hart attack and arrhythmia. In neurological status: elements of motor aphasia, central paresis of VII and XII pair of cranial nerves from a right side; central hemiparesis and hemihypesthesia on the same side. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Brain tumor

C. Transient ischemic attack

D. Epidural haematoma


148. In patient severe back pain appeared after lifting heavy thing. His doctor diagnosed acute radiculopathy. Which prescription cannot be used in this patient?

A. * Heating procedures

B. dehydration

C. analgesics

D. vitamins of group B

E. intravenous infusion of Euphillinum

149. In patient with vertebrogenous syndrome the doctor diagnosed lesion of nervous root. What can cause the development of pain syndrome?

A. * Heating procedures

B. dehydration

C. analgesics

D. vitamins of group B

E. Intravenous infusion of Euphillinum

150. In summer 8 years old child after being on the beach got sick. In the evening there is vomiting, headache, fever. Meningeal signs are positive. At LP – CSF is transparent, that flows under high pressure. Cytosis is 350 cells in 1 mm3, polinuclears (20 %), lymphocytes (80 %), sugar (2,21 mmol/l), protein (0,66 g/l), Pandi reaction ++. What is your diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis meningitis

B. Purulent meningitis

C. * Serous meningitis of enteroviral etiology

D. Food Toxic infection

E. Acadian encephalitis

151. In the patient 62 years old with high blood pressure on the background appeared dizziness, dyplopia, light weakness in the left extremities. Objectively: outside cross eye on the right side and central paresis of left extremities, left-side hemihypesthesia. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Acute neuropathy of right oculomotor nerve

B. Hypertensive cerebral crisis

C. Dyscirculative encephalopathy with cochlear-vestibular syndrome

D. Acute hypertonic encephalopathy


152. Patient 62 years old with hart attack in the past, got up in the morning time with right-side hemiplegia, speech disorders. Doctor diagnosted a cardioembolic brain infarction. What medicine is better to start treatment with?

A. * Heparini

B. Trental

C. Piracetam

D. Aspirini

E. Fenilini

153. Patient 67 years old, had 3 weeks ago heart attack. Now he is going throw active period of physical rehabilitation. Suddenly during walking on the street began seizures with the loss of consciousness for 10 minutes with retention of urine. After that patient lost his speech ability, although understands the speech addressed to him and executes some simple instructions. A face is asymmetric, a tongue deviates to the right, a moderate weakness in right extremities, BP-115/70, PS-68/min, arrhythmia. Breathing is normal, 20 per minute. What pathogenesis can explain this complication?

A. * Cardiogenic thromboembolism of cerebral vessels





154. Patient 70 years old, in the morning time felt weakness in the right extremities, speech disorder, right-side sensory disturbances. Objectively: no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-100/60, right-side central hemiparesis and hemihypalgesia, motor aphasia. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Encephalitis



D. Brain tumor


155. Patient 70 years old, in the morning time felt weakness in the right extremities, speech disorder, right-side sensory disturbances. Objectively: no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-100/60, right-side central hemiparesis and hemihypalgesia, motor aphasia. Put previous diagnosis:

A. * Ischemic stroke



D. Brain tumor

E. Encephalitis

156. Patient 71 years old, had 3 weeks ago heart attack. Now he is going throw active period of physical rehabilitation. Suddenly during walking on the street began seizures with the loss of consciousness with retention of urine. Patient lost his speech ability. A face is asymmetric, a tongue deviates to the right, a moderate weakness in right extremities, BP-115/70, PS-68/min, arrhythmia. Breathing is normal, 20 per minute. What pathogenesis can explain this complication?

A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage


C. * Cardiogenic thromboembolism of cerebral vessels



157. Patient 72 years old, in the morning time felt weakness in the left extremities, left-side sensory disturbances. Objectively: no signs of consciousness disorders, BP-110/70, left-side central hemiparesis and hemihypalgesia. Put previous diagnosis:


B. * Ischemic stroke


D. Brain tumor

E. Encephalitis

158. Patient complains for temporary weakness of left extremities during month. In the morning appeared constant weakness in left extremities. Objectively: consciousness presents, in left extremities central hemiparesis, hemihyperesthesia, central paresis of VII and XII cranial nerves. Most effective medicines during nondifferential treatment are:

A. * Diuretics

B. Hypotensive

C. Anticoagulative therapy

D. Hemostatics

E. Corticosteroids

159. Patient, 59-years old, complains for temporary weakness of left extremities during month/ In the morning appeared constant weakness in left extremities. Objectively: consciousness presents, in left extremities central hemiparesis, hemihyperesthesia, central paresis of VII and XII cranial nerves. Most effective medicines during nondifferential treatment are:

A. Hemostatics

B. Hypotensive

C. Anticoagulative therapy

D. * Diuretics

E. Corticosteroids

160. Patient, 73, with IHD and cerebral atherosclerosis, last half-year suffered about dizziness, felt the periodic of short weakness of extremities. After sleep is absence of movement of right extremities and loss of speech. Objectively: pale .face, BP is 130/65., pulse – 92 per 1 min., rhythmic, right-side hemiplegia partial motor aphasia. Put previous diagnosis


B. * Atherotrombotic stroke

C. Cardioembolic stroke

D. Brain-tumor

E. Subdural haematoma

161. Patient, 73, with IHD and cerebral atherosclerosis, last half-year suffered about dizziness, felt the periodic of short weakness of extremities. After sleep is absence of movement of right extremities and loss of speech. Objectively: pale .face, BP is 130/65., pulse – 92 per 1 min., rhythmic, right-side hemiplegia partial motor aphasia. Put previous diagnosis


B. * Atherotrombotic stroke

C. Cardioembolic stroke

D. Brain-tumor

E. Subdural haematoma

162. The patient complains on severe back pain after working in the garden. There are positive Laseg and Neri signs on the right. Lumbar lordosis is not well expressed. Movements in lumbar region are limited. Right Achilles reflex is absent. What disease can be suspected?

A. * radiculopathy

B. lumbalgia

C. liver colic

D. kidney colic

E. Femoral nerve neuritis

163. The patient complains on severe back pain. There are positive Laseg and Neri signs on the right. Lumbar lordosis is slightly expressed. Movements in lumbar region are limited. What disease can be suspected?

A. * Lumbalgia

B. Radiculopathy

C. Liver colic

D. Kidney colic

E. femoral nerve neuritis

164. The patient complains on weakness in left foot (can not walk on toes), numbness of external surface of foot and Vth finger. In anamnesis there is pain in lumbar region (more then 20 years). While examination there is slightly expressed pain at palpation of paravertebral points in lumbar region. Gait is protective. There is left foot flexors paresis. Achilles reflex is absent on the left. Hypoalgesia is in dermatome S1. Left calf muscles are hypotrophic. On Ct–scan – there is hernia of L5 – S1 disc (8 mm) with compression of dural sack. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Radiculoischemia S1 with left foot paresis

B. * Discogenous radicular syndrome S1 on the left

C. Spinal stroke

D. Tunnel mononeuropathy of left tibial nerve

E. Vertebrogenous left side lumboischalgia

165. The patient has vibration disease I with syndromes of autonomic – sensory polyneuropathy, cerebral and peripheral angiodystonia. Which conclusion as for his working is correct?

A. Needs changing his work for a month

B. can continue his job

C. * needs changing his job for the other that is not associated with constant vibration and catching cold

D. invalid group

E. cam continue his job in special conditions

166. The patient in neurological department has compression of C7. What clinical features are typical in this case?

A. hypoesthesia on II – III fingers

B. paresthesia on II – III fingers

C. pain and paresthesia on II finger

D. * Loss of triceps reflex

E. paresis of triceps

167. The patient in neurological department has lesion of femoral nerve. This disease is associated with all the following signs except

A. Quadriceps muscle atrophy

B. Inability to extend the leg in knee joint

C. * Inability to flex the leg in knee joint

D. Decreased knee reflex

E. Hypoesthesia on anterior surface of hip

168. The patient in neurological department has lesion of femoral nerve. This disease is associated with all the following signs except

A. Foot paresis

B. * Inability to extend the leg in knee joint

C. Inability to flex the leg in knee joint

D. Decreased Achilles reflex

E. Leg pain

169. The patient in neurological department is alcohol abuse. He suffers from alcoholic polyneuropathy. What changes of reflexes are typical for this disease?

A. early loss of knee and Achilles reflexes

B. increased knee and Achilles reflexes

C. * increased knee and lost Achilles reflexes

D. changes of reflexes are not typical

E. increased Achilles reflexes

170. The patient in neurological department is being treated with cervical radiculitis. What is the most important additional method that should be used in this patient in order to prove diagnosis?

A. * MRI

B. CT – scan

C. Spondilography

D. Myelography

E. Angiography

171. The patient in neurological department was diagnosed arsenic polyneuropathy. This disease is associated with all the following signs except

A. sensitive ataxia

B. muscle pain, bone pain

C. lesion of IInd, VIIIth CN’s

D. * paresis of foot flexors and extensors

E. well expressed autonomic-trophic disorders

172. The patient is 31 years old. The disease developed with headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening he noticed neck stiffness, Kernig sign. On mucosa membrane of nose and lips are herpetic vesicles. There are no focal signs. What disease can be suspected?

A. * meningococcal meningitis

B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

C. Herpetic encephalitis

D. Brain abscess

E. Brain hemorrhage

173. The patient is being treated in neurohospital with diagnosis Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy. Which of the following is the sign of Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy?

A. Well-expressed sensitive ataxia

B. Well – expressed paresis in distal parts of extremities

C. * Domination of paresis in proximal parts of extremities

D. Well expressed trophic disorders

E. Eye movements disorders

174. The patient is being treated in neurohospital with diagnosis Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy. Which of the following is the sign of Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy?

A. * Bulbar syndrome

B. Well – expressed paresis in distal parts of extremities

C. Pain in extremities

D. Well expressed trophic disorders

E. Eye movements disorders

175. The patient is being treated in neurohospital with diagnosis Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy. What changes of CSF are typical for Hyen-Bare polyneuropathy?

A. Cell-protein dissociation

B. Increased CSF pressure

C. * Protein-cellular dissociation

D. Changes are absent

E. Decreased level of sugar

176. The patient suffers from femoral nerve neuropathy. What signs can be observed in this case?

A. Laseg sign

B. * Wasserman and Matskevych sign

C. Absent plantar reflex

D. Calf muscles palsy

E. Paresis of great toe extensor

177. The patient suffers from horse tail lesion. What signs can be observed in this case?

A. * severe radicular pain

B. sensory disorders according to the polyneuritis type

C. sensory disorders according to the conductive type

D. pathological reflexes

E. periodical urine incontinence


A. sensory disorders according to the conductive type

B. sensory disorders according to the polyneuritic type

C. * sensory disorders in perineum

D. pathological reflexes



A. pathological reflexes

B. sensory disorders according to the polyneuritic type

C. sensory disorders according to the conductive type

D. * true urine incontinence


180. The patient suffers from medial nerve neuropathy. What is considered to be a diagnostic criterion at medial nerve neuropathy?

A. “Bird paw”

B. Hanging hand

C. Inability to abduct great finger

D. * Arm of “Prophet”

E. Atrophy of interoseal muscles

181. The patient suffers from multiple mononeuropathy. What system disease is usually associated with multiple mononeuropathy?

A. * nodule periarthritis

B. rheumatism

C. dermatomyositis

D. system lupus erithematose

E. Rheumatoid arthritis

182. The patient suffers from radicular pain on lumbar – sacral level. What is the most common cause of it?

A. * Hernia of intervertebral disc

B. spondilolisthesis

C. primary tumors

D. metastasis tumors

E. spinal arachnoiditis

183. The patient suffers from severe headache, nausea, low back pain and neck pain. There is hemorrhagic rash. Fever is up to 39,0 ?C. There are positive meningeal signs, pain, light and tactile hyperesthesia. In blood leucocytes are 20х109/l, SR-27 mm per hour. CSF is not clear, there is neutrophil pleocytosis. What can cause such disease?

A. Staphylococcus

B. * Meningococcus

C. Streptococcus

D. Bacillus of Koh

E. Spirochete pallidum

184. The patient suffers from such trophic disorders as edema of calves, feet, hands, strips of Messa. What polyneuropathy is characterized by such clinical picture?

A. Lead

B. * Arsenic

C. CO poisoning

D. PhOS poisoning

E. Leptospirose

185. The patient suffers from ulnar nerve neuropathy. What is considered to be a diagnostic criterion at ulnar nerve neuropathy?

A. inability to scratch by index

B. hanging hand

C. sign of «mill»

D. Arm of «Prophet»

E. * inability to scratch by small finger

186. The patient was admitted to the hospital with diabetes mellitus. He suffers from such complication of diabetes mellitus as peripheral nerve lesion. What are the most common signs of diabetic polyneuropathy?

A. Distal polyneuropathy with paresthesia in extremities (more in lower)

B. * Early loss of reflexes (usually Achilles and knee ones) on the background of trophic disturbances

C. Parasthesia, numbness, feeling of burning in legs and arms

D. Decreased smell, taste, vision, hearing and function of vestibular apparatus

E. painful cramps in calves and feet muscles, especially at night time and after catching cold

187. The patient was admitted to the hospital with diagnosis diphtheria polyneuropathy. What medications should be prescribed in order to prevent late complications?

A. vessel – active medications

B. * Vitamins of group B

C. anabolic

D. macroergics

E. heating procedures

188. The patient was admitted to the hospital with diagnosis diphtheria polyneuropathy. While examination of neurological status the doctor revealed bulbar syndrome. What medications should be prescribed in this case?

A. * Artificial lungs ventilation, plasmafaresis, glucocorticoids, anticholinestherase

B. glucocorticoids, Vitamins of group B, anticholinestherase, analeptics

C. Artificial lungs ventilation, anticholinestherase, analeptics, desintoxication

D. plasmafaresis, glucocorticoids

E. glucocorticoids, anticholinestherase, haemosorbtion

189. The patient was admitted to the hospital with diagnosis diphtheria polyneuropathy. What medications should be prescribed in order to prevent late complications?

A. Vitamins of group B, anticholinestherase, aminoacids

B. Vitamins of group B, vessel – active medications, macroergics

C. * Vitamins of group B, anticholinestherase , biostimulants

D. Vitamins of group B, vessel – active medications, biostimulants

E. Vitamins of group B, anabolic, nootrops

190. The patient was admitted to the hospital with suspicion on diphtheria polyneuropathy. What are the most reliable signs of diphtheric polyneuropathy?

A. * Bulbar paralysis, motor and sensory disorders according to the polineuritic type

B. Accommodation paralysis, hypoesthesia and peripheral paralysis of extremities

C. Bulbar paralysis, paresthesia in extremities, low reflexes from arms and legs

D. Hypotonia of arms’ and legs’ muscles, sensory disorders according to the polineuritic type on extremities

E. Eye movements’ disturbances and bulbar syndrome

191. The patient was admitted to the hospital with suspicion on diphtheria polyneuropathy. What are the most reliable early signs of diphtheric polyneuropathy?

A. * Accommodation paralysis, diplopia

B. Accommodation paralysis, paresthesia in extremities

C. Eye movements’ disturbances, pain and weakness in legs

D. Bulbar paralysis, paresthesia in extremities

E. Bulbar paralysis, weakness in legs

192. The patient was admitted to the hospital with suspicion on diphtheria polyneuropathy. What are the most reliable late signs of diphtheric polyneuropathy?

A. sensory disorders according to the polineuritic type, hypotonia of extremities’ muscles, low or absent reflexes from extremities, sensitive ataxia

B. hypotonia of extremities’ muscles, sensitive ataxia

C. * sensory and motor disorders on extremities according to the polineuritic type

D. low or absent reflexes from extremities, sensitive ataxia

E. sensory disorders on extremities according to the polineuritic type, sensitive ataxia

193. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. Which of the following signs proves poisoning with PhOS?

A. Arterial hypertension

B. tachycardia

C. * fasciculation

D. dryness of skin

E. cerebellar ataxia

194. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. Which of the following signs prove poisoning with PhOS?

A. proximal peripheral paresis of extremities

B. distal atrophy and muscle fasciculation

C. absence of reflexes from extremities

D. pain and parasthesia in extremities

E. * sensory disturbances on arms and legs according to polineuritic type

195. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What medications should be prescribed first of all?

A. * Vitamins group B

B. anticholinestherase medications

C. Vessels - active medications

D. Anabolic

E. Heating procedures

196. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What medications should be prescribed in renewal period?

A. Vitamins of group B and E

B. anabolics

C. Massage

D. Physical exercise

E. * Heating procedures

197. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What physiotherapeutic method should be prescribed in this case?

A. Laser therapy

B. Electropuncture

C. acupuncture

D. Magnet therapy

E. * Electric stimulation

198. The patient was admitted to the hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What balneologic method should be prescribed in this case?

A. * Sulfuric bath

B. Sulfid bath

C. radon bath

D. mud applications

E. paraffin application

199. The patient was admitted to the hospital. Young resident suspected poisoning with PhOS. Which of the following signs is not typical for poisoning with PhOS?

A. fasciculation

B. bradycardia

C. hyperhydrosis

D. * dryness of skin

E. hypotonia

200. The patient was admitted to the regional hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What medication should be used in this case?

A. * Dipiroxim

B. Anaprilini

C. Platyphilini

D. Piroxan

E. Dexamethasoni

201. The patient was admitted to the regional hospital. The doctor suspected poisoning with PhOS. What can develop in clinical picture of this patient?

A. vagoinsular crisis

B. sympatho-adrenal crisis

C. * cholinergic crisis

D. myasthenic crisis

E. epileptic status

202. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. According to the prescription he receives huge doses of Benzilpeniccilinum. During the last 4 days his temperature is 36,6-36,8 °C. Meningeal signs are absent. What are the criteria of refusing from antibiotics?

A. * Cytosis 100 cells and less in CSF, lymphocytes dominate

B. 10 days of antibiotic therapy is enough

C. 7 days of antibiotic therapy is enough if there is no leucocytosis in blood and cones are not increased in blood

D. Cytosis 100 cells and less in CSF, neutrophils dominate

E. 7 days of antibiotic therapy is enough if cytosis in CSF is 120 cells and less, lymphocytes dominate

203. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. Fever is up to 38,20C. Patient is slow. While examination there is neck stiffness, positive meningeal signs on both sides. In blood leucocytes are 19х109/l, SR - 32 mm per hour. What changes of CSF are typical for this pathology?

A. * Neutrophil pleocytosis

B. Lymphocyte pleocytosis

C. Fibrin plate

D. Ksantochromic CSF

E. Protein-cellular dissociation

204. The patient was diagnosed neuralgia. What sign is typical for neuralgia?

A. areflexion

B. muscle atrophy

C. hypoesthesia

D. * attack-like pain

E. muscle weakness


A. areflexion

B. * paresthesia

C. hypoesthesia

D. muscle atrophy

E. muscle weakness


A. areflexion

B. muscle atrophy

C. hypoesthesia

D. * hyperesthesia of superficial types of sensation

E. muscle weakness

207. The patient was diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia. What clinical sign is typical for this type of neuralgia?

A. herpetic rash on face

B. dull pain

C. chewing muscles paresis

D. dissociated sensory disorder on face

E. * pain paroxysm

208. The patient was made LP. CSF is not clear, cytosis is 60 (neutrophils - 85%, lymphocytes - 15%). What meningitis is associated with such changes of CSF?

A. Tuberculosis

B. Syphilitic

C. * Meningococcal

D. Flu-associated

E. Herpetic

209. The patient was made LP. CSF is transparent liquid under high pressure. Cytosis is 350 cells in 1 mm3, polinuclears are 20 %, lymphocytes are 80 % , sugar is 2,21 mmol per l, protein is 0,66 g per l, Pandi reaction ++. What meningitis is associated with such changes of CSF?

A. Meningococcal

B. Staphylococcal

C. Pneumococcal

D. * Tuberculosis

E. Streptococcal

210. The patient with Arsenic polyneuropathy was admitted to the hospital. What medication antidote should be used in this case?

A. Reosorbilact

B. Ca tetacini

C. Kuprenil

D. Hepatoprotectors

E. * Unitiol

211. The patient with chronic otitis complains on severe headache, shivering. Pulse is 58 per min. Temperature is 38,2 ?C. Patient is slow. While examination it was found out that there are neck stiffness, positive meningeal signs on both sides. Blood – leucocytes are 19х109/l, SR - 32 mm per hour. CSF is cloudy, cytosis is 60 (neutrophils 85 %, lymphocytes – 15 %). What complications are in this patient?

A. * Meningitis

B. Meningoencephalitis

C. Encephalitis

D. Meningism

E. CSF hypertension

212. The patient with compressive – radicular syndrome at cervical osteochondrosis was prescribed adequate methods of treatment. What are the most effective methods of treatment in this case?

A. Drawing of cervical part in sitting position by means of Glisson loop

B. * Dehydration

C. analgesics

D. paravertebral Novocain blockage

E. Electrophoresis with Novocain in collar zone

213. The patient with compressive syndrome on lumbar-sacral level was recommended some additional methods of diagnostics. Which of the following are considered to be the most important in this case?


B. myelography

C. Ct – scan

D. * MRI

E. EMG

214. The patient with Degerina-Clumpke syndrome is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of Degerina-Clumpke syndrome?

A. shoulder pain

B. increased reflexes on arm

C. paresis of proximal arm muscles

D. * paresis of distal arm muscles

E. sensory disorders according to the conductive type

215. The patient with Diabetes Mellitus suffers from such complication as diabetiuc polyneuropathy. What medications are the most effective in this clinical case?

A. Anti-cholinestherase

B. Macroergers

C. * Lipoid acid

D. Vasoactive

E. Vitamins of group B

216. The patient with diagnosis compressive – radicular syndrome at cervical osteochondrosis was admitted to the neurological hospital. What are the most common symptoms of this disease?

A. pain and parasthesia in certain dermatome

B. Segmental hyper – and hypoesthesia

C. * decreased reflexes

D. absence of reflexes

E. domination of sensory disturbances over motor ones

217. The patient with diphtheria polyneuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of diphtheria polyneuropathy?

A. * bulbar palsy

B. pseudobulbar palsy

C. central paresis of extremities

D. urination disorders

E. sensory disorders according to the segmental type


A. central paresis of extremities

B. pseudo bulbar paralysis

C. * paralysis of accommodation

D. disorders of urination



A. * sensory disorders according to the polyneuritic type






A. * peripheral paresis of extremities





221. The patient with diphtheria polyneuropathy is being treated in the neurological hospital. What is the most dangerous complication of this disease?

A. * toxic myocarditis

B. eye movements disorders

C. toxic hepatitis

D. toxic pancreatitis

E. flaccid paralysis

222. The patient with Erba-Dushen paralysis is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of Erba-Dushen paralysis?

A. Pain in shoulder

B. Increased reflexes on arms

C. * Paresis of proximal part of arm

D. Paresis of distal part of arm

E. Sensory disorders according to the conductive type

223. The patient with facial nerve neuropathy is being treated in neurological department of regional hospital. What of the following signs indicates the risk of contractures development?

A. Facial pain

B. * Synkinesis

C. Auricular pain

D. Dryness of eye

E. Taste disorders

224. The patient with facial nerve neuropathy was hospitalized to the neurological clinics. What medication is forbidden for prescription in acute period of facial nerve neuropathy?

A. Dexamethasoni

B. Nicotin acid

C. * Proserini

D. Euphilini

E. Actovegini

225. The patient with facial nerve neuropathy was hospitalized to the neurological clinics. What medication is forbidden for prescription in acute period of facial nerve neuropathy?

A. Furasemidi

B. Kurantil

C. * Nerviplex

D. Euphilini

E. Non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

226. The patient with facial nerve neuropathy was hospitalized to the neurological clinics. What physiotherapeutic method of treatment is forbidden in acute period of facial nerve neuropathy?

A. Phonophoresis with hydrocortisone cream

B. * Ozokerit applications

C. Dimexid compress

D. Massage

E. Treating physical activity

227. The patient with facial nerve neuropathy was hospitalized to the neurological clinics. What physiotherapeutic method of treatment is forbidden in acute period of facial nerve neuropathy?

A. Dimexid compress

B. * Muscles electro-stimulation

C. Phonophoresis with hydrocortisone cream

D. Massage

E. Hyrudotherapy

228. The patient with femoral nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of femoral nerve neuropathy?

A. Laseg sign

B. Absent plantar reflex

C. * Absent knee reflex

D. Paralysis of calf muscles


229. The patient with femoral nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of femoral nerve neuropathy?

A. Laseg sign

B. * Paresis of muscles quadriceps femoris

C. Absent plantar reflex

D. Paralysis of calf muscles


230. The patient with Fibular nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of Fibular nerve neuropathy?

A. hypoesthesia on plantar surface of foot

B. absent knee reflex

C. absent Achilles reflex

D. * paralysis of foot extensors

E. paresis of great toe extensor

231. The patient with mononeuropathy suffers from severe trophic disorders and pain. Lesion of what nerve is associated such clinical picture?

A. Ulnar

B. Radial

C. Fibular

D. * Medial

E. Femoral

232. The patient with mononeuropathy suffers from severe trophic disorders and pain. Lesion of what nerve is associated such clinical picture?

A. Ulnaris

B. Radialis

C. Musculo-cutaneus

D. * sciatic

E. obturatorius

233. The patient with non differential cervicobrachialgia was admitted to the neurological hospital. What signs can prove this diagnosis?

A. Cervico – brachial pain are increased while head movements

B. Pain in neck and arm, hand paresthesia

C. pain in neck and numbness of ulnar edge of hand

D. * Cervico – occipital pain with irradiation to the shoulder

E. Pain in arm and scapula region are increased at arm adduction

234. The patient with nondifferential cervico – brachialgia is being treated in neurological hospital. What symptoms can prove this diagnosis?

A. * Cervico – brachial pain is increased while head movements

B. Neck and arm pain, hand paresthesia

C. Neck pain, numbness of hand ulnar surface

D. Cervico – occipital pain with irradiation to shoulder

E. pain in shoulder and scapula region increases at arm adduction

235. The patient with periomarthrosis is being treated in neurological hospital. What symptoms can prove this diagnosis?

A. shaking of arm is less painful

B. pain increases at arm abduction

C. * Very painful is arm putting over the head

D. pain increases at lifting the arm

E. pain in shoulder and scapula region, hypotrophy of joints’ muscles

236. The patient with periomarthrosis was admitted to the neurological hospital. What signs can prove this diagnosis?

A. * Shaking of arm is not so painful

B. Pain increased at arm adduction

C. The most painful is putting the arms backwards

D. pain increases at lifting the arm

E. Pain in shoulder – scapula region and hypotrophy of joints muscles

237. The patient with radial nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. What signs of radial nerve neuropathy do you know?

A. absent biceps reflex

B. * Paresis of forearm, hand and fingers extensors

C. “Bird paw”

D. dissociated sensory disorder in zone of innervations

E. herpetic rash in zone of innervations

238. The patient with radial nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of radial nerve neuropathy?


B. * absent triceps reflex

C. “Bird paw”




A. * Hanging hand

B. absent biceps reflex

C. “Bird paw”





B. * hypoalgesia in zone of innervations

C. “Bird paw”



241. The patient with root compression on lumbar – sacral level was admitted to the neurological hospital. What should be prescribed for pain management in this case?

A. * dehydration

B. analgesics

C. tranquilization

D. nonsteroid anti-inflammatory


242. The patient with scalenus syndrome is being treated in neurological hospital. What symptoms can prove this diagnosis?

A. neck pain with limitation of movements, arm numbness

B. * Neck and arm pain, clavicle edema

C. Cervico – brachial pain, hand paresis

D. Noise over subclavian artery, Reino syndrome

E. Neck and arm pain, hypoesthesia of ulnar hand surface

243. The patient with tibial nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of tibial nerve neuropathy?

A. hypoesthesia on dorsal surface of foot

B. absent knee reflex

C. * absent Achilles reflex

D. paralysis of foot extensor


244. The patient with tibial nerve neuropathy is being treated in the neurological department. Which of the following signs belong to the clinical picture of tibial nerve neuropathy?

A. hypoesthesia on dorsal surface of foot

B. * paresis of foot flexors

C. absent knee reflex

D. paralysis of foot extensors


245. The patient with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated in neurological hospital. What are the peculiarities of trigeminal neuralgia attack?

A. herpetic rash on face

B. dull pain

C. chewing muscles paresis

D. dissociated sensory disorder on face

E. * trigger zones

246. The patient with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated in neurological department of regional hospital. What physiotherapeutic method is the most effective in this case?

A. Ozokerit application

B. Hyrudotherapy

C. Electrophoresis with analgesics

D. * Acupuncture

E. Magnet laser irradiation

247. The patient with trigeminal neuralgia was hospitalized to the regional hospital. What is the sign of trigeminal neuralgia?

A. facial hypoesthesia

B. permanent facial pain

C. * facial pain that lasts 2-3 min

D. decreased corneal reflex

E. hypotrophy of chewing muscles

248. The patient with trigeminal neuralgia was prescribed adequate treatment. What medications are included in pathogenetic treatment of trigeminal neuralgia?

A. non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

B. anti-histamine

C. anti- depressants

D. * anti-seizure

E. glucocorticoids

249. What disease we can think about if the patient complains on severe back pain after catching cold. Positive Laseg and Neri signs are present on the right. Achilles reflex is absent.

A. * Radiculopathy

B. lumbalgia

C. Urine stone disease



250. Young man suffers from headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening the doctor diagnosed meningeal syndrome. There is herpetic rash on mucosa membrane of lips and nose. There are no focal neurological signs. What signs did the doctor find?

A. * Kernig sign

B. lower paraplegia

C. Sensory disorders according to the segmental type

D. true urine incontinence

E. motor aphasia

251. Young man with exacerbation of chronic otitis suffers from headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening he noticed neck stiffness, positive Kernig sign. There are no focal signs. What disease can be suspected?

A. Brain abscess

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

C. encephalitis

D. * secondary meningitis

E. Brain hemorrhage

252. 11 years old patient who was vaccinated not according to the schedule complains on dysphonia. In anamnesis 2weeks ago she has quinsy. The patient was treated with erythromicini during 3 days. Objectively mucosa membrane of pharynx is preserved. Small palatine is hanging, during phonation it is immovable. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. botulism

B. Enteroviral infection, poliomyelitic form

C. * Diphtheria neuropathy

D. poliomyelitis

E. Viral encephalitis

253. ?18 years old girl got sick very rapidly – slight running nose, coughing, abdominal pain, liquid feces 2 – 3 times per day. Temperature is 38,5 ?С. On the third day of disease those symptoms disappeared. On fourth day of disease weakness in right leg was observed. Objectively – active movements in leg are absent, passive are painful. Sensation is preserved. Muscles of hip are flaccid. Palpation of nervous trunks is painful. Knee and Achilles reflexes on right leg are absent. In blood – there is leucocytes 4,2.109 , SR – 6 mm per hour. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. polyneuropathy

B. * Poliomyelitis

C. Botulism

D. encephalomyelitis

E. tick encephalitis

254. 2 days ago patient noticed severe pain in left chest, general weakness, sub febrile temperature. Objectively – there are vesicles with serous transparent content along 6th – 7th between ribs nerves on hyperemic skin. What is your diagnosis?

A. Herpetiformal dermatose of During

B. simple herpes

C. streptococcal impetigo

D. simple vesicles

E. * Transversal herpes

255. 20 years old patient after knife wound in upper third of left forearm noticed limited fingers movements, severe burning pain, edema and cyanosis in palm region. Objectively – limited flexion of I and II fingers of left hand, tenar atrophy. Hand looks like monkey’s one. Carporadial reflex on the left is decreased. What is your diagnosis?

A. Traumatic neuropathy of radial nerve

B. * traumatic neuropathy of median nerve

C. traumatic neuropathy of ulnar nerve

D. traumatic upper shoulder plexitis

E. traumatic lower shoulder plexitis

256. 23 years old patient was traveling by train near open window. In the morning she noticed that right eye is not completely closed, mouth is turned to the left, and meal is staying between right cheek and gum. Face is asymmetrical; skin folds on the right are smoothed, right eye is wider then the left one. Tears are on the right. Right eye brow cannot be lifted. Right cheek is blown. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. * Bell’s palsy

B. basal arachnoiditis

C. ponto – cerebellar tumor

D. facial myositis

E. facial hemispasm

257. 25 years old patient after catching cold noticed distorted face to the right, left kserophthalmia, disorders of eating process, increased temperature up to 37,9 ?С. Objectively – he cannot wrinkle his forehead and close left eye. Left nasal fold is smoothed. Lips cannot be closed completely. Left sub eyebrow reflex is absent. In blood – leucocytes are 10*10^9/l, SR – 18 mm per hour. What is your diagnosis?

A. Myositis

B. Brain stem encephalitis

C. * Acute facial nerve neuropathy

D. Ischemic brain stem stroke

E. Arachnoiditis

258. 25 years old patient suddenly noticed peripheral paresis of mimic muscles on the right. What is your diagnosis?

A. neuritis of facial nerve


C. * facial nerve neuropathy

D. arachnoiditis of ponto-cerebellar angle

E. brain infarction in pons

259. 25 years old suffers from the disease 2 days. After eating homemade meat he noticed developing ptosis, diplopia, anizokoria, midriasis, and accommodation and convergence disorders, not clear vision. Which syndrome unites all described signs?

A. Meningeal

B. Phagoplegic

C. * Ophthalmoplegic

D. Phonolaryngoplegic

E. Colitic

260. 27 years old boy after catching cold in the morning noticed inability to close left eye, tears, hyperacusis, taste disorders on anterior 2/3 of the tongue. Objectively there is smoothed left nasal fold, lowered left mouth angle, absent left corneal reflex, positive sail-phenomena on the left. What is your diagnosis?

A. * left facial nerve neuropathy

B. left trigeminal nerve neuralgia

C. right facial nerve neuropathy

D. tumour of ponto-cerebellar angle on the left

E. tumour of ponto-cerebellar angle on the right

261. 27 years old patient complains on attack like pain in upper and middle part of face (up to 1- 2 min). He is been sick during 2 months. Objectively – there is painful palpation of supra and infraorbital points on the right. What is your diagnosis?

A. trigeminal neuropathy

B. Temporo – mandible arthritis

C. * trigeminal neuralgia

D. Sluder syndrome

E. ganglionitis

262. 30 years old patient 3 days before hospitalization ate home made meat. In the day of examination he complains on dryness in the mouth, voice changes, double vision, and constipation. What is the first rank method of treatment?

A. Immune therapy

B. rehydration

C. antibiotics treatment

D. glucocorticoids

E. * Serological treatment

263. ?31 years old woman complains on periodical pain in left hemisphere that provokes by stress, severe odors. The same disease was in her mother. Objectively there is no

pathology of inner organs. During the attack there is general hyperesyhesia, nausea, at the end - poliuria. During the attack there is painful palpation of right temporal artery. General blood analysis and urine analysis are without peculiarities. What is your diagnosis?

A. Facial nerve neuritis

B. Migraine

C. Trigeminal nerve neuralgia

D. Menyer syndrome

E. Epilepsy

264. 35 years old patient after disease that was associated with fever, throat pain complains on dysphagia, dysarthria, weakness and limitation of movements in hands and feet, hyporeflexion, sensory disorders on extremities according to the polyneuritic type. What disease can be suspected?

A. * Diphtheria polyneuropathy

B. Hypoglossal nerve neuropathy

C. Glosso-pharyngeal nerve neuropathy

D. Brain stem encephalitis

E. Pseudobulbar syndrome

265. 35 years old patient after lifting heavy thing felt severe pain in lumbar region that irradiated to the right leg and increased at movements and coughing. Objectively – long muscles of back are strained. Achilles reflex on the right is decreased. Paravertebral points of lumbar region are painful. Positive Laseg sign is present on the right. Which additional method of investigation you will prescribe?


B. CT – scan

C. * MRI

D. Electromyography

E. LP

266. 35 years old patient was hospitalized on the third day of disease with complains on general weakness, double vision, decreased visual acuity and disorders of swallowing. Disease started with nausea, vomiting, and liquid feces. Day before this she ate mushrooms. Now the temperature is normal. State is severe. She is adynamic. Skin is pale. Voice is nasal. Ptosis is well expressed. There is midriasis, anizokoria, diplopia. Which factor is considered to be the main one in pathogenesis of this disease?

A. Stimulation by eksotoxin adenilatcyclasa

B. * nervous impulse transmittance disorders

C. Introducing of agent in enterocytes

D. Introducing of agent in lymphoid structures of small intestine

E. Introducing and fixing of agent in neurons of oblong brain and hippocampus

267. 36 years old patient after lifting heavy thing noticed severe pain in lumbar region. Objectively there is straining of lumbar muscles, scoliosis, and limitation of movements. Palpation of paravertebral points LV-SI is painful. Positive Laseg sign is observed on the left. On X-ray there is decreased height of LV-SI discs, osteophytes of LІV-SI. What is your diagnosis?

A. * Left side lumboischialgia

B. Leftside radiculopathy

C. acute myelitis

D. Piriformis syndrome

E. Coccygodynia

268. 36 years old patient complains on severe pain in almond-zone with irradiation to the left auricular zone. Pain increases while swallow. There are sensory disorders on posterior 1/3 of tongue. What is your diagnosis?

A. trigeminal neuralgia

B. Facial neuropathy

C. * Glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia

D. Hypoglossal nerve neuropathy

E. upper laryngeal nerve neuralgia

269. 36 years old worker who works over 14 years complains on pain in right shoulder especially on the beginning of working day. Pain increases at lifting heavy things, abduction of shoulder. Objectively there is limitation of movements in right shoulder. Well expressed sign of Dauborn is observed. Palpation of shoulder and deltoid muscle is painful. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Shoulder-scapular periarthrosis

B. Shoulder plexitis

C. cervical radiculopathy

D. Deformative arthrosoarthritis

E. Deltoid muscle myositis

270. 37 years old woman a hour ago with suicidal aim drink 300 ml of concentrated chlorophos solution. Stomach was washed in emergency car 20 minutes after occasion. Which mechanism of PhOS action should be liquidated first of all?

A. Quick damage of acetylcholine

B. * Cholinesthearse blockage

C. Increased production of Cholinesthearse

D. increased activity of Cholinesthearse

E. Stopped synthesis of acetylcholine

271. 38 years old patient has been working in metal – steal corporation during 13 years. Work is associated with general and local vibration. He complains on general weakness, headache, and numbness of extremities, dizziness, and periodic heart pain. Objectively – skin of extremities is cold, cyanotic on hands. White spots are left after pressing. Palpation of calves is painful. Pain, tactile and temperature sensation is decreased. On ECG there are signs of myocardial hypoxia. On X – ray of bone – osteoporosis was found out. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. * vibration disease

B. polyneuropathy

C. Myopathy

D. autonomic – vascular dystonia

E. funicular myelosis

272. 42 years old patient felt severe back pain in lumbar region after lifting heavy thing. Lumbar muscles are strained. Paravertebral points LV – S1 are painful. Scoliosis. Movements in lumbar region are limited. Positive Laseg sign is present on the left. Left Achilles reflex is low. On X – ray highness of disc L5 – S1 is decreased. Spikes on L5 – S1 are present. What is your diagnosis?

A. * left side radiculopathy

B. left side lumbar ischialgia

C. left side radiculoischemia

D. piriformis muscle syndrome

E. coccigodynia

273. 42 years old woman after lifting heavy subject suddenly felt severe pain in lumbar-sacral area with irradiation to thigh and anterior surface of hip, internal surface of calf on the right. Objectively there is straining of lumbar muscles, scoliosis, deformation of lumbar lordosis, vertebral column instability. Positive laseg sign is on the right. Painful palpation of Para vertebral points LІІІ-LУ is observed on the right. Achilles reflex on the right is absent. There is hypoesthesia of external edge of right foot. What is your diagnosis?

A. * Radiculopathy S1.

B. Lumbago

C. lumbalgia

D. Radiculopathy LУ.

E. Lumboischialgia

274. 42 years old woman complains on leg weakness, hesitating while walking. She is sick during 10 years. She uses alcohol frequently. BP is 130/70. There is horizontal nystagmus, scanning speech. Abdominal reflexes are decreased bilaterally. Deep reflexes from lower extremities are high. There are positive pathological reflexes of Babinski and Rossolimo bilaterally. Gate is spastic – atactic. In blood – leucocytes - 8.109/l, SR - 8 mm per hour, RW – is “- “. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. toxic polyneuropathy

B. Parkinson disease

C. lumbar – sacral radiculitis

D. * multiple sclerosis

E. tabes dorsalis

275. 42 years old worker noticed severe acute lumbar pain with irradiation to the posterior part of hip. There is scoliosis of lumbar region to the right, weakness while extension of left foot fingers, low Achilles reflex on the left, hypoalgesia on external surface of left leg and foot. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. vertebrogenous lumboischalgia

B. * radiculoischemia L5

C. lumbago

D. Horse tail syndrome

E. myeloischemia

276. 43 years old man who contacts with petrol was hospitalized with complains on general weakness, dizziness, memory loss, sleepiness in day time and unsleepiness at night, feeling of hair in mouth, colic pain in right part of abdomen. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Alcoholic delirium

B. Chronic Mn intoxication

C. Chronic Hg intoxication

D. Chronic Pb intoxication

E. * Chronic tetraethyl lead intoxication

277. 43 years old patient with periodic attacks of pain in right facial part was diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia. Which medication should be prescribed?

A. solpadeinum

B. * Finlepsin

C. tramadolum

D. analginum

E. Indomethacinum

278. 44 years man complains on pain and weakness in hands and feet. While examination there are signs of polyneuropathy. What fact from anamnesis can be the cause of the disease?

A. * usage of alcohol

B. cranial trauma

C. spinal trauma

D. seating work

E. lifting heavy thing

279. 45 years old man complains on pain in right lumbar area, posterior surface of hip and posterior-external surface of calf, in foot. Pain increases while movements, coughing. Objectively there is deformation of lumbar lordosis, long muscles of lumbar region are strained, and positive Laseg sign is on the right. There is hypoesthesia on posterior-external surface of right calf. Achilles reflex is decreased. On X-ray of lumbar-sacral area are signs of osteochondrosis. What pathology can cause such clinical picture?

A. * Lesion of root S1

B. Lumbago

C. lumbalgia

D. Lesion of root LУ.

E. Lumboischialgia

280. 45 years old patient was hospitalized on the second day of disease with complains on general weakness, double vision, dryness in mouth, constipation. Three days before the disease she ate home made pork. Objectively – pupils are wide, reaction on light is slow, ptosis and horizontal nystagmus are present. There is paresis of soft palate on the right. What is the most effective treatment of this disease?

A. salt solutions + sorbets

B. * antibotulism antitoxic serum

C. antiviral + antihistamine

D. antibiotics + prednisolonum

E. sulphanilamids + enzymes

281. 45 years old woman complained on attack – like pain in left part of face that lasts up to 1 – 2 min. Attacks are provoked by chewing. She got sick 2 months ago after catching cold. There is painful palpation of trigeminal points on the left. Touching to nose on the left provokes next attack with tonic seizure in facial muscles. What is the previous diagnosis?

A. Facial migraine

B. * Trigeminal neuralgia

C. glosso – pharyngeal nerve neuralgia

D. mandible arthritis

E. sinusitis

282. 46 years old patient complains on pain in right shoulder, especially on the beginning of job. Pain increases at abduction of shoulder. Objectively there is limitation of movements. There is positive Dauborn sign. Palpation of shoulder and deltoid muscle is painful. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * shoulder-scapular periarthrosis on the right

B. Shoulder plexitis

C. radiculopathy on the right

D. Deformative arthrosoarthritis of right shoulder

E. myositis of right deltoid muscle

283. 46 years old woman who works as electric sewing-machine operator complains on heart pain, general weakness, decreased hearing and tiredness. Objectively- skin is pale. Pulse is 80 per min. Heart activity is rhythmic. BP is 120/85. On audiogram there is decreased hearing threshold. What disease can be suspected?

A. neuro-circulative dystonia

B. Vibration disease

C. * Neuritis of hearing nerves

D. Reino disease

E. disorders of bone conductivity

284. ?48 years old patient complains on numbness in hands and feet, pain in calf muscles, hesitating at walking. In anamnesis there is alcoholism. Objectively – there is hands and feet edema. Knee reflexes are low, Achilles reflexes are absent. There is painful palpation of nervous trunks. There is decreased superficial sensation according to “socks” and “gloves” like type. Gate is peroneal. Reactions of immobilization of pale treponema and RIF are negative. What is your diagnosis?

A. * polyneuropathy

B. polyneuritis

C. Neuropathy of peroneal nerves

D. tabes dorsalis

E. multiple sclerosis

285. 48 years old worker after physical work suffers from acute lancinating pain in lumbar region. In course of examination scoliosis of lumbar region on the right was found. There are well expressed straining of paravertebral muscles, severe limitation of active movements in this region. There are no changes in reflexes and sensation. What is your diagnosis?

A. Lumboischialgia

B. Lumbalgia

C. * Lumbago

D. Radiculopathy

E. myositis

286. 50 – years old woman complains on attacks of acute pain in right facial part during talking, eating. There is spasm of right mimic muscles. Skin in this part is red. Teeth are not healthy. There is no other pathology. What I s the most possible diagnosis?

A. facial nerve neuritis

B. * trigeminal neuralgia

C. migraine

D. chronic sinusitis

E. diffuse pulpitis

287. 50-years old patient suddenly felt pain in occipital lobe and vomiting. Objectively: patient has disorders of consciousness, hyperemia of face skin, BP-210/120, PS-60/min, body temperature 37,8 C, horizontal nistagmus, subcortical oral pathological reflexes, rigidity of occipital muscles, symptom of Kernig on the both sides. Previous diagnosis:

A. Subdural hemorrhage

B. Intracerebral hemorrhage stroke

C. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D. Acute hypertonic encephalopathy

E. Meningoccocal meningitis

288. 53 years old patient after lifting heavy thing suddenly felt severe low back pain, that irradiate to the left leg. Pain increases while movements, coughing. Objectively there is straining of long back muscles on the right. Achilles reflex is absent on the right. Laseg sign is positive on the right. What additional method of investigation will be the most informative?

A. * MRI

B. CT-scan

C. X-ray

D. ENMG

E. LP

289. 54 years old patient suffers from periodical low back pain. Recently he noticed pain in lumbar and thigh regions on the right, posterior surface of hip and posterior-external surface of right calf. Pain increases at movements, coughing. Objectively there is deformation of lumbar lordosis. Long muscles of the back are strained. There is positive Laseg sign, hypoesthesia on posterior – external surface of right calf. Achilles reflex is decreased. On X-ray there are signs of lumbar-sacral osteochondrosis. What is the previous diagnosis?

A. right side lumboischialgia

B. lumbago

C. lumbalgia

D. * radicular syndrome l5-S1

E. radicular syndrome L3-L4

290. 55 years old boy complains on weakness in left foot (he is not able to walk on fingers), numbness in external surface of foot and fifth finger. In anamnesis he suffers from low back pain over 20 years. While examination there is slight pain while palpation of vertebra and paravertebral points in lumbar region. There is paresis of left foot flexors. Achilles reflex is absent on the left. There is hypoalgesia in S1, hypotrophy of left calf. On CT-scan there is hernia of L5-S1 disc (8 mm) with compression of dural bag. What is your diagnosis?

A. Radiculoischemia S1 with paresis of left foot

B. * Radicular syndrome S1 on the left

C. Spinal stroke

D. Mononeuropathy of left Tibial nerve

E. vertebrogenous left side lumboischialgia

291. 56 years old woman with diabetes mellitus (suffers during 10 years) complains on burning pain in feet, hands, numbness and increasing weakness. Objectively – muscle force in feet and hands decreased to 3 points. There is hypotonia, muscle atrophy. Achilles and carpo – radial reflexes are absent. All types of sensation are lost according to socks and gloves like type. What is the most probable previous diagnosis?

A. * Diabetic polyneuropathy

B. diabetic encephalopathy

C. diabetic myelopathy

D. diabetic encephalomyelopathy

E. Diabetic radiculopathy

292. 57 years old patient was admitted to the hospital with complains on decreased force in legs, numbness in legs, disorders of urination. The disease started 2 days ago with paresthesia in right, then in left foot that quickly irradiated to the hips, calves, lower part of abdomen. Then muscle force of legs decreased, appeared problems with urination. During the last 25 years he suffers from lumbar-sacral radiculopathy. During the last 10 years he suffered from hypertension. He smokes, uses alcohol. Objectively there is limitation of movements and decreased muscle force in legs, hypotonia, hyporeflexion. There is decreased sensation from umbilicus level according to the conductive type. What disease is in this patient?

A. * Spinal blood circulation disorders in the region of Adamkevych artery

B. Hernia of intervertebral disc

C. Compression of spinal cord with benign tumor

D. Lumbar metastasis

E. pathological fracture of vertebra

293. 65 years old patient complains on periodic shooting pain in right facial part during eating. Pain is associated with facial muscles spasm. Teeth are healthy. There is sharp pain at palpation of II branch of trigeminal nerve point on the right. There are zones on the right cheek touching to which provokes pain attack. What is your diagnosis?

A. Hemicrania

B. Trigeminal nerve neuropathy

C. occipital nerve neuropathy

D. Migraine

E. * Trigeminal nerve neuralgia

294. A 16 years old patient complaints for severe headache, nausea, two times vomiting, dizziness, diplopia. It is all started 8 hours ago, when headache appeared and were constantly increasing. A day before in the evening he eat tinned meat. Objectively: hi is adynamic, apathical, periodically observing psychomotor excitement. Rigiditis of occipital muscles, Kernig’s symptom is positive on both sides. Positive Romberg test. Hypertermia-38,1 C. PS-92/min, BP-140/90. CSF rose color. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Acute meningoencephalitis

B. Ischemic stroke

C. * Subarochnoid hemorrhage

D. Food poisoning

E. Tumor in back cranial fossa

295. A 27 years old patient after pulling heavy baggage felt dizziness, nausea, head noise and noise in ears, than appeared short epileptic attack with loss of consciousness. Patient still felt severe headache and was couple time vomiting. Objectively: meningeal symptoms, hypereflexion, body temperature 38,5 C, psychomotor excitement. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Ischemic stroke


D. Acute meningitis

E. Hypertensive cerebral crisis

296. A 31 years old patient after pulling heavy baggage felt dizziness, nausea, head noise and noise in ears, than appeared short epileptic attack with loss of consciousness. Objectively: meningeal symptoms, hypereflexion, body temperature 37,5 C. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Ischemic stroke

C. Hypertensive cerebral crisis

D. Acute meningitis

E. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage

297. A 36-years old men suddenly felt severe headache, nausea, vomiting, appeared disorders of consciousness. Objectively: BP-190/130, PS-94/min, hyperemia of face skin, answers for questions are slow simple and not always correct. Cranial nerves are not involved in pathological process, no signs of paresis. There are rigiditi of occipital muscles, symptoms of Kernig, Brudzinski. SCF: fresh blood. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Thrombosis of anterior communicant cerebral artery

B. Rupture of right middle cerebral artery


D. Atherothrombotic stroke


298. A 37 years old man after pulling heavy baggage felt dizziness, nausea, head noise and noise in ears, than appeared short epileptic attack with loss of consciousness. Patient still felt severe headache and was couple time vomiting. Objectively: meningeal symptoms, hypereflexion, body temperature 38,5 C, psychomotor excitement. Put previous diagnosis:


B. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage

C. Ischemic stroke

D. Acute meningitis

E. Hypertensive cerebral crisis

299. A 41-years old men suddenly felt severe headache, nausea, vomiting, appeared disorders of consciousness. Objectively: BP-210/130, PS-94/min, hyperemia of face skin. Cranial nerves are not involved in pathological process, no signs of paresis. There are rigiditi of occipital muscles, symptoms of Kernig, Brudzinski. SCF: fresh blood. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Thrombosis of anterior communicant cerebral artery

B. Rupture of right middle cerebral artery

C. Thrombosis of cavernal sinus

D. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage


300. A 43-years old women during work suddenly felt nausea, vomiting, severe headache, than she fell unconsciousness. Appeared right-side paralysis. Neurological status: coma, hyperemia of face skin, disturbances of breathing, general hyperhydrosis, regiditi of occipital muscles, symptom of Kernig on the left side, right-side spastic hemiplegia. SCF: fresh blood and high level of protein. What is the main element of pathogenesis in this case?

A. Diapedesis of cerebral vessel

B. * Rupture of cerebral vessel

C. Spasm of cerebral vessel

D. Embolism of cerebral arteries

E. Thrombosis of cerebral arteries

301. A 43-years old women during work suddenly felt nausea, vomiting, severe headache, than she fell unconsciousness. Appeared right-side hemiparalysis. Neurological status: coma, hyperemia of face skin, disturbances of breathing, general hyperhydrosis, regiditi of occipital muscles, symptom of Kernig on the left side, right-side spastic hemiplegia. SCF: fresh blood and high level of proteine. What is the main element of pathogenesis in this case?


B. * Rupture of cerebral vessel



E. Thrombosis of cerebral arteries

302. A 47-years old women suddenly felt nausea, vomiting, severe headache, than she fell unconsciousness. Appeared right-side paralysis. Neurological status: coma, hyperemia of face skin, disturbances of breathing, general hyperhydrosis, regiditi of occipital muscles, symptom of Kernig on the left side, right-side spastic hemiplegia. SCF: fresh blood and high level of protein. What is the main element of pathogenesis in this case?


B. Thrombosis of cerebral arteries



E. * Rupture of cerebral vessel

303. A 48 years old farmer with suspicions on the acute poisoning by pesticides attended to clinic. In the day of disease he released and loaded on a machine boxes with pesticides. He complained for severe headache, dizziness, squeezing character pain in the heart area, afterwards he lost consciousness. Objective: skin is clear, cyanosis of lips. PS-56/min, BP-200/100, breathing is vesicular. Tones of heart are deaf, accent of II tone on an aorta. Asymmetry of face, right mouth angle is located lower than normally, , pupils are dilatated, D

A. * Hemorrhagic stroke

B. Poisoning with chlororganic pesticides

C. Poisoning with phosphororganic pesticides

D. Poisoning with ftororganic pesticides

E. Hart attack

304. What disease we can think about if the patient complains on severe back pain after catching cold. Positive Laseg and Neri signs are present on the right. Achilles reflex is absent.

A. * Radiculopathy

B. lumbalgia

C. Urine stone disease



305. What disease we should think about in case of severe low back pain after lifting heavy thing. There are positive Laseg and Neri signs on the right. Right Achilles reflex is absent.

A. * radiculopathy

B. Lumbalgia

C. Stones in urine bladder

D. Stones in gallbladder


306. A Increasing of sugar level

A. Neutrophilyl pleocytosis

B. Decreasing IgA

C. Decreasing of sugar level

D. Increasing IgG

307. A 44 years old men complains for loss of waight, ulcers, weakness in arms and legs. Objectively: acrocianosis, Horner syndrome, bulbar pulsy, peripheral paresis of upper extremities and cenral one in lower. What is a clinical form of syringomyelia?

A. Spinal

B. Brein stem

C. * Brein stem-spinal

D. Cerebral

E. Central

308. A 44 years old men complains for loss of waight, ulcers, weakness in arms and legs. Objectively: acrocianosis, Horner syndrome, bulbar pulsy, peripheral paresis of upper extremities and cenral one in lower. What is a conservative treatment in this case?

A. * X-rey therapy

B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif



B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif

310. 1 year after child birth woman noticed legs numbness and decreased vision on right eye. This complains are typical for the beginning of:

A. A. Polyneuropathy

B. * B. Multiple sclerosis

C. C. Ischemic stroke

D. D. Encephalitis

E. E. Meningitis

311. 18-years old woman in couple month after hard emotional trauma felt temporary decreased of vision, unstable gait, and retention of urine. Objective: horizontal nistagmus, spastic lower paraparesis, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – decoloration of temporal parts of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. * Arachnoencephalitis

B. Cerebral circulation disturbances

C. Brain tumor

D. Encephalomyelitis

E. Multiple sclerosis

312. 20 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: horizontal nystagmus, brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent, static ataxia. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Arachnoencephalitis

B. * Multiple sclerosis

C. Cerebral circulation disturbances


E. Brain tumor

313. 23 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Now she is euphoric with decreased criticism. Horizontal nystagmus. Brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. Abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?



C. Arachnoencephalitis


E. Brain tumor

314. 23 – years old women complains for leg weakness, unstable gait, micturition. She suffers from the disease during 3 years. From time to time she has exacerbation. Now the patient has lower spastic paraparesis, sensitive ataxia. What is your previous diagnosis?


B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS

D. Disseminated encephalomyelitis

E. Spinal tumor


A. Spinal tumor

B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS


E. * Multiple sclerosis

316. 26 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Now she is euphoric with decreased criticism, horizontal nystagmus. Brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. Abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?



C. * Multiple sclerosis


E. Brain tumor

317. 26 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: horizontal nystagmus, brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Brain tumor





318. 27 – years old women complains on leg weakness, unstable gait, micturition. She suffers from the disease during 3 years. From time to time she has exacerbation. Now the patient has lower spastic paraparesis, sensitive ataxia. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. ALS

B. Spinal stroke



E. Spinal tumor

319. 3 month after child birth woman noticed decreased vision on right eye and legs numbness. This complains are typical for the beginning of:


B. Meningitis

C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy

320. 30 years old patient during 3 months noticed loos of waight, developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, there are disturbances of cognitive functions, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference to the people around him and his state. He noticed intermittent fever. While examination there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. Syphilis

B. Herpetic encephalitis

C. Tuberculosis

D. * HIV

E. lympholeucosis

321. 31 – years old women complains for arm weakness, unstable gait, micturition. She suffers from the disease during 5 years. From time to time she has exacerbation. Now the patient has spastic tetraparesis, sensitive ataxia. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. Disseminated encephalomyelitis

B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS

D. * Multiple sclerosis

E. Spinal tumor

322. 31 years old patient during 3 months noticed developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names. Addresses. Cognitive functions are damaged. There is constrains, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference. He lost 9 kg. There is

intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. Lympholeucosis

B. herpetic encephalitis

C. tuberculosis

D. Syphilis

E. * AIDS

323. 33 years old patient during 8 months noticed developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names. Addresses. Cognitive functions are damaged. There is constrains, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference. He lost 16 kg. There is intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. syphilis


C. tuberculosis

D. * AIDS

E. lympholeucosis


A. * AIDS


C. tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis


A. * AIDS


C. tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

326. 37 years old patient during 3 months noticed developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names, addresses, there are disturbances of cognitive functions, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference to the people around him and his state. He lost 12 kg in weight. He noticed intermittent fever. While examination there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. * HIV


C. Tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

327. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?





E. Brain tumor

328. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. * MRI

B. CT

C. Electromyography

D. Electroencephalography

E. LP

329. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Azatioprin

B. * Prednison

C. Betametason

D. Betaferon

E. Proserin

330. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?


B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Brain tumor

D. * Encephalomyelitis

E. Cerebral circulation disturbances

331. 41 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. of biological needs. At neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test showed positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. * syphilitic

C. Vascular (AS)

D. Cerebral – atrophic (Pick and Alzheimer disease)

E. dissociative (pseudodementia)

332. 41 years old patient noticed loss of waight, developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names. Addresses. Cognitive functions are damaged. There is constrains, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference. There is intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. Tuberculosis


C. * AIDS

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

333. 42 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. Interests are limited by satisfaction of biological needs. Objective: anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test

showed positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. Vascular

C. Cerebral – atrophic (Pick and Alzheimer disease)

D. * syphilitic


334. 42 years old patient, who had head trauma last summer came to the clinic with memory problems. Thoughts are not productive, elementary knowledge is absent, arithmetical tasks (from 1 to 10) perform with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat, interests are limited with satisfying biological needs. While neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson symptom, coordination disorders, tongue and eye lids, fingers tremor. Laboratory diagnostics has shown positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, RIF and RIBT, “paralytic curve”, reaction of Lange. What type of dimension is in this patient?

A. * syphilitic

B. vascular (aterosclerosis)

C. traumatic

D. cerebral – atrophic (Pick disease, Alzhaimer disease)

E. Dissociative (pseudo dimension)

335. 42 years old patient. Thoughts are not productive, elementary knowledge is absent, arithmetical tasks (from 1 to 10) perform with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat, interests are limited with satisfying biological needs. While neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson symptom, coordination disorders, tongue and eye lids, fingers tremor. Laboratory diagnostics has shown positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, RIF and RIBT, “paralytic curve”, reaction of Lange. What type of dimension is in this patient?

A. * Encephalomyelitis



D. Multiple sclerosis

E. Brain tumor

336. 47 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. Interests are limited by satisfaction of biological needs. At neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test showed positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. Vascular (AS)

C. * syphilitic




A. traumatic


C. * syphilitic




A. Multiple sclerosis




E. * Brain tumor

339. 5 month after child birth woman noticed legs numbness and decreased vision on right eye. This complains are typical for the beginning of:

A. Polyneuropathy

B. Meningitis

C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis



A. Ischemic stroke

B. Meningitis


D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy


A. Ischemic stroke


C. Meningitis

D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy


A. Polyneuropathy


C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis

E. Meningitis

343. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

B. Essential hypotension

C. * Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form

D. Cerebral vasculopathy

E. Essential hypotension with mononeuropathy of left facial nerve

344. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. Electroencephalography

B. CT

C. Electromyography

D. * MRI

E. LP

345. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednison

E. Proserinum

346. A 22 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the third day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, numbness in the lower part of the body and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th6 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 32 mm per hour, Le – 16* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Acute myelitis

B. Spinal ischemic stroke

C. Spinal tumor

D. Spinal form of MS

E. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

347. A 22 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:





E. Brain tumor

348. A 22 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?

A. * A. Increasing IgG

B. B. Neutrophilyl pleocytosis

C. C. Decreasing IgA

D. D. Decreasing of sugar level

E. E. Increasing of sugar level

349. A 24 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the fourth day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, numbness in the lower part of the body and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th8 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 42 mm per hour, Le – 19* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. Spinal tumor


C. * Acute myelitis



350. A 24 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 2 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Encephalomyelitis




E. Brain tumor

351. A 24 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?


B. * Increasing IgG

C. Decreasing IgA

D. Decreasing of sugar level

E. Increasing of sugar level

352. A 26 years old patient complains for vision disturbances. In a year appeared weakness in the right leg. Objectively: horizontal nistagmus, on eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Retrobulbar neuritis

C. Peroneal neuropathy

D. Poliomyelitis

E. Myelitis

353. A 28 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, positive Romberg test. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?

A. * Increasing IgG

B. Neutrophilyl pleocytosis

C. Decreasing IgA



354. A 29 years old patient complains for vision disturbances. In a year appeared weakness in the right leg. Objectively: horizontal nystagmus, on eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Peroneal neuropathy



D. Poliomyelitis

E. Myelitis

355. A 32 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the third day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, lower part of the body numbness and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th6 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 28 mm per hour, Le – 10* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Acute myelitis


C. Spinal tumor



356. A 34 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities, problems with swallowing. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm. Put previous diagnosis:



C. Brain tumor



357. A 39 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In next 2 years he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Myelitis

C. Poliomyelitis

D. * ALS

E. Discirculative encephalomyelopathy

358. A 41 years old patient during 4 months noticed developing of slowness, decreased memory on names, los of waight. Cognitive function is damaged. There is sleepiness, untidiness, constrains, indifference. There is intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. tuberculosis


C. * AIDS

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

359. A 42 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. Put previous diagnosis:


B. * ALS

C. Poliomyelitis

D. Myelitis


360. A 42 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. What is the stage of ALS?

A. 1

B. * 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 6

361. A 42 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. What is the clinical form of ALS?

A. Cerebral

B. * Bulbar

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. Lumbar-sacral

362. A 44 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. Later he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Poliomyelitis

C. * ALS

D. Myelitis


363. A 44 years old men complains for loss of waight, ulcers, weakness in arms and legs. Objectively: acrocianosis, Horner syndrome, peripheral paresis of upper extremities and cenral one in lower. Put previous diagnosis:


B. * Syringomyelia

C. Poliomyelitis

D. ALS




B. * ALS

C. Poliomyelitis

D. Myelitis


365. A Getchinson’s triad

A. Horner syndrome

B. Brudzinski triad of meningitis

C. “Triple-hemi” syndrome in damage of internal capsule

D. Sharcot’s triad in MS

366. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. What disease can be suspected?

A. Brain tumor


C. lethargic encephalitis

D. Optic – chiasmal arachnoiditis


367. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. LP

B. CT

C. Electromyography


E. * MRI

368. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Azatioprin

B. Betametasoni

C. * Prednison

D. Betaferon

E. Proserin

369. A young woman has 4 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Now she has severely decreased visual acuity on the right eye, absence of abdominal and solar reflexes. Deep reflexes are increased. What disease can be suspected?

A. * Brain tumor





370. A young woman has 6 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Now she has severely decreased visual acuity on the right eye, absence of abdominal and solar reflexes. Deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 3 sec. What disease can be suspected?


B. Brain tumor



E. Brain stem encephalitis


A. Brain tumor





372. Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

A. Essential hypotension

B. Essential hypotension with mononeuropathy of left facial nerve

C. Cerebral vasculopathy

D. Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form

373. Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

A. * Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form



D. Essential hypotension

374. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Put previous diagnosis:

A. 1

B. * 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

375. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Previous diagnosis is AMEM. Which medicine need to be used in this case?

A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednisolone

E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum

378. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Previous diagnosis is AMEM. What dose of methylprednisolone has to be used?






379. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Previous diagnosis is AMEM. What is perhaps etiology of AMEM?

A. Bacterial

B. * Virus

C. Trauma

D. Vascular

E. Autoimmune process


A. * AMEM

B. ALS

C. MS

D. Syringomyelia

E. Myelopathy on lumbar level

381. In a 32 years old men appeared nystagmus, scanning speech, intention tremor. This is a classic triad for:

A. * Sharcot’s triad in MS

B. Horner syndrome

C. Brudzinski triad of meningitis

D. “Triple-hemi” syndrome in damage of internal capsule

E. Getchinson’s triad

382. In a 32 years old men appeared nystagmus, scanning speech, intention tremor. This is a classic triad called:


B. Horner syndrome




383. Patient with MS after 2 years incomplete remission complains on increasing weakness in legs, double vision at looking to the left. The doctor appreciated it as

exacerbation of the disease. What medications and in what doses should be prescribed in this case?

A. * Pulse – therapy with Corticoids

B. Corticoids in small doses

C. Betapheron – 8 million IU every other day

D. Copaxon – 20 mg per day

E. Vasoactive medications in large doses

384. Patient X., 42 years old after fkue has the exacerbation of MS. What medicine should be used in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednison

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Metypred

E. Proserinum

386. Patient X., 42 years old after fkue has the exacerbation of MS. What medicine should be used in in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexametason

E. Proserinum

387. Patient X., 42 years old after fkue has the exacerbation of MS. Which medicine need to be used in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Solu-medrolum

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexamethason

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Methylprednison

E. Proserinum


A. Methylprednison

B. ?-adrenoblockers

C. Clonasepam

D. * Baclofen

E. Rebif

391. What cytosis and which quantity can be diagnosed in CSF?

A. Neutrophil (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)



D. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)

E. Mononuclear (100 – 300 in 1 mcl)






E. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)



B. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)


D. Lymphocytic (1000 – 2000 in 1 mcl)








395. The patient cannot extend the knee. Knee reflex is absent. Sensation is lost on anterior surface of thigh. Where is the lesion?

A. Anterior roots of spinal cord on the level L2-L4

B. Posterior roots of spinal cord on the level L2-L4

C. * Femoral nerve

D. Sciatic nerve

E. Peroneal nerve

396. Increasing of sugar level


B. Decreasing IgA

C. Decreasing of sugar level

D. Increasing IgG

397. A 44 years old men complains for loss of waight, ulcers, weakness in arms and legs. Objectively: acrocianosis, Horner syndrome, bulbar pulsy, peripheral paresis of upper extremities and cenral one in lower. What is a clinical form of syringomyelia?

A. Spinal

B. Brein stem

C. * Brein stem-spinal

D. Cerebral

E. Central


A. * X-rey therapy

B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif



B. Proserinum

C. Analgetics

D. Prednison

E. Rebif

400. 1 year after child birth woman noticed legs numbness and decreased vision on right eye. This complains are typical for the beginning of:

A. Polyneuropathy


C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis

E. Meningitis

401. 18-years old woman in couple month after hard emotional trauma felt temporary decreased of vision, unstable gait, and retention of urine. Objective: horizontal nistagmus, spastic lower paraparesis, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – decoloration of temporal parts of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. * Arachnoencephalitis


C. Brain tumor



402. 20 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: horizontal nystagmus, brisk reflexes,

pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent, static ataxia. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?



C. Cerebral circulation disturbances


E. Brain tumor

403. 23 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Now she is euphoric with decreased criticism. Horizontal nystagmus. Brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. Abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?





E. Brain tumor



B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS


E. Spinal tumor


A. Spinal tumor

B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS



406. 26 – years old pregnant woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices

exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Now she is euphoric with decreased criticism, horizontal nystagmus. Brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. Abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?





E. Brain tumor

407. 26 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: horizontal nystagmus, brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Brain tumor





408. 27 – years old women complains on leg weakness, unstable gait, micturition. She suffers from the disease during 3 years. From time to time she has exacerbation. Now the patient has lower spastic paraparesis, sensitive ataxia. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. ALS

B. Spinal stroke



E. Spinal tumor



B. Meningitis

C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy

410. 30 years old patient during 3 months noticed loos of waight, developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, there are disturbances of cognitive functions, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference to the people around him and his state. He noticed intermittent fever. While examination there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. Syphilis


C. Tuberculosis

D. * HIV

E. lympholeucosis

411. 31 – years old women complains for arm weakness, unstable gait, micturition. She suffers from the disease during 5 years. From time to time she has exacerbation. Now the patient has spastic tetraparesis, sensitive ataxia. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. Disseminated encephalomyelitis

B. Spinal stroke

C. ALS


E. Spinal tumor


A. Lympholeucosis


C. tuberculosis

D. Syphilis

E. * AIDS


A. syphilis


C. tuberculosis

D. * AIDS

E. lympholeucosis


A. * AIDS


C. tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis


A. * AIDS


C. tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

416. 37 years old patient during 3 months noticed developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names, addresses, there are disturbances of cognitive functions, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference to the people around him and his state. He lost 12 kg in weight. He noticed intermittent fever. While examination there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. * HIV


C. Tuberculosis

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

417. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is the most possible diagnosis?





E. Brain tumor

418. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. * MRI

B. CT

C. Electromyography


E. LP

419. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities., abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Azatioprin

B. * Prednison

C. Betametason

D. Betaferon

E. Proserin

420. 41 – years old woman noticed increased hesitating at walking, left leg weakness. She suffers from this disease during 7 years. The patient usually notices exacerbation of the disease each autumn. Objective: brisk reflexes, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, abdominal reflexes are absent. She is instable in Romberg posture. There is intention at coordinating tests performing. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?


B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Brain tumor


E. Cerebral circulation disturbances

421. 41 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. of biological needs. At neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test showed positive

Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. * syphilitic

C. Vascular (AS)



422. 41 years old patient noticed loss of waight, developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness, decreased memory on names. Addresses. Cognitive functions are damaged. There is constrains, sleepiness, untidiness, indifference. There is intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. Tuberculosis


C. * AIDS

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis

423. 42 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. Interests are limited by satisfaction of biological needs. Objective: anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test showed positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. Vascular

C. Cerebral – atrophic (Pick and Alzheimer disease)

D. * syphilitic


424. 42 years old patient, who had head trauma last summer came to the clinic with memory problems. Thoughts are not productive, elementary knowledge is absent, arithmetical tasks (from 1 to 10) perform with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat, interests are limited with satisfying biological needs. While neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson symptom, coordination disorders, tongue and eye lids, fingers tremor. Laboratory diagnostics has shown positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, RIF and RIBT, “paralytic curve”, reaction of Lange. What type of dimension is in this patient?

A. * syphilitic


C. traumatic




A. * Encephalomyelitis



D. Multiple sclerosis

E. Brain tumor

426. 47 years old patient complains on unproductive thoughts, absence of elementary knowledges. Math tasks he makes with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat. Interests are limited by satisfaction of biological needs. At neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson syndrome, coordination disorders, tongue, eyelids and fingers tremor. Laboratory test showed positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, paralitic curve, reaction of Lange. Which type of dementia is in this patient?

A. traumatic

B. Vascular (AS)

C. * syphilitic




A. traumatic


C. * syphilitic



428. 49 years old patient. Thoughts are not productive, elementary knowledge is absent, arithmetical tasks (from 1 to 10) perform with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat, interests are limited with satisfying biological needs. While neurological examination there is

anizokoria, Argil – Robertson symptom, coordination disorders, tongue and eye lids, fingers tremor. Laboratory diagnostics has shown positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, RIF and RIBT, “paralytic curve”, reaction of Lange. What type of dimension is in this patient?





E. * Brain tumor


A. Polyneuropathy

B. Meningitis

C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis



A. Ischemic stroke

B. Meningitis


D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy


A. Ischemic stroke


C. Meningitis

D. Encephalitis

E. Polyneuropathy


A. Polyneuropathy


C. Ischemic stroke

D. Encephalitis

E. Meningitis

433. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. What is the most possible diagnosis?

A. Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

B. Essential hypotension

C. * Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form

D. Cerebral vasculopathy

E. Essential hypotension with mononeuropathy of left facial nerve

434. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. Electroencephalography

B. CT

C. Electromyography

D. * MRI

E. LP

435. A 18-years old patient after stress situation felt headache, weakness in legs. It is known, that he suffers from arterial hypotension. Objectivly: leftside static ataxia, light lower paraparesis, decreasing of abdominal reflexes. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednison

E. Proserinum

436. A 22 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the third day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, numbness in the lower part of the body and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th6 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 32 mm per hour, Le – 16* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Acute myelitis


C. Spinal tumor



437. A 22 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:





E. Brain tumor

438. A 22 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?

A. * Increasing IgG


C. Decreasing IgA



439. A 24 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the fourth day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, numbness in the lower part of the body and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th8 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 42 mm per hour, Le – 19* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. Spinal tumor


C. * Acute myelitis



440. A 24 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 2 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. She is instable in Romberg posture. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Encephalomyelitis




E. Brain tumor

441. A 24 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?


B. * Increasing IgG

C. Decreasing IgA



442. A 26 years old patient complains for vision disturbances. In a year appeared weakness in the right leg. Objectively: horizontal nistagmus, on eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:



C. Peroneal neuropathy

D. Poliomyelitis

E. Myelitis

443. A 28 years old woman complains for decreasing of vision on the right eye. Neurological status: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes, deep reflexes are increased, vibration sense is decreased on the legs to 3 sec, pathological reflexes on lower extremities, positive Romberg test. On eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. What CSF changes could be in this case?

A. * Increasing IgG


C. Decreasing IgA



444. A 29 years old patient complains for vision disturbances. In a year appeared weakness in the right leg. Objectively: horizontal nystagmus, on eye ground – temporal paleness of optic nerves discs. Put previous diagnosis:

A. Peroneal neuropathy



D. Poliomyelitis

E. Myelitis

445. A 32 – years old patient suffered from fever with chilling during two days. On the third day she found severe pain below the nipple level, legs weakness, lower part of the body numbness and retention of urine. There are no active movements in legs, total anesthesia from Th6 level downwards according to the conductive type, bed sore in lumbar region. The meningeal symptoms are absent. Blood analysis: SR – 28 mm per hour, Le – 10* 10^9 per l. What is your previous diagnosis?

A. * Acute myelitis


C. Spinal tumor



446. A 34 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities, problems with swallowing. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm. Put previous diagnosis:



C. Brain tumor


447. A 39 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In next 2 years he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Myelitis

C. Poliomyelitis

D. * ALS


448. A 41 years old patient during 4 months noticed developing of slowness, decreased memory on names, los of waight. Cognitive function is damaged. There is sleepiness, untidiness, constrains, indifference. There is intermittent fever. At examination generalized lymphadenopathy was found. Put the clinical diagnosis.

A. tuberculosis


C. * AIDS

D. syphilis

E. lympholeucosis



B. * ALS

C. Poliomyelitis

D. Myelitis


450. A 42 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. What is the stage of ALS?

A. 1

B. * 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 6

451. A 42 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. In a year he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. What is the clinical form of ALS?

A. Cerebral

B. * Bulbar

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. Lumbar-sacral

452. A 44 – years old patient noticed jerking movements of upper extremities. Later he noticed slimming and weakness of right, then left arm, problems with swallowing. Put previous diagnosis:


B. Poliomyelitis

C. * ALS

D. Myelitis


453. A 44 years old men complains for loss of waight, ulcers, weakness in arms and legs. Objectively: acrocianosis, Horner syndrome, peripheral paresis of upper extremities and cenral one in lower. Put previous diagnosis:


B. * Syringomyelia

C. Poliomyelitis

D. ALS




B. * ALS

C. Poliomyelitis

D. Myelitis


455. A Getchinson’s triad

A. Horner syndrome

B. Brudzinski triad of meningitis

C. “Triple-hemi” syndrome in damage of internal capsule

D. Sharcot’s triad in MS

456. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. What disease can be suspected?

A. Brain tumor





457. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. What is what diagnostic method is the most informative ?

A. LP

B. CT

C. Electromyography


E. * MRI

458. A young woman has 11 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Objective: absence of abdominal and solar reflexes., deep reflexes are increased. Vibration sense is decreased on the leg to 6 sec. Which medicine you’ll use in this case?

A. Azatioprin

B. Betametasoni

C. * Prednison

D. Betaferon

E. Proserin

459. A young woman has 4 months old child. She just noticed decreasing of vision on the right eye. Ophthalmologist diagnosed retrobulbar neuritis of right optic nerve. Now she has severely decreased visual acuity on the right eye, absence of abdominal and solar reflexes. Deep reflexes are increased. What disease can be suspected?

A. * Brain tumor







B. Brain tumor





A. Brain tumor





462. D Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

A. Essential hypotension



D. Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form

463. D Parasympathetic nervous system disorders, bulbar level

A. * Multiple sclerosis, subacute brain stem-cerebellar form



D. Essential hypotension


A. 1

B. * 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednisolone

E. Proserinum


A. Vitamin B

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin


E. Proserinum

468. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Previous diagnosis is AMEM. What dose of methylprednisolone has to be used?






469. In a 19-years old patient acute appeared headache, vomiting, general weakness, fever, psychomotor excitement. Objective: nystagmus, lower paraplegia is conductive to sensory disorders, positive pathological reflexes. Previous diagnosis is AMEM. What is perhaps etiology of AMEM?

A. Bacterial

B. * Virus

C. Trauma

D. Vascular

E. Autoimmune process


A. * AMEM

B. ALS

C. MS

D. Syringomyelia

E. Myelopathy on lumbar level

471. In a 32 years old men appeared nystagmus, scanning speech, intention tremor. This is a classic triad for:


B. Horner syndrome




472. In a 32 years old men appeared nystagmus, scanning speech, intention tremor. This is a classic triad called:


B. Horner syndrome




473. Patient with MS after 2 years incomplete remission complains on increasing weakness in legs, double vision at looking to the left. The doctor appreciated it as exacerbation of the disease. What medications and in what doses should be prescribed in this case?

A. * Pulse – therapy with Corticoids

B. Corticoids in small doses

C. Betapheron – 8 million IU every other day

D. Copaxon – 20 mg per day

E. Vasoactive medications in large doses


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Prednison

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Metypred

E. Proserinum

476. Patient X., 42 years old after fkue has the exacerbation of MS. What medicine should be used in in this case?

A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexametason

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Solu-medrolum

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Dexamethason

E. Proserinum


A. Betametason

B. Betaferon

C. Azatioprin

D. * Methylprednison

E. Proserinum


A. Methylprednison

B. ?-adrenoblockers

C. Clonasepam

D. * Baclofen

E. Rebif





D. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)







E. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)



B. * Lymphocytic (100 – 500 in 1 mcl)


D. Lymphocytic (1000 – 2000 in 1 mcl)








«Test question for figures»

1. On picture 25 fibrous ring is marked by number:A. *1B. 2C. 3

D. 4E. 5

2. On picture 25 hyaline plate is marked by number:A. 1B. 2C. 3D. *4E. 5

3. On picture 25 posterior longitudinal ligament is marked by number:A. 1B. 2C. *3D. 4E. 5

4. On picture 26 the structure of spinal cord that is involved in pathological process at poliomyelitis is marked by number:A. 1B. 2C. *3D. 4E. 5

5. On picture 26 the structure of spinal cord that is involved in pathological process at atactic stage of tabes dorsalis is marked by number:A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. *5

6. On picture 26 the structure of spinal cord that is involved in pathological process at ALS is marked by numbers:A. 1, 5B. *2, 3C. 3, 4D. 4, 5E. 2, 5

7. The patient was diagnosed tumor of thoracic part of spinal cord (on picture 27). What motor disorders will be typical for this level of lesion?A. Peripheral tetraparesisB. Peripheral paresis of arms and central of legsC. Central tetraparesisD. *Central paresis of legsE. Peripheral paresis of legs

8. The patient with lower back pain was made MRI (on picture 28). What pathology is marked by arrow?A. TumorB. Arachnoid cystC. HemorrhageD. Brain infarctionE. *Disc herniation

9. The patient with lower back pain was made MRI (on picture 28). All detected changes are the sign ofA. TumorB. *OsteochondrosisC. Myelitis

D. SpondilitisE. Spondilosis

10. The patient has paresis of foot extensors (on picture 29). What nerve is damaged?A. FemoralB. *PeronealC. TibularD. SchiaticE. External cutaneus

11. The patient has paresis of foot extensors (on picture 29). What reflex will suffer?A. *PlantarB. AchilleC. KneeD. CremasterE. Anal

12. The patient has prosoparesis and lacrimation from the left eye (on picture 30). Where is the lesion of facial nerve?A. Before leaving of nervus Petrosus majorB. After leaving of nervus Petrosus majorC. Before leaving of Chorda tympanyD. After leaving of Chorda tympanyE. *At leaving foramen stylomastoideus

13. The patient has prosoparesis, lacrimation from the left eye, lost taste sensation and dryness in the mouth (on picture 30). Where is the lesion of facial nerve?A. Before leaving of nervus Petrosus majorB. After leaving of nervus Petrosus majorC. *Before leaving of Chorda tympanyD. Before leaving of nervus StapediusE. At leaving foramen stylomastoideus

14. The patient has prosoparesis and dryness of left eye (on picture 30). Where is the lesion of facial nerve?A. *Before leaving of nervus Petrosus majorB. After leaving of nervus Petrosus majorC. Before leaving of Chorda tympanyD. Before leaving of nervus StapediusE. At leaving foramen stylomastoideus

15. The patient has involuntary movements that provoke enforced head position (on picture 31). What type of hyperkinesis is that?A. MyoclonusB. AthetosisC. ChoreaD. HemispasmE. *Torsion dystonia

16. The patient with ducklike gait has hypertrophy of calves’ muscles (on picture 32). For what disease is typical such clinical picture?A. ErbaRotaB. *DushenC. SharkoMaryD. WerdingHoffmanE. LanduziDegerina

17. The patient with ducklike gait has hypertrophy of calves’ muscles (on picture 32). For what disease is typical such clinical picture?A. MyastheniaB. MyotoniaC. Myoplegia

D. *Primary myodystrophyE. Secondary myodystrophy

18. The patient has atrophy of shoulders, pelvic muscles and muscles of proximal parts of extremities (on picture 33). The disease started at the age of 17 and progresseWhat pathology has such clinical picture?A. MyastheniaB. MyotoniaC. MyoplegiaD. *Primary myodystrophyE. Secondary myodystrophy

19. The patient has atrophy of shoulders, pelvic muscles and muscles of proximal parts of extremities (on picture 33). The disease started at the age of 17 and progresseWhat disease is that?A. *ErbaRotaB. DushenC. LanduziDegerinaD. SharkoMaryE. WerdingHoffman

20. The patient has atrophy of shoulders and muscles of proximal parts of armIt is associated with pseudohypertrophy of trapezius muscle (on picture 34). The disease started at the age of 19 and progresseWhat disease is that?A. *ErbaRotaB. DushenC. LanduziDegerinaD. SharkoMaryE. WerdingHoffman

21. What symptom is being examined at picture 36?A. *MatskevychB. SoobrazeC. WassermanD. NeriE. Lasseg

22. What symptom is being examined at picture 37?A. MatskevychB. SoobrazeC. WassermanD. NeriE. *Lasseg

23. The patient has lesion of L5 root (on picture 39). What motor disorders can be observed in this patient?A. Paresis of thigh extensorsB. Paresis of calf extensorsC. *Paresis of foot extensorsD. Paresis of foot flexorsE. Paresis of calf flexors

24. The patient has lesion of L5 root (on picture 39). What reflex will be changed?A. CremasterB. AnalC. *PlantarD. AchilleE. Knee

25. The patient has lesion of S1 root (on picture 39). What motor disorders can be observed in this patient?A. Paresis of thigh extensors

B. Paresis of calf extensorsC. Paresis of foot extensorsD. *Paresis of foot flexorsE. Paresis of calf flexors

26. The patient has lesion of S1 root (on picture 40). What reflex will be changed?A. CremasterB. AnalC. No changesD. *AchilleE. Knee

27. The patient has lesion of L5 root (on picture 40). What motor disorders can be observed in this patient?A. Paresis of thigh extensorsB. Paresis of calf extensorsC. *Paresis of foot extensorsD. Paresis of foot flexorsE. Paresis of calf flexors

28. The child after meningitis suffers from the complication that is being described on picture What complication is that?A. Physical development delayB. Eye movements disordersC. Intellectual development delayD. ParesisE. *Hydrocephalus

29. The child after meningitis suffers from the complication that is being described on picture What complication is that?A. *Internal hydrocephalusB. HydrocephalusC. ArachnoiditisD. Brain cortex atrophyE. External hydrocephalus

30. Patient’s syryngomyelitic cavity destroyed posterior horn of spinal cord (picture 43). What disorders will appear as a result of this pathology?A. TrophicB. Peripheral paresisC. Central paresisD. Lost deep sensationE. *Lost superficial sensation

31. Patient’s syryngomyelitic cavity destroyed posterior horn of spinal cord (picture 43). What type of sensory disorders will be typical for this focus?A. PeripheralB. ConductiveC. SegmentalradicularD. SegmentalE. *Segmentaldissociated

32. In patient with sensory disorders cavity in spinal cord was found (picture 43). What pathology is associated with such clinical picture?A. MyelitisB. *SyryngomyeliaC. Multiple sclerosisD. Tabes dorsalisE. Funicular myelosis

33. The patient was diagnosed primary myodystrophWhat number marks focus of lesion at this pathological process on picture 46?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. *4E. 5

34. 36 years old patient was diagnosed myastheniWhat number marks focus of lesion at this pathological process on picture 46?A. 1B. 2C. *3D. 4E. 5

35. The patient was diagnosed beginning of demyelinating diseasWhat number marks focus of lesion at this pathological process on picture 46?A. 1B. *2C. 3D. 4E. 5

36. The patient was diagnosed “syndrome of musculus piriformis” (on picture 24). What symptom is typical for this pathology?A. MatskevychB. LassegC. WassermanD. NeriE. *Wasten’s pillow

37. On BrounSequar syndrome schema zone number 1 represents (on picture 21)A. Central paresisB. *Superficial sensation disorderC. Deep sensation disorderD. Autonomic disturbancesE. Coordination disorders

38. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. *paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsB. Thenar atrophyC. paresis of hand extensorsD. paresis of fingers extensorsE. Vegetalgia

39. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger abductionC. paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Paresis of fingers extensors

40. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophy B. Absence of great finger abductionC. paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Paresis of 1st 3rd fingers extensors

41. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What

disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. VegetalgiaB. Thenar atrophyC. paresis of hand extensorsD. paresis of fingers extensorsE. *Hypothenar atrophy

42. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. VegetalgiaB. Thenar atrophyC. paresis of hand extensorsD. paresis of fingers extensorsE. *«Sharpclawed paw»

43. The patient has lesion of ulnar nerve on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 45). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. Vegetalgia B. Thenar atrophyC. paresis of hand extensorsD. paresis of fingers extensorsE. *Absent first finger abduction

44. The patient has lesion of nervus medianus on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 44). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. “Hanging hand”C. paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsD. paresis of hand extensorsE. *Vegetalgia

45. The patient has lesion of nervus medianus on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 44). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. “Hanging hand”C. paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsD. paresis of hand extensorsE. *Paresis of 1st3rd fingers flexors

46. The patient has lesion of nervus medianus on the level marked by number 1 (on picture 44). What disorders will be observed due to this lesion?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. *Atrophy of thenarC. paresis of 4th5th fingers flexorsD. paresis of hand extensorsE. “Hanging hand”

47. The patient suffers from pain and sensory disorders in zone V1 (on picture 38). What nerve is damaged?A. n.facialisB. *n.ophtalmicusC. n.opticusD. n.maxillarisE. n.Mandibularis

48. The patient suffers from pain and sensory disorders in zone V2 (on picture 38). What nerve is damaged?A. n.facialisB. n.ophtalmicusC. n.opticusD. *n.maxillaries

E. n.mandibularis49. The patient suffers from pain and sensory disorders in zone V3 (on picture 38). What nerve is

damaged?A. n.facialisB. n.ophtalmicusC. n.opticus D. n.maxillarisE. *n.mandibularis

50. 19 years old patient complains on dizziness, wandering gait, paroxysmal weakness in legThe disease started 1 year agWhile examination the doctor revealed staticlocomotor cerebellar ataxia, light lower paraparesiMRI is on the picture What disease did the doctor diagnose?A. EncephalopathyB. EncephalitisC. TumorD. *Multiple sclerosisE. Stroke

51. What symptom is being checked on picture1?A. LasegB. LessageC. *BrudzinskiD. KernigE. Matskevych

52. What symptom is being checked on picture 2?A. LasegB. LessageC. BrudzinskiD. *KernigE. Matskevych

53. The symptom, that is being checked on picture 1, belongs toA. Stretch phenomenaB. CSFphenomenaC. *Meningeal signsD. Focal signsE. Cerebellar signs

54. The symptom, that is being checked on picture 2, belongs toA. Stretch phenomenaB. CSFphenomenaC. *Meningeal signsD. Focal signsE. Cerebellar signs

55. What pathology is represented on picture 3?A. Brain tumorB. Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. *Brain abscess

56. What pathology is represented on picture 4?A. Brain tumorB. Brain infarctionC. *HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. Brain abscess

57. What type of hemorrhagic stroke is represented on picture 4?A. Mixed

B. VentricularC. SubarachnoidD. *ParenchimatoseE. Epidural


59. What type of hemorrhagic stroke is represented on picture 5?A. *MixedB. VentricularC. SubarachnoidD. ParenchimatoseE. Epidural

60. What type of motor disorders is observed at hemorrhagic stroke on picture 6?A. ParalysisB. ParesisC. HypokinesiaD. *AtaxiaE. Hyperkinesia

61. What type of motor disorders is observed at hemorrhagic stroke on picture 6?A. Sensitive ataxiaB. Cortical ataxiaC. *Cerebellar ataxiaD. Vestibular ataxiaE. Mixed ataxia

62. What type of motor disorders is observed at hemorrhagic stroke on picture 4?A. *ParalysisB. Cortical ataxiaC. HypokinesiaD. Cerebellar ataxiaE. Hyperkinesia

63. What type of investigation is described on picture 7?A. CraniogramB. *AngiogramC. VentriculogramD. MRIE. CTscan


65. What type of hemorrhagic stroke is represented on picture 8?A. *MixedB. VentricularC. SubarachnoidD. ParenchimatoseE. Epidural

66. Under what number is zone of penumbra marked on picture 9?A. 3

B. 4C. 5D. 6E. *7

67. Under what number is zone of infaction marked on picture 9?A. 3B. 4C. 5D. *6E. 7

68. Which artery bassin is represented on picture 10?A. Anterior cerebralB. *Middle cerebralC. Posterior cerebralD. VertebralE. Bassilar

69. What pathology is represented on picture 11?A. Brain tumorB. *Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. Brain abscess



72. What type of brain infarction is represented on picture 12?A. HemodynamicB. CardioembolicC. *LacunarD. HemorheologicE. Atherothrombotic

73. Which artery bassin is being affected at stroke described on picture 13?A. Anterior cerebralB. *Middle cerebralC. Posterior cerebralD. VertebralE. Bassilar

74. What pathology is characterized be lesion of lateral foniculi of spinal cord (on picture 14)?A. Brain infarctionB. SyringomyeliaC. *Lateral amyotrophic sclerosisD. MyelitisE. Spinal tumor

75. What pathology is characterized be the clinical picture that is described on picture 15?A. Brain infarction

B. Hemorrhagic strokeC. Lateral amyotrophic sclerosisD. *Multiple sclerosisE. Brain stem tumor

76. The patient with multiple sclerosis has focuses of demyelinatioWhat part of brain is involved in pathological focus on picture 15?A. Oblong brainB. CerebellumC. PonsD. *MidbrainE. Brain stem

77. What type of brain infarction is represented on picture 11?A. HemodynamicB. CardioembolicC. *LacunarD. HemorheologicE. Atherothrombotic

78. The patient with multiple sclerosis has focuses of demyelination only in zone that is described on picture What clinical form of the disease is that?A. CerebralB. SpinalC. CapsularD. CerebellarE. *Brain stem

79. The patient with multiple sclerosis has focuses of demyelination only in zone that is described on picture What clinical form of the disease is that?A. CerebralB. *SpinalC. CapsularD. CerebellarE. Brain stem

80. What pathology is represented on picture 17?A. *Brain tumorB. Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. Brain abscess

81. What pathology is represented on picture 18?A. *Brain tumorB. Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. Brain abscess

82. On picture 18 brain metastasis is describeWhich tumors usually give metastasis to the brain?A. Tumors of liverB. *Tumors of lungC. Tumors of pancreasD. Tumors of kidneysE. Tumors of uterus

83. What pathology is represented on picture 19?A. *Brain tumorB. Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. Encephalitis

E. Brain abscess84. What type of motor disorders is observed at tumor, described on picture 19?

A. ParalysisB. ParesisC. HypokinesiaD. *AtaxiaE. Hyperkinesia

85. What type of motor disorders is observed at tumor, described on picture 19?A. Sensitive ataxiaB. Cortical ataxiaC. *Cerebellar ataxiaD. Vestibular ataxiaE. Mixed ataxia

86. What pathology is represented on picture 20?A. Brain abscessB. Brain infarctionC. HemorrhageD. EncephalitisE. *Brain tumor

87. What syndrome’s schema is represented on picture 21?A. AwellisB. SchmidtC. FovihlD. JacksonE. *BrounSequar

88. On scheme of BrounSequar syndrome (picture 21) zone number 3 representsA. Central paresisB. *Superficial sensation disordersC. Deep sensation disordersD. Autonomic disordersE. Coordination disorders

89. On scheme of BrounSequar syndrome (picture 21) zone number 2 representsA. Central paresis, superficial sensation disordersB. Peripheral paresis, superficial sensation disordersC. Peripheral paresis, deep sensation disordersD. Central paresis, autonomic disordersE. *Central paresis, deep sensation disorders

90. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What nerve is damaged?A. UlnarisB. MusculocutaneusC. RadialisD. *MedianusE. Axillaris

91. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What motor disorders will be observed in this patient?A. Paresis of hand’s flexorsB. Paresis of hand’s extensorsC. Paresis of 4th5th fingers’ flexorsD. *Paresis of 1st 3rd fingers’ flexorsE. Difficulties at 3rd 5th fingers abduction

92. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What other disorders will be observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophy

B. “Hanging hand”C. *Absence of great finger oppositionD. Paresis of hand’s extensorsE. Paresis of 4th 5th fingers flexors

93. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark colour on picture What other disorders will be observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. “Hanging hand”C. Paresis of 4th 5th fingers flexorsD. Paresis of hand’s extensorsE. *Vegetalgia

94. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. *Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger oppositionC. Paresis of 1st – 3rd fingers flexorsD. Thenar atrophyE. Vegetalgia

95. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger abductionC. Paresis of 4th – 5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Vegetalgia

96. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger abductionC. Paresis of 4th – 5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Paresis of 1st – 3rd fingers flexors

97. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger abductionC. Paresis of 4th – 5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Paresis of fingers extensors

98. The patient has sensory disorders in zone that is marked by dark color on picture What disorders will be not observed in this patient?A. Hypothenar atrophyB. Absence of great finger abductionC. Paresis of 4th – 5th fingers flexorsD. «Sharpclawed paw»E. *Paresis of hand’s extensors

99. The patient was diagnosed “syndrome of piriformis muscle” (on picture 24). What group of syndromes does it belong?A. CompressiveradicularB. ReflexC. *MuscletonicD. NeurodystrophicE. Autonomicvascular

100. The patient was diagnosed “syndrome of piriformis muscle” (on picture 24).Which of the

following signs is typical for this pathology?A. MatskevychB. *BonneBobrovnikovaC. WassermanD. NeriE. Lasseg

101. The patient was diagnosed “syndrome of piriformis muscle” (on picture 24).Which of the following signs is typical for this pathology?A. MatskevychB. *SoobrazeC. WassermanD. NeriE. Lasseg

102. On picture 25 pulpose nucleus is marked by number:A. 1B. *2C. 3D. 4E. 5

2 spеcial neurology

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