340 mcq drill with answers

PHCY 340 MCQ PHCY 340 MCQ DRILLDRILL

1.1. The muscarinic effects of acetylcholine The muscarinic effects of acetylcholine include which if the following?include which if the following?

a) Slowing of the heart and of AV a) Slowing of the heart and of AV conduction conduction

b)b) Decrease in gut motility Decrease in gut motility

c)c) Stimulation of watery salivary secretion Stimulation of watery salivary secretion

d)d) Retention of urine Retention of urine

e)e) Depolarisation of the motor endplate of Depolarisation of the motor endplate of skeletal muscle skeletal muscle

1.1. The muscarinic effects of acetylcholine The muscarinic effects of acetylcholine include which if the following?include which if the following?

a) Slowing of the heart and of AV a) Slowing of the heart and of AV conductionconduction

b)b) Decrease in gut motility Decrease in gut motility

c)c) Stimulation of watery salivary secretion Stimulation of watery salivary secretion

d)d) Retention of urine Retention of urine

e)e) Depolarisation of the motor endplate of Depolarisation of the motor endplate of skeletal muscle skeletal muscle

2.2. An example of a drug used to treat An example of a drug used to treat NSAID-induced gastric ulceration isNSAID-induced gastric ulceration is

a)a) Diclofenac Diclofenac

b)b) Misoprostol Misoprostol

c)c) Cimetidine Cimetidine

d)d) Ranitidine Ranitidine

e)e) Ibuprofen Ibuprofen

2.2. An example of a drug used to treat An example of a drug used to treat NSAID-induced gastric ulceration isNSAID-induced gastric ulceration is

a)a) Diclofenac Diclofenac

b)b) Misoprostol Misoprostol

c)c) Cimetidine Cimetidine

d)d) Ranitidine Ranitidine

e)e) Ibuprofen Ibuprofen

3.3. Which if the following has direct Which if the following has direct sympathomimetic activity?sympathomimetic activity?

a)a) AmphetamineAmphetamine

b)b) SelegillineSelegilline

c)c) AdrenalineAdrenaline

d)d) PhenelzinePhenelzine

e)e) MethylphenidateMethylphenidate

3.3. Which if the following has direct Which if the following has direct sympathomimetic activity?sympathomimetic activity?

a)a) AmphetamineAmphetamine

b)b) SelegillineSelegilline

c)c) AdrenalineAdrenaline

d)d) PhenelzinePhenelzine

e)e) MethylphenidateMethylphenidate

4.4. Which of the following statements is Which of the following statements is NOT correct?NOT correct?

a)a) Phentolamine is a mixed alpha1 and Phentolamine is a mixed alpha1 and alpha2 antagonist alpha2 antagonist

b)b) Phentolamine is a long acting antagonist Phentolamine is a long acting antagonist

c)c) Phenoxybenzamine is a selective alpha2 Phenoxybenzamine is a selective alpha2 antagonist antagonist

d)d) Prazosin is an alpha1 specific antagonist Prazosin is an alpha1 specific antagonist

e)e) Prazosin is used in the treatment of Prazosin is used in the treatment of hypertension hypertension

4.4. Which of the following statements is Which of the following statements is NOT correct?NOT correct?

a)a) Phentolamine is a mixed alpha1 and Phentolamine is a mixed alpha1 and alpha2 antagonist alpha2 antagonist

b)b) Phentolamine is a long acting antagonist Phentolamine is a long acting antagonist

c)c) Phenoxybenzamine is a selective alpha2 Phenoxybenzamine is a selective alpha2 antagonist antagonist

d)d) Prazosin is an alpha1 specific antagonist Prazosin is an alpha1 specific antagonist

e)e) Prazosin is used in the treatment of Prazosin is used in the treatment of hypertension hypertension

5.5. Which of the following is a selective Which of the following is a selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor?monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

a)a) Phenelzine Phenelzine

b)b) Selegiline Selegiline

c)c) Diphenhydramine Diphenhydramine

d)d) Cimetidine Cimetidine

e)e) Cyclohexadine Cyclohexadine

5.5. Which of the following is a selective Which of the following is a selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor?monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

a)a) Phenelzine Phenelzine

b)b) Selegiline Selegiline

c)c) Diphenhydramine Diphenhydramine

d)d) Cimetidine Cimetidine

e)e) Cyclohexadine Cyclohexadine

6.6. Which of the following beta blockers is Which of the following beta blockers is beta 1 selective and has low lipid beta 1 selective and has low lipid solubility?solubility?

a)a) Atenolol Atenolol

b)b) Propanolol Propanolol

c)c) Metaprolol Metaprolol

d)d) Sotalol Sotalol

e)e) Timolol Timolol

6.6. Which of the following beta blockers is Which of the following beta blockers is beta 1 selective and has low lipid beta 1 selective and has low lipid solubility?solubility?

a)a) Atenolol Atenolol

b)b) Propanolol Propanolol

c)c) Metaprolol Metaprolol

d)d) Sotalol Sotalol

e)e) Timolol Timolol

7.7. Hemicholinium acts by inhibiting which Hemicholinium acts by inhibiting which of the following?of the following?

a)a) The transport of choline into the nerve The transport of choline into the nerve

b)b) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

c)c) Re-uptake 1 Re-uptake 1

d)d) Re-uptake 2 Re-uptake 2

e)e) Catechol-o-methyltransferase Catechol-o-methyltransferase

7.7. Hemicholinium acts by inhibiting which Hemicholinium acts by inhibiting which of the following?of the following?

a)a) The transport of choline into the nerveThe transport of choline into the nerve

b)b) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

c)c) Re-uptake 1 Re-uptake 1

d)d) Re-uptake 2 Re-uptake 2

e)e) Catechol-o-methyltransferase Catechol-o-methyltransferase

8.8. An example of a propionic acid An example of a propionic acid derivative NSAID is:derivative NSAID is:

a)a) Ibuprofen Ibuprofen

b)b) Indomethacin Indomethacin

c)c) Piroxicam Piroxicam

d)d) Diclofenac Diclofenac

e)e) Sulindac Sulindac

8.8. An example of a propionic acid An example of a propionic acid derivative NSAID is:derivative NSAID is:

a)a) Ibuprofen Ibuprofen

b)b) Indomethacin Indomethacin

c)c) Piroxicam Piroxicam

d)d) Diclofenac Diclofenac

e)e) Sulindac Sulindac

9.9. Which of the following drugs is NOT an Which of the following drugs is NOT an H2 receptor antagonist?H2 receptor antagonist?

a)a) Diphenhydramine Diphenhydramine

b)b) Cimetidine Cimetidine

c)c) Ranitidine Ranitidine

d)d) Nizatidine Nizatidine

e)e) Famotidine Famotidine

9.9. Which of the following drugs is NOT an Which of the following drugs is NOT an H2 receptor antagonist?H2 receptor antagonist?

b)b) Cimetidine Cimetidine

c)c) Ranitidine Ranitidine

d)d) Nizatidine Nizatidine

e)e) Famotidine Famotidine

10.Which of the following statements 10.Which of the following statements concerning muscarinic receptors is NOT concerning muscarinic receptors is NOT correct correct

a)a) M1 receptors are present in the brain M1 receptors are present in the brain

b)b) M3 receptors are present in the brain M3 receptors are present in the brain

c)c) M2 receptors are present in the heart M2 receptors are present in the heart

d)d) M1 receptors are present in the stomach M1 receptors are present in the stomach

e)e) M3 receptors are present in smooth M3 receptors are present in smooth muscle muscle

10.Which of the following statements 10.Which of the following statements concerning muscarinic receptors is NOT concerning muscarinic receptors is NOT correct correct

a)a) M1 receptors are present in the brain M1 receptors are present in the brain

b)b) M3 receptors are present in the brain M3 receptors are present in the brain

c)c) M2 receptors are present in the heart M2 receptors are present in the heart

d)d) M1 receptors are present in the stomach M1 receptors are present in the stomach

e)e) M3 receptors are present in smooth M3 receptors are present in smooth muscle muscle

11.Which of the following drugs is NOT a 11.Which of the following drugs is NOT a disease modifying anti rheumatic drug?disease modifying anti rheumatic drug?

a)a) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine

b)b) Piroxicam Piroxicam

c)c) Methotraxate Methotraxate

d)d) Auranofin Auranofin

e)e) Chloroquine Chloroquine

11.Which of the following drugs is NOT a 11.Which of the following drugs is NOT a disease modifying anti rheumatic drug?disease modifying anti rheumatic drug?

a)a) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine

b)b) Piroxicam Piroxicam

c)c) Methotraxate Methotraxate

d)d) Auranofin Auranofin

e)e) Chloroquine Chloroquine

12.The major cellular source of histamine in 12.The major cellular source of histamine in the blood is:the blood is:

a)a) Platelet Platelet

b)b) Monocyte Monocyte

c)c) Eosinophil Eosinophil

d)d) Basophil Basophil

e)e) Neutrophil Neutrophil

12.The major cellular source of histamine in 12.The major cellular source of histamine in the blood is:the blood is:

a)a) Platelet Platelet

b)b) Monocyte Monocyte

c)c) Eosinophil Eosinophil

d)d) Basophil Basophil

e)e) Neutrophil Neutrophil

13.Which one of the following drugs inhibits 13.Which one of the following drugs inhibits the release of histamine from mast the release of histamine from mast cells?cells?

b)b) Cromolyn Cromolyn

c)c) Loratadine Loratadine

d)d) Terfenadine Terfenadine

e)e) Cimetidine Cimetidine

13.Which one of the following drugs inhibits 13.Which one of the following drugs inhibits the release of histamine from mast the release of histamine from mast cells?cells?

b)b) Cromolyn Cromolyn

c)c) Loratadine Loratadine

d)d) Terfenadine Terfenadine

e)e) Cimetidine Cimetidine

14.In which of the following pathologies has 14.In which of the following pathologies has histamine NOT been indicated?histamine NOT been indicated?

a)a) Urticaria pigmentosa Urticaria pigmentosa

b)b) Systemic mastocytosis Systemic mastocytosis

c)c) Pemicious anemia Pemicious anemia

d)d) Myelogenous leukemia Myelogenous leukemia

e)e) Gastric carcinoid tumour Gastric carcinoid tumour

14.In which of the following pathologies has 14.In which of the following pathologies has histamine NOT been indicated?histamine NOT been indicated?

a)a) Urticaria pigmentosa Urticaria pigmentosa

b)b) Systemic mastocytosis Systemic mastocytosis

c)c) Pemicious anemia Pemicious anemia

d)d) Myelogenous leukemiaMyelogenous leukemia

e)e) Gastric carcinoid tumour Gastric carcinoid tumour

15.15. An EC50 or ED50 is: An EC50 or ED50 is:

a)a) A measure of the half life of drugs A measure of the half life of drugs

b)b) The concentration of a drug that will The concentration of a drug that will elicit a 50% response of the maximal elicit a 50% response of the maximal effect of the drug effect of the drug

c)c) 50% of the drug concentration which will 50% of the drug concentration which will elicit a maximal effect elicit a maximal effect

d)d) A measure of drug efficacy A measure of drug efficacy

e)e) A log10 drug concentration A log10 drug concentration

15.15. An EC50 or ED50 is: An EC50 or ED50 is:

a)a) A measure of the half life of drugs A measure of the half life of drugs

b)b) The concentration of a drug that will The concentration of a drug that will elicit a 50% response of the maximal elicit a 50% response of the maximal effect of the drug effect of the drug

c)c) 50% of the drug concentration which will 50% of the drug concentration which will elicit a maximal effect elicit a maximal effect

d)d) A measure of drug efficacy A measure of drug efficacy

e)e) A log10 drug concentration A log10 drug concentration

16.Which one of the following statements about 16.Which one of the following statements about the action of the following renal drugs is the action of the following renal drugs is correct?correct?

a)a) Furosemide acts primarily on the proximal Furosemide acts primarily on the proximal tubule tubule

b)b) Furosemide inhibits NaFurosemide inhibits Na++/Cl/Cl-- transport at the transport at the distal tubule distal tubule

c)c) Mannitol directly inhibits the NaMannitol directly inhibits the Na++/K/K++/Cl/Cl-- exchanger in the primary tubule exchanger in the primary tubule

d)d) Aldosterone achieves diuresis by increasing Aldosterone achieves diuresis by increasing plasma Naplasma Na++ in exchange for K in exchange for K++

e)e) Aldosterone increases plasma volume and Aldosterone increases plasma volume and thereby increases cardiac output thereby increases cardiac output

16.Which one of the following statements about 16.Which one of the following statements about the action of the following renal drugs is the action of the following renal drugs is correct?correct?

a)a) Furosemide acts primarily on the proximal Furosemide acts primarily on the proximal tubule tubule

b)b) Furosemide inhibits NaFurosemide inhibits Na++/Cl/Cl-- transport at the transport at the distal tubule distal tubule

c)c) Mannitol directly inhibits the NaMannitol directly inhibits the Na++/K/K++/Cl/Cl-- exchanger in the primary tubule exchanger in the primary tubule

d)d) Aldosterone achieves diuresis by increasing Aldosterone achieves diuresis by increasing plasma Naplasma Na++ in exchange for K in exchange for K++

e)e) Aldosterone increases plasma volume and Aldosterone increases plasma volume and thereby increases cardiac outputthereby increases cardiac output

17.Which of the following statements about 17.Which of the following statements about hypertension and anti-hypertensive hypertension and anti-hypertensive therapy is correct?therapy is correct?

a)a) Secondary hypertension is generally of Secondary hypertension is generally of an unidentifiable cause an unidentifiable cause

b)b) Thiazide diuretics are generally used to Thiazide diuretics are generally used to combat hypertension combat hypertension

c)c) Hypertension predisposes to a Hypertension predisposes to a pathological reduction in cardiac mass pathological reduction in cardiac mass

d)d) Prazosin achieves vasodilation but may Prazosin achieves vasodilation but may decrease HDL profiles decrease HDL profiles

e)e) Prazosin therapy may cause Prazosin therapy may cause constipation in a patient constipation in a patient

17.Which of the following statements about 17.Which of the following statements about hypertension and anti-hypertensive hypertension and anti-hypertensive therapy is correct?therapy is correct?

a)a) Secondary hypertension is generally of Secondary hypertension is generally of an unidentifiable cause an unidentifiable cause

b)b) Thiazide diuretics are generally used to Thiazide diuretics are generally used to combat hypertension combat hypertension

c)c) Hypertension predisposes to a Hypertension predisposes to a pathological reduction in cardiac mass pathological reduction in cardiac mass

d)d) Prazosin achieves vasodilation but may Prazosin achieves vasodilation but may decrease HDL profiles decrease HDL profiles

e)e) Prazosin therapy may cause Prazosin therapy may cause constipation in a patient constipation in a patient

18.Which one of the following drugs does 18.Which one of the following drugs does NOT have a fibrolytic action?NOT have a fibrolytic action?

a)a) Reteplase Reteplase

b)b) Urokinase Urokinase

c)c) Streptokinase Streptokinase

d)d) Warfarin Warfarin

e)e) Alteplase Alteplase

18.Which one of the following drugs does 18.Which one of the following drugs does NOT have a fibrolytic action?NOT have a fibrolytic action?

a)a) Reteplase Reteplase

b)b) Urokinase Urokinase

c)c) Streptokinase Streptokinase

d)d) WarfarinWarfarin

e)e) Alteplase Alteplase

19.19. Select the correct option: A shift of Select the correct option: A shift of a curve to the right on a log dose a curve to the right on a log dose response curve indicates:response curve indicates:

a)a) A decrease in efficacy A decrease in efficacy

b)b) An increase in efficacy An increase in efficacy

c)c) A decrease in potency A decrease in potency

d)d) An increase in potency An increase in potency

e)e) None of the above None of the above

19.19. Select the correct option: A shift of Select the correct option: A shift of a curve to the right on a log dose a curve to the right on a log dose response curve indicates:response curve indicates:

a)a) A decrease in efficacy A decrease in efficacy

b)b) An increase in efficacy An increase in efficacy

c)c) A decrease in potencyA decrease in potency

d)d) An increase in potency An increase in potency

20.20. Select the correct option. The Select the correct option. The enzyme primarily responsible for 5-HT enzyme primarily responsible for 5-HT metabolism is: metabolism is:

a)a) MAO MAO

b)b) COMT COMT

c)c) Tryptophan hydroxylase Tryptophan hydroxylase

d)d) Tyrosine hydroxylase Tyrosine hydroxylase

e)e) L-aromatic acid decarboxylase L-aromatic acid decarboxylase

20.20. Select the correct option. The Select the correct option. The enzyme primarily responsible for 5-HT enzyme primarily responsible for 5-HT metabolism is: metabolism is:

a)a) MAOMAO

b)b) COMT COMT

e)e) L-aromatic acid decarboxylase L-aromatic acid decarboxylase

21.Which one of the following is NOT a 21.Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse reaction to diazepam?common adverse reaction to diazepam?

a)a) Drowsiness Drowsiness

b)b) Confusion Confusion

c)c) Slurred speech Slurred speech

d)d) Improved memory Improved memory

e)e) Motor performance deficits Motor performance deficits

21.Which one of the following is NOT a 21.Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse reaction to diazepam?common adverse reaction to diazepam?

a)a) Drowsiness Drowsiness

b)b) Confusion Confusion

c)c) Slurred speech Slurred speech

d)d) Improved memory Improved memory

e)e) Motor performance deficits Motor performance deficits

22.The drug tolcapone is used in which one 22.The drug tolcapone is used in which one of the following disorders?of the following disorders?

a)a) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia

b)b) Anxiety Anxiety

c)c) Hypertension Hypertension

d)d) Parkinson’s diseaseParkinson’s disease

e)e) Excessive vomiting Excessive vomiting

22.The drug tolcapone is used in which one 22.The drug tolcapone is used in which one of the following disorders?of the following disorders?

a)a) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia

b)b) Anxiety Anxiety

c)c) Hypertension Hypertension

d)d) Parkinson’s diseaseParkinson’s disease

e)e) Excessive vomiting Excessive vomiting

23.When drug dependence is associated 23.When drug dependence is associated with pharmacodynamic tolerance, the with pharmacodynamic tolerance, the withdrawal syndrome is often caused by withdrawal syndrome is often caused by which one of the following?which one of the following?

a)a) A decrease in the number or the A decrease in the number or the function of drug receptorsfunction of drug receptors

b)b) An increase in the number or the An increase in the number or the function of drug receptorsfunction of drug receptors

c)c) An increase in drug metabolismAn increase in drug metabolismd)d) A decrease in drug metabolismA decrease in drug metabolisme)e) An increase in gene expression for the An increase in gene expression for the

receptorreceptor

23.When drug dependence is associated 23.When drug dependence is associated with pharmacodynamic tolerance, the with pharmacodynamic tolerance, the withdrawal syndrome is often caused by withdrawal syndrome is often caused by which one of the following?which one of the following?

a)a) A decrease in the number or the A decrease in the number or the function of drug receptorsfunction of drug receptors

b)b) An increase in the number or the An increase in the number or the function of drug receptorsfunction of drug receptors

c)c) An increase in drug metabolismAn increase in drug metabolismd)d) A decrease in drug metabolismA decrease in drug metabolisme)e) An increase in gene expression for the An increase in gene expression for the

receptorreceptor

24.MDMA is an example of a drug which 24.MDMA is an example of a drug which acts mainly on which of the following?acts mainly on which of the following?

a)a) Voltage- dependant ion channels Voltage- dependant ion channels

b)b) Enzymes Enzymes

c)c) Transporter proteins Transporter proteins

d)d) Receptors Receptors

e)e) Protein kinases Protein kinases

24.MDMA is an example of a drug which 24.MDMA is an example of a drug which acts mainly on which of the following?acts mainly on which of the following?

a)a) Voltage- dependant ion channels Voltage- dependant ion channels

b)b) Enzymes Enzymes

c)c) Transporter proteinsTransporter proteins

d)d) Receptors Receptors

e)e) Protein kinases Protein kinases

25.Select the correct option. Anandamide:25.Select the correct option. Anandamide:

a)a) Acts on CB2 receptors Acts on CB2 receptors

b)b) Is metabolised by fatty acid amide Is metabolised by fatty acid amide hydrolyse hydrolyse

c)c) Acts on the immune system Acts on the immune system

d)d) Is released by presynaptic neurons Is released by presynaptic neurons

e)e) Acts on GABA receptors Acts on GABA receptors

25.Select the correct option. Anandamide:25.Select the correct option. Anandamide:

a)a) Acts on CB2 receptors Acts on CB2 receptors

b)b) Is metabolised by fatty acid amide Is metabolised by fatty acid amide hydrolysehydrolyse

c)c) Acts on the immune system Acts on the immune system

d)d) Is released by presynaptic neurons Is released by presynaptic neurons

e)e) Acts on GABA receptors Acts on GABA receptors

26.Which one of the following is not correct? 26.Which one of the following is not correct? Pharmacogenetics involves investigation of:Pharmacogenetics involves investigation of:

a)a) genetically determined variations in genetically determined variations in pharmacodynamics leading to adverse drug pharmacodynamics leading to adverse drug reactionsreactions

b)b) genetically determined variations in genetically determined variations in pharmacokinetics leading to adverse drug pharmacokinetics leading to adverse drug reactionsreactions

c)c) mutations that may lead to genetically mutations that may lead to genetically determined variation in pharmacokinetics and determined variation in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamicspharmacodynamics

d)d) the clinical significance of genetic the clinical significance of genetic polymorphisms in drug receptor proteinspolymorphisms in drug receptor proteins

e)e) the effects of gender on the response to drugsthe effects of gender on the response to drugs

26.Which one of the following is not correct? 26.Which one of the following is not correct? Pharmacogenetics involves investigation of:Pharmacogenetics involves investigation of:

a)a) genetically determined variations in genetically determined variations in pharmacodynamics leading to adverse drug pharmacodynamics leading to adverse drug reactionsreactions

b)b) genetically determined variations in genetically determined variations in pharmacokinetics leading to adverse drug pharmacokinetics leading to adverse drug reactionsreactions

c)c) mutations that may lead to genetically mutations that may lead to genetically determined variation in pharmacokinetics and determined variation in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamicspharmacodynamics

d)d) the clinical significance of genetic the clinical significance of genetic polymorphisms in drug receptor proteinspolymorphisms in drug receptor proteins

e)e) the effects of gender on the response to drugsthe effects of gender on the response to drugs

27.Select the correct option. Which of the 27.Select the correct option. Which of the following breaks down acetylcholine?following breaks down acetylcholine?

a)a) MAOMAO

b)b) COMT COMT

27.Select the correct option. Which of the 27.Select the correct option. Which of the following breaks down acetylcholine?following breaks down acetylcholine?

a)a) MAOMAO

b)b) COMT COMT

28.Which of the following is NOT correct?28.Which of the following is NOT correct?

a)a) Variants of genes coding for both alcohol Variants of genes coding for both alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase exist that may alter an individual’s response exist that may alter an individual’s response to ethyl alcoholto ethyl alcohol

b)b) Some people inherit an atypical form of Some people inherit an atypical form of alcohol dehydrogenase that metabolises ethyl alcohol dehydrogenase that metabolises ethyl alcohol at about 5 times the normal ratealcohol at about 5 times the normal rate

c)c) Some people inherit an atypical form of Some people inherit an atypical form of aldehyde dehydrogenase that metabolises aldehyde dehydrogenase that metabolises acetaldehyde at a lower rate than normalacetaldehyde at a lower rate than normal

d)d) There is a higher frequency of atypical alcohol There is a higher frequency of atypical alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase in people of Asian origin than in Caucasiansin people of Asian origin than in Caucasians

e)e) None of the aboveNone of the above

28.Which of the following is NOT correct?28.Which of the following is NOT correct?

a)a) Variants of genes coding for both alcohol Variants of genes coding for both alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase exist that may alter an individual’s response exist that may alter an individual’s response to ethyl alcoholto ethyl alcohol

b)b) Some people inherit an atypical form of Some people inherit an atypical form of alcohol dehydrogenase that metabolises ethyl alcohol dehydrogenase that metabolises ethyl alcohol at about 5 times the normal ratealcohol at about 5 times the normal rate

c)c) Some people inherit an atypical form of Some people inherit an atypical form of aldehyde dehydrogenase that metabolises aldehyde dehydrogenase that metabolises acetaldehyde at a lower rate than normalacetaldehyde at a lower rate than normal

d)d) There is a higher frequency of atypical alcohol There is a higher frequency of atypical alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase in people of Asian origin than in Caucasiansin people of Asian origin than in Caucasians

29.Which of the following drugs is probably 29.Which of the following drugs is probably most useful in the treatment of most useful in the treatment of neuropathic pain?neuropathic pain?

a)a) Amitriptyline Amitriptyline

b)b) MorphineMorphine

c)c) Aspirin Aspirin

d)d) PethidinePethidine

e)e) Glycerol trinitrateGlycerol trinitrate

29.Which of the following drugs is probably 29.Which of the following drugs is probably most useful in the treatment of most useful in the treatment of neuropathic pain?neuropathic pain?

a)a) Amitriptyline Amitriptyline

b)b) MorphineMorphine

c)c) Aspirin Aspirin

d)d) PethidinePethidine

e)e) Glycerol trinitrateGlycerol trinitrate

30.Two neurotransmitters released by 30.Two neurotransmitters released by nociceptive fibres in the spinal cord are:nociceptive fibres in the spinal cord are:

a)a) Acetyl choline and noradrenaline Acetyl choline and noradrenaline

b)b) Substance P and beta-endorphin Substance P and beta-endorphin

c)c) Glutamate and adrenaline Glutamate and adrenaline

d)d) Glutamate and substance p Glutamate and substance p

e)e) CGRP and beta endorphin CGRP and beta endorphin

30.Two neurotransmitters released by 30.Two neurotransmitters released by nociceptive fibres in the spinal cord are:nociceptive fibres in the spinal cord are:

a)a) Acetyl choline and noradrenaline Acetyl choline and noradrenaline

b)b) Substance P and beta-endorphin Substance P and beta-endorphin

c)c) Glutamate and adrenaline Glutamate and adrenaline

d)d) Glutamate and substance p Glutamate and substance p

e)e) CGRP and beta endorphin CGRP and beta endorphin

31.Which one of the following is true in the case 31.Which one of the following is true in the case of the spontaneous Adverse Reactions of the spontaneous Adverse Reactions Monitoring:Monitoring:

a)a) under-reporting is a major problemunder-reporting is a major problem

b)b) reports can only be made by the patient’s reports can only be made by the patient’s clinicianclinician

c)c) reliable estimates of risk can be generatedreliable estimates of risk can be generated

d)d) causality must be established and causality must be established and confounding factors excluded before a report confounding factors excluded before a report can be furnished to CARMcan be furnished to CARM

e)e) CARM will accept reports relating only to CARM will accept reports relating only to medicines registered for marketing in NZmedicines registered for marketing in NZ

31.Which one of the following is true in the case 31.Which one of the following is true in the case of the spontaneous Adverse Reactions of the spontaneous Adverse Reactions Monitoring:Monitoring:

a)a) under-reporting is a major problemunder-reporting is a major problem

b)b) reports can only be made by the patient’s reports can only be made by the patient’s clinicianclinician

c)c) reliable estimates of risk can be generatedreliable estimates of risk can be generated

d)d) causality must be established and causality must be established and confounding factors excluded before a report confounding factors excluded before a report can be furnished to CARMcan be furnished to CARM

e)e) CARM will accept reports relating only to CARM will accept reports relating only to medicines registered for marketing in NZmedicines registered for marketing in NZ

32.Select the correct option. If a drug is 32.Select the correct option. If a drug is administered at dosing intervals equal administered at dosing intervals equal to its elimination half-life, the number of to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the drug doses required for the drug concentration in the plasma to reach concentration in the plasma to reach steady state is:steady state is:

a)a) 2 to 32 to 3

b)b) 4 to 54 to 5

c)c) 6 to 76 to 7

d)d) 8 to 98 to 9

e)e) 10 or more10 or more

32.Select the correct option. If a drug is 32.Select the correct option. If a drug is administered at dosing intervals equal administered at dosing intervals equal to its elimination half-life, the number of to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the drug doses required for the drug concentration in the plasma to reach concentration in the plasma to reach steady state is:steady state is:

a)a) 2 to 32 to 3

b)b) 4 to 54 to 5

c)c) 6 to 76 to 7

d)d) 8 to 98 to 9

e)e) 10 or more10 or more

33.Morphine produces analgesia through 33.Morphine produces analgesia through activation of which ONE of the following activation of which ONE of the following opioid receptor subtypes?opioid receptor subtypes?

a)a) mu(µ)mu(µ)

b)b) delta(δ)delta(δ)

c)c) kappa(κ)kappa(κ)

d)d) sigma(Ϭ)sigma(Ϭ)

e)e) ORL-1ORL-1

33.Morphine produces analgesia through 33.Morphine produces analgesia through activation of which ONE of the following activation of which ONE of the following opioid receptor subtypes?opioid receptor subtypes?

a)a) mu(µ)mu(µ)

b)b) delta(δ)delta(δ)

c)c) kappa(κ)kappa(κ)

d)d) sigma(Ϭ)sigma(Ϭ)

e)e) ORL-1ORL-1

34. 34. Which one of the following statements Which one of the following statements regarding ethanol is TRUE?regarding ethanol is TRUE?

a)a) Ethanol is a very potent drug.Ethanol is a very potent drug.

b)b) For ethanol, elimination rate is For ethanol, elimination rate is proportional to plasma concentration.proportional to plasma concentration.

c)c) Ethanol demonstrated zero-order Ethanol demonstrated zero-order kinetics.kinetics.

d)d) Ethanol has a volume of distribution well Ethanol has a volume of distribution well over 1000 litres.over 1000 litres.

e)e) Decreasing gastric motility decreases Decreasing gastric motility decreases the bioavailability of ethanol.the bioavailability of ethanol.

34. 34. Which one of the following statements Which one of the following statements regarding ethanol is TRUE?regarding ethanol is TRUE?

a)a) Ethanol is a very potent drug.Ethanol is a very potent drug.

b)b) For ethanol, elimination rate is For ethanol, elimination rate is proportional to plasma concentration.proportional to plasma concentration.

c)c) Ethanol demonstrated zero-order Ethanol demonstrated zero-order kinetics.kinetics.

d)d) Ethanol has a volume of distribution well Ethanol has a volume of distribution well over 1000 litres.over 1000 litres.

e)e) Decreasing gastric motility decreases Decreasing gastric motility decreases the bioavailability of ethanol.the bioavailability of ethanol.

35. 35. Activation of which ONE of the following Activation of which ONE of the following adrenoreceptors will produce adrenoreceptors will produce tachycardia?tachycardia?

a)a) Alpha1Alpha1

b)b) Alpha2Alpha2

c)c) Beta1Beta1

d)d) Beta2Beta2

e)e) Beta3Beta3

35. 35. Activation of which ONE of the following Activation of which ONE of the following adrenoreceptors will produce adrenoreceptors will produce tachycardia?tachycardia?

a)a) Alpha1Alpha1

b)b) Alpha2Alpha2

c)c) Beta1Beta1

d)d) Beta2Beta2

e)e) Beta3Beta3

36. 36. Which ONE of the following statements Which ONE of the following statements regarding β2 adrenergic receptors is TRUE?regarding β2 adrenergic receptors is TRUE?

a)a) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by opening Nasmooth muscle in the airways by opening Na++ channels.channels.

b)b) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by increasing smooth muscle in the airways by increasing cAMP concentrations.cAMP concentrations.

c)c) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by decreasing smooth muscle in the airways by decreasing cAMP concentrations.cAMP concentrations.

d)d) Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase in heart-rate by opening Kin heart-rate by opening K++ channels. channels.

e)e) Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase in heart-rate by closing Kin heart-rate by closing K++ channels. channels.

36. 36. Which ONE of the following statements Which ONE of the following statements regarding β2 adrenergic receptors is TRUE?regarding β2 adrenergic receptors is TRUE?

a)a) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by opening Nasmooth muscle in the airways by opening Na++ channels.channels.

b)b) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by increasing smooth muscle in the airways by increasing cAMP concentrations.cAMP concentrations.

c)c) Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of Activation of β2 receptors causes relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways by decreasing smooth muscle in the airways by decreasing cAMP concentrations.cAMP concentrations.

d)d) Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase in heart-rate by opening Kin heart-rate by opening K++ channels. channels.

e)e) Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase Activation of β2 receptors causes an increase in heart-rate by closing Kin heart-rate by closing K++ channels. channels.

37. 37. Which ONE of the following can Which ONE of the following can decrease the bioavailability of an orally decrease the bioavailability of an orally administered drug?administered drug?

a)a) Increased plasma-protein binding.Increased plasma-protein binding.

b)b) Decreased gastric motility.Decreased gastric motility.

c)c) Increased renal excretion.Increased renal excretion.

d)d) Increased volume of distribution.Increased volume of distribution.

e)e) Increased plasma pH.Increased plasma pH.

37. 37. Which ONE of the following can Which ONE of the following can decrease the bioavailability of an orally decrease the bioavailability of an orally administered drug?administered drug?

a)a) Increased plasma-protein binding.Increased plasma-protein binding.

b)b) Decreased gastric motility.Decreased gastric motility.

c)c) Increased renal excretion.Increased renal excretion.

d)d) Increased volume of distribution.Increased volume of distribution.

e)e) Increased plasma pH.Increased plasma pH.

38. 38. The “disulfiram reaction” occurs when The “disulfiram reaction” occurs when alcohol is taken concomitantly with alcohol is taken concomitantly with which of the following?which of the following?

a)a) MidazolamMidazolam

b)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazole

c)c) QuindineQuindine

d)d) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

e)e) PseudoephedrinePseudoephedrine

38. 38. The “disulfiram reaction” occurs when The “disulfiram reaction” occurs when alcohol is taken concomitantly with alcohol is taken concomitantly with which of the following?which of the following?

a)a) MidazolamMidazolam

b)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazole

c)c) QuindineQuindine

d)d) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

e)e) PseudoephedrinePseudoephedrine

39. 39. Anticholinergic effects such as dry Anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision and feeling hot are mouth, blurred vision and feeling hot are not likely to occur when a low dose of not likely to occur when a low dose of tricyclic antidepressant is taken tricyclic antidepressant is taken concomitantly with which one of the concomitantly with which one of the following drugs or drug classes?following drugs or drug classes?

a)a) PhenytoinPhenytoin

b)b) AtropineAtropine

c)c) BenzodiazepinesBenzodiazepines

d)d) Sedating antihistaminesSedating antihistamines

e)e) PhenothiazinesPhenothiazines

39. 39. Anticholinergic effects such as dry Anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision and feeling hot are mouth, blurred vision and feeling hot are not likely to occur when a low dose of not likely to occur when a low dose of tricyclic antidepressant is taken tricyclic antidepressant is taken concomitantly with which one of the concomitantly with which one of the following drugs or drug classes?following drugs or drug classes?

a)a) PhenytoinPhenytoin

b)b) AtropineAtropine

c)c) BenzodiazepinesBenzodiazepines

d)d) Sedating antihistaminesSedating antihistamines

e)e) PhenothiazinesPhenothiazines

40. 40. Which one of the following statements best Which one of the following statements best describes people who are “fast acetylators” describes people who are “fast acetylators” and are prescribed Isoniazid for treating and are prescribed Isoniazid for treating tuberculosis?tuberculosis?

a)a) They are at decreased risk of hepatotoxicityThey are at decreased risk of hepatotoxicity

b)b) They comprise approximately 15% of the They comprise approximately 15% of the Caucasian populationCaucasian population

c)c) They are at increased risk of peripheral They are at increased risk of peripheral neuropathyneuropathy

d)d) They will react adversely to pyridoxine They will react adversely to pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)(Vitamin B6)

e)e) They require higher doses to reach They require higher doses to reach therapeutic levelstherapeutic levels

40. 40. Which one of the following statements best Which one of the following statements best describes people who are “fast acetylators” describes people who are “fast acetylators” and are prescribed Isoniazid for treating and are prescribed Isoniazid for treating tuberculosis?tuberculosis?

a)a) They are at decreased risk of hepatotoxicityThey are at decreased risk of hepatotoxicity

b)b) They comprise approximately 15% of the They comprise approximately 15% of the Caucasian populationCaucasian population

c)c) They are at increased risk of peripheral They are at increased risk of peripheral neuropathyneuropathy

d)d) They will react adversely to pyridoxine They will react adversely to pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)(Vitamin B6)

e)e) They require higher doses to reach They require higher doses to reach therapeutic levelstherapeutic levels

41. 41. In a patient with impaired renal In a patient with impaired renal function, the clearance of a drug is likely function, the clearance of a drug is likely to be __________ and the drug’s half-life to be __________ and the drug’s half-life will be __________. Select the correct set will be __________. Select the correct set of missing words.of missing words.

a)a) Deacreased, increasedDeacreased, increased

b)b) Increased, decreasedIncreased, decreased

c)c) Unchanged, increasedUnchanged, increased

d)d) Increased, unchangedIncreased, unchanged

41. 41. In a patient with impaired renal In a patient with impaired renal function, the clearance of a drug is likely function, the clearance of a drug is likely to be __________ and the drug’s half-life to be __________ and the drug’s half-life will be __________. Select the correct set will be __________. Select the correct set of missing words.of missing words.

a)a) Decreased, increasedDecreased, increased

b)b) Increased, decreasedIncreased, decreased

c)c) Unchanged, increasedUnchanged, increased

d)d) Increased, unchangedIncreased, unchanged

42.After a single dose of a drug which has a 42.After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of drug would be left in the body after 1 drug would be left in the body after 1 day? Select the one correct answer.day? Select the one correct answer.

a)a) 87.5%87.5%

b)b) 75%75%

c)c) 50%50%

d)d) 25%25%

e)e) 12.5%12.5%

42.After a single dose of a drug which has a 42.After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of drug would be left in the body after 1 drug would be left in the body after 1 day? Select the one correct answer.day? Select the one correct answer.

a)a) 87.5%87.5%

b)b) 75%75%

c)c) 50%50%

d)d) 25%25%

e)e) 12.5%12.5%

43. 43. Which one of the following drugs or Which one of the following drugs or drug classes requires an acidic drug classes requires an acidic environment for adequate absorption environment for adequate absorption when taken orally?when taken orally?

a)a) Enteric coated aspirinEnteric coated aspirin

b)b) KetoconazoleKetoconazole

c)c) GriseofulvinGriseofulvin

d)d) Slow release ironSlow release iron

e)e) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

43. 43. Which one of the following drugs or Which one of the following drugs or drug classes requires an acidic drug classes requires an acidic environment for adequate absorption environment for adequate absorption when taken orally?when taken orally?

a)a) Enteric coated aspirinEnteric coated aspirin

b)b) KetoconazoleKetoconazole

c)c) GriseofulvinGriseofulvin

d)d) Slow release ironSlow release iron

e)e) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

44. 44. Which of the following routes of Which of the following routes of administration is considered parenteral?administration is considered parenteral?

a)a) RectalRectal

b)b) BuccalBuccal

c)c) SublingualSublingual

d)d) OralOral

44. 44. Which of the following routes of Which of the following routes of administration is considered parenteral?administration is considered parenteral?

a)a) RectalRectal

b)b) BuccalBuccal

c)c) SublingualSublingual

d)d) OralOral

45. 45. If a patient is given 250mg of a drug If a patient is given 250mg of a drug with a bioavailability (F) of 0.2:with a bioavailability (F) of 0.2:

a)a) The effective dose is 1250mgThe effective dose is 1250mg

b)b) The effective dose is 250mg orallyThe effective dose is 250mg orally

c)c) The effective dose is 50mgThe effective dose is 50mg

d)d) The effective dose is 250mg ivThe effective dose is 250mg iv

e)e) 250mg is not an effective dose250mg is not an effective dose

45. 45. If a patient is given 250mg of a drug If a patient is given 250mg of a drug with a bioavailability (F) of 0.2:with a bioavailability (F) of 0.2:

a)a) The effective dose is 1250mgThe effective dose is 1250mg

b)b) The effective dose is 250mg orallyThe effective dose is 250mg orally

c)c) The effective dose is 50mgThe effective dose is 50mg

d)d) The effective dose is 250mg ivThe effective dose is 250mg iv

e)e) 250mg is not an effective dose250mg is not an effective dose

46. 46. Place these routes of administration in Place these routes of administration in order (fastest to slowest) time until order (fastest to slowest) time until effect of a drug is seen.effect of a drug is seen.

(i)-inhalation (ii)-oral (iii)-intravenous (i)-inhalation (ii)-oral (iii)-intravenous (iv)-sublingual (v)-intramuscular. (iv)-sublingual (v)-intramuscular.

a)a) iii > iv > i > v > iiiii > iv > i > v > ii

b)b) i > ii > iii > iv > vi > ii > iii > iv > v

c)c) iii > i > iv > v > iiiii > i > iv > v > ii

d)d) i > iii > iv > v > iii > iii > iv > v > ii

e)e) ii > v > iv > i > iiiii > v > iv > i > iii

46. 46. Place these routes of administration in Place these routes of administration in order (fastest to slowest) time until order (fastest to slowest) time until effect of a drug is seen.effect of a drug is seen.

(i)-inhalation (ii)-oral (iii)-intravenous (i)-inhalation (ii)-oral (iii)-intravenous (iv)-sublingual (v)-intramuscular. (iv)-sublingual (v)-intramuscular.

a)a) iii > iv > i > v > iiiii > iv > i > v > ii

b)b) i > ii > iii > iv > vi > ii > iii > iv > v

c)c) iii > i > iv > v > iiiii > i > iv > v > ii

d)d) i > iii > iv > v > iii > iii > iv > v > ii

e)e) ii > v > iv > i > iiiii > v > iv > i > iii

47.1.5g of Drug X was given iv to a patient 47.1.5g of Drug X was given iv to a patient and the plasma concentration (Cp) was and the plasma concentration (Cp) was 0.3mg/mL. What is the volume of 0.3mg/mL. What is the volume of distribution (Vd)?distribution (Vd)?

a)a) 45L45L

b)b) 5L5L

c)c) 4.5L4.5L

d)d) 15L15L

e)e) 20L20L

47.1.5g of Drug X was given iv to a patient 47.1.5g of Drug X was given iv to a patient and the plasma concentration (Cp) was and the plasma concentration (Cp) was 0.3mg/mL. What is the volume of 0.3mg/mL. What is the volume of distribution (Vd)?distribution (Vd)?

a)a) 45L45L

b)b) 5L5L

c)c) 4.5L4.5L

d)d) 15L15L

e)e) 20L20L

48. 48. Which is the rate-limiting step for the Which is the rate-limiting step for the distribution of most drugs?distribution of most drugs?

a)a) Capillary permeability.Capillary permeability.

b)b) Degree of binding of drug to plasma and Degree of binding of drug to plasma and tissue proteins.tissue proteins.

c)c) The volume into which the drug The volume into which the drug distributes.distributes.

d)d) Relative hydrophobicity of the drug.Relative hydrophobicity of the drug.

e)e) Blood flow.Blood flow.

48. 48. Which is the rate-limiting step for the Which is the rate-limiting step for the distribution of most drugs?distribution of most drugs?

a)a) Capillary permeability.Capillary permeability.

b)b) Degree of binding of drug to plasma and Degree of binding of drug to plasma and tissue proteins.tissue proteins.

c)c) The volume into which the drug The volume into which the drug distributes.distributes.

d)d) Relative hydrophobicity of the drug.Relative hydrophobicity of the drug.

e)e) Blood flow.Blood flow.

49. 49. The plasma protein/drug binding results The plasma protein/drug binding results in all of the following EXCEPT:in all of the following EXCEPT:

a)a) Inability to be renally excreted.Inability to be renally excreted.

b)b) Long circulatory half-life.Long circulatory half-life.

c)c) Slow equilibration for poorly perfused Slow equilibration for poorly perfused tissues.tissues.

d)d) Inability to cross the blood-brain barrier.Inability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

e)e) Uniform distribution of drug throughout Uniform distribution of drug throughout the body.the body.

49. 49. The plasma protein/drug binding results The plasma protein/drug binding results in all of the following EXCEPT:in all of the following EXCEPT:

a)a) Inability to be renally excreted.Inability to be renally excreted.

b)b) Long circulatory half-life.Long circulatory half-life.

c)c) Slow equilibration for poorly perfused Slow equilibration for poorly perfused tissues.tissues.

d)d) Inability to cross the blood-brain barrier.Inability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

e)e) Uniform distribution of drug throughout Uniform distribution of drug throughout the body.the body.

50. 50. Which CYP450 isoform is MOST relevant Which CYP450 isoform is MOST relevant to paracetamol bioactivation?to paracetamol bioactivation?

a)a) CYP3ACYP3A

b)b) CYP2C9CYP2C9

c)c) CYP2D6CYP2D6

d)d) CYP1A1CYP1A1

e)e) CYP2E1CYP2E1

50. 50. Which CYP450 isoform is MOST relevant Which CYP450 isoform is MOST relevant to paracetamol bioactivation?to paracetamol bioactivation?

a)a) CYP3ACYP3A

b)b) CYP2C9CYP2C9

c)c) CYP2D6CYP2D6

d)d) CYP1A1CYP1A1

e)e) CYP2E1CYP2E1

51. 51. Smokers are very efficient at Smokers are very efficient at metabolizing caffeine because:metabolizing caffeine because:

a)a) Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP2E1Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP2E1

b)b) Cigarette smoking induces CYP3ACigarette smoking induces CYP3A

c)c) Cigarette smoking induces CYP2D6Cigarette smoking induces CYP2D6

d)d) Cigarette smoking induces CYP1A2Cigarette smoking induces CYP1A2

e)e) Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP3ACigarette smoking inhibits CYP3A

51. 51. Smokers are very efficient at Smokers are very efficient at metabolizing caffeine because:metabolizing caffeine because:

a)a) Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP2E1Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP2E1

b)b) Cigarette smoking induces CYP3ACigarette smoking induces CYP3A

c)c) Cigarette smoking induces CYP2D6Cigarette smoking induces CYP2D6

d)d) Cigarette smoking induces CYP1A2Cigarette smoking induces CYP1A2

e)e) Cigarette smoking inhibits CYP3ACigarette smoking inhibits CYP3A

52. Grapefruit juice causes a significant 52. Grapefruit juice causes a significant reduction in:reduction in:

a)a) Bowel enterocyte 2E1 protein.Bowel enterocyte 2E1 protein.

b)b) Liver 3A4 and 3A5 protein.Liver 3A4 and 3A5 protein.

c)c) Bowel enterocyte 3A4 and 3A5 protein.Bowel enterocyte 3A4 and 3A5 protein.

d)d) Liver 2E1 protein.Liver 2E1 protein.

e)e) All of the above.All of the above.

52. Grapefruit juice causes a significant 52. Grapefruit juice causes a significant reduction in:reduction in:

a)a) Bowel enterocyte 2E1 protein.Bowel enterocyte 2E1 protein.

b)b) Liver 3A4 and 3A5 protein.Liver 3A4 and 3A5 protein.

c)c) Bowel enterocyte 3A4 and 3A5 protein.Bowel enterocyte 3A4 and 3A5 protein.

d)d) Liver 2E1 protein.Liver 2E1 protein.

53. Which enzyme is associated with 53. Which enzyme is associated with entero-hepatic recycling:entero-hepatic recycling:

a)a) β-glucuronidase.β-glucuronidase.

b)b) Polyaromatic hydrolase (PAH).Polyaromatic hydrolase (PAH).

c)c) CYP3A4.CYP3A4.

d)d) Epoxide hydrolase.Epoxide hydrolase.

e)e) UDP-GTUDP-GT

53. Which enzyme is associated with 53. Which enzyme is associated with entero-hepatic recycling:entero-hepatic recycling:

a)a) β-glucuronidase.β-glucuronidase.

b)b) Polyaromatic hydrolase (PAH).Polyaromatic hydrolase (PAH).

c)c) CYP3A4.CYP3A4.

d)d) Epoxide hydrolase.Epoxide hydrolase.

e)e) UDP-GTUDP-GT

54. All are true of drug administration in 54. All are true of drug administration in the elderly EXCEPT:the elderly EXCEPT:

a)a) 90% of elderly take prescription 90% of elderly take prescription medications.medications.

b)b) Clearance declines with age.Clearance declines with age.

c)c) Distribution changes due to decreased Distribution changes due to decreased water.water.

d)d) 30% of elderly suffer from adverse drug 30% of elderly suffer from adverse drug reactions (ADRs).reactions (ADRs).

e)e) Drug half-life decreases with age.Drug half-life decreases with age.

54. All are true of drug administration in 54. All are true of drug administration in the elderly EXCEPT:the elderly EXCEPT:

a)a) 90% of elderly take prescription 90% of elderly take prescription medications.medications.

b)b) Clearance declines with age.Clearance declines with age.

c)c) Distribution changes due to decreased Distribution changes due to decreased water.water.

d)d) 30% of elderly suffer from adverse drug 30% of elderly suffer from adverse drug reactions (ADRs).reactions (ADRs).

e)e) Drug half-life decreases with age.Drug half-life decreases with age.

55. In drug biding, the rate of forward 55. In drug biding, the rate of forward reaction is NOT determined by:reaction is NOT determined by:

a)a) The number of occupied receptors.The number of occupied receptors.

b)b) The drug concentration.The drug concentration.

c)c) The number of free receptors.The number of free receptors.

d)d) Drug affinity.Drug affinity.

55. In drug binding, the rate of forward 55. In drug binding, the rate of forward reaction is NOT determined by:reaction is NOT determined by:

a)a) The number of occupied receptors.The number of occupied receptors.

b)b) The drug concentration.The drug concentration.

c)c) The number of free receptors.The number of free receptors.

d)d) Drug affinity.Drug affinity.

ASSERTION PROBLEMSASSERTION PROBLEMS

1.1. Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs are useful in treatment of rheumatoid are useful in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis BECAUSE they inhibit arthritis BECAUSE they inhibit cyclooxygenase activity.cyclooxygenase activity.

C - C - The first statement is true but the The first statement is true but the second is falsesecond is false

2.2. Beta adrenoreceptor agonists inhibit Beta adrenoreceptor agonists inhibit histamine release BECAUSE beta histamine release BECAUSE beta adrenoreceptor agonists decrease cAMP adrenoreceptor agonists decrease cAMP levels.levels.

3. 3. Prostaglandin E2 is central to acute Prostaglandin E2 is central to acute inflammation BECAUSE prostaglandin E2 inflammation BECAUSE prostaglandin E2 is a potent vasoconstrictor.is a potent vasoconstrictor.

4. 4. Even at low doses, aspirin will Even at low doses, aspirin will completely inhibit thromboxane A2 completely inhibit thromboxane A2 production BECAUSE platelets do not production BECAUSE platelets do not have a nucleus.have a nucleus.

A - A - Both statements are true and are Both statements are true and are causally relatedcausally related

5. 5. Diltazem and nifedipine are both Diltazem and nifedipine are both indicated in the treatment of indicated in the treatment of hypertension in a heart failure patient hypertension in a heart failure patient BECAUSE diltiazem and nifedipine BECAUSE diltiazem and nifedipine selectively block Ca2+ channels in the selectively block Ca2+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle.vascular smooth muscle.

5. 5. Diltazem and nifedipine are both Diltazem and nifedipine are both indicated in the treatment of indicated in the treatment of hypertension in a heart failure patient hypertension in a heart failure patient BECAUSE diltiazem and nifedipine BECAUSE diltiazem and nifedipine selectively block Caselectively block Ca2+2+ channels in the channels in the vascular smooth muscle.vascular smooth muscle.

6. 6. Sodium nitroprusside is given Sodium nitroprusside is given sublingually in a hypertensive crisis sublingually in a hypertensive crisis patient BECAUSE sodium nitroprusside patient BECAUSE sodium nitroprusside spontaneously degrades to NO in spontaneously degrades to NO in smooth muscle cells.smooth muscle cells.

D - D - The first statement is false and the The first statement is false and the second is truesecond is true

7. 7. Atenolol is described as a cardioselective Atenolol is described as a cardioselective β-antagonist BECAUSE atenolol has less β-antagonist BECAUSE atenolol has less effect on the airways than non-selective effect on the airways than non-selective β-adrenoreceptor antagonists.β-adrenoreceptor antagonists.

8. 8. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic BECAUSE amiloride increases NA+/K+ BECAUSE amiloride increases NA+/K+ pump activity.pump activity.

8.8. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic BECAUSE amiloride increases NA+/K+ BECAUSE amiloride increases NA+/K+ pump activity.pump activity.

9. 9. Sumatriptan decreases 5-HT release Sumatriptan decreases 5-HT release BECAUSE sumatriptan is a 5-HT1D BECAUSE sumatriptan is a 5-HT1D agonist.agonist.

9.9. Sumatriptan decreases 5-HT release Sumatriptan decreases 5-HT release BECAUSE sumatriptan is a 5-HT1D BECAUSE sumatriptan is a 5-HT1D agonist.agonist.

10. 10. Diazepam in humans has a long Diazepam in humans has a long biological half-life BECAUSE diazepam biological half-life BECAUSE diazepam is not metabolised.is not metabolised.

10.10. Diazepam in humans has a long Diazepam in humans has a long biological half-life BECAUSE diazepam biological half-life BECAUSE diazepam is not metabolised.is not metabolised.

11. 11. Δ-9-THC is a broad spectrum Δ-9-THC is a broad spectrum agonist agonist BECAUSE Δ-9-THC activates BECAUSE Δ-9-THC activates both the both the CB1 and CB2 receptors.CB1 and CB2 receptors.

11.11. Δ-9-THC is a broad spectrum Δ-9-THC is a broad spectrum agonist agonist BECAUSE Δ-9-THC activates BECAUSE Δ-9-THC activates both the both the CB1 and CB2 receptors.CB1 and CB2 receptors.

12. 12. A bimodal frequency distribution in A bimodal frequency distribution in a a population’s plasma concentrations population’s plasma concentrations of of a drug may occur BECAUSE a a drug may occur BECAUSE a bimodal bimodal frequency distribution often frequency distribution often occurs occurs when a gene of large effect when a gene of large effect plays an plays an important role in important role in determining the determining the drug’s plasma drug’s plasma concentration.concentration.

12.12. A bimodal frequency distribution in A bimodal frequency distribution in a a population’s plasma concentrations population’s plasma concentrations of of a drug may occur BECAUSE a a drug may occur BECAUSE a bimodal bimodal frequency distribution often frequency distribution often occurs occurs when a gene of large effect when a gene of large effect plays an plays an important role in important role in determining the determining the drug’s plasma drug’s plasma concentration.concentration.

13. 13. Approximately 50% of Asians Approximately 50% of Asians experience a disulfiram-like reaction to experience a disulfiram-like reaction to alcohol BECAUSE approximately 50% alcohol BECAUSE approximately 50% of Asians may have an inactive form of of Asians may have an inactive form of alcohol dehydrogenase.alcohol dehydrogenase.

13.13. Approximately 50% of Asians Approximately 50% of Asians experience a disulfiram-like reaction to experience a disulfiram-like reaction to alcohol BECAUSE approximately 50% alcohol BECAUSE approximately 50% of Asians may have an inactive form of of Asians may have an inactive form of alcohol dehydrogenase.alcohol dehydrogenase.

14. 14. Heparin is safe to use in pregnancy Heparin is safe to use in pregnancy BECAUSE heparin molecules are too BECAUSE heparin molecules are too large to pass through the placental large to pass through the placental

barrier.barrier.

14.14. Heparin is safe to use in pregnancy Heparin is safe to use in pregnancy BECAUSE heparin molecules are too BECAUSE heparin molecules are too large to pass through the placental large to pass through the placental

barrier.barrier.

15. 15. Grapefruit juice consumed with Grapefruit juice consumed with simvastatin results in subtherapeutic simvastatin results in subtherapeutic simvastatin levels BECAUSE grapefruit simvastatin levels BECAUSE grapefruit juice induces CYP3A4 enzymes in the juice induces CYP3A4 enzymes in the gut wall.gut wall.

15.15. Grapefruit juice consumed with Grapefruit juice consumed with simvastatin results in subtherapeutic simvastatin results in subtherapeutic simvastatin levels BECAUSE grapefruit simvastatin levels BECAUSE grapefruit juice induces CYP3A4 enzymes in the juice induces CYP3A4 enzymes in the gut wall.gut wall.

E - Both statements are falseE - Both statements are false

16. 16. Ketoconazole should not be given Ketoconazole should not be given concomitantly with antacids BECAUSE concomitantly with antacids BECAUSE ketoconazole chelates with antacids ketoconazole chelates with antacids which reduce its absorption from the which reduce its absorption from the gut.gut.

16.16. Ketoconazole should not be given Ketoconazole should not be given concomitantly with antacids BECAUSE concomitantly with antacids BECAUSE ketoconazole chelates with antacids ketoconazole chelates with antacids which reduce its absorption from the which reduce its absorption from the gut.gut.

17. 17. The volume of distribution of The volume of distribution of diazepam diazepam (a lipid soluble drug) (a lipid soluble drug) increases in the increases in the elderly BECAUSE as elderly BECAUSE as people age the people age the cardiovascular reflexes cardiovascular reflexes are impaired.are impaired.

17.17. The volume of distribution of The volume of distribution of diazepam diazepam (a lipid soluble drug) (a lipid soluble drug) increases in the increases in the elderly BECAUSE as elderly BECAUSE as people age the people age the cardiovascular reflexes cardiovascular reflexes are impaired.are impaired.

B - B - Both statements are true but are Both statements are true but are not not causally relatedcausally related

18. 18. In liver disease there is decreased In liver disease there is decreased capacity for drug metabolism capacity for drug metabolism BECAUSE BECAUSE in liver disease there is in liver disease there is increased increased blood flow to the liver.blood flow to the liver.

18.18. In liver disease there is decreased In liver disease there is decreased capacity for drug metabolism capacity for drug metabolism BECAUSE BECAUSE in liver disease there is in liver disease there is increased increased blood flow to the liver.blood flow to the liver.

19. 19. Tetracyclines are best taken 2 hours Tetracyclines are best taken 2 hours apart from indigestion remedy apart from indigestion remedy

magnesium trisilicate BECAUSE the magnesium trisilicate BECAUSE the indigestion remedy magnesium indigestion remedy magnesium trisilicate can increase the stomach trisilicate can increase the stomach pH.pH.

19.19. Tetracyclines are best taken 2 hours Tetracyclines are best taken 2 hours apart from indigestion remedy apart from indigestion remedy

magnesium trisilicate BECAUSE the magnesium trisilicate BECAUSE the indigestion remedy magnesium indigestion remedy magnesium trisilicate can increase the stomach trisilicate can increase the stomach pH.pH.

20. 20. Proenecid is administered with Proenecid is administered with penicillins BECAUSE proenecid inhibits penicillins BECAUSE proenecid inhibits urinary excretion of penicillin. urinary excretion of penicillin.

20.20. Proenecid is administered with Proenecid is administered with penicillins BECAUSE proenecid inhibits penicillins BECAUSE proenecid inhibits urinary excretion of penicillin. urinary excretion of penicillin.

TRUE or FALSETRUE or FALSE

1.1. Noradrenaline is only inactivated by Noradrenaline is only inactivated by monoamine oxidase (MAO) in the post monoamine oxidase (MAO) in the post synaptic cleft.synaptic cleft.

FALSEFALSE

2. 2. Turbocurarine is a nicotinic acetylcholine Turbocurarine is a nicotinic acetylcholine antagonist.antagonist.

TRUETRUE

3. 3. Noradrenaline is synthesised ultimately Noradrenaline is synthesised ultimately from tyrosinefrom tyrosine

TRUETRUE

4. 4. Activation of beta-adrenoceptors inhibits Activation of beta-adrenoceptors inhibits adenylyl cyclase.adenylyl cyclase.

5. 5. Acetylcholine can bind to both pre-Acetylcholine can bind to both pre-synaptic and post-synaptic receptors.synaptic and post-synaptic receptors.

5.5. Acetylcholine can bind to both pre-Acetylcholine can bind to both pre-synaptic and post-synaptic receptors.synaptic and post-synaptic receptors.

TRUETRUE

6. 6. Hemicholinium inhibits the transport of Hemicholinium inhibits the transport of choline.choline.

TRUETRUE

7. 7. Both metoprolol and atenolol are Both metoprolol and atenolol are selective β1-adrenoceptor antagonists.selective β1-adrenoceptor antagonists.

7.7. Both metoprolol and atenolol are Both metoprolol and atenolol are selective β1-adrenoceptor antagonists.selective β1-adrenoceptor antagonists.

TRUETRUE

8. 8. An elevated HDL level is a risk factor for An elevated HDL level is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. the development of atherosclerosis.

8.8. An elevated HDL level is a risk factor for An elevated HDL level is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. the development of atherosclerosis.

FALSEFALSE

9. 9. Vascular release of nitric oxide results Vascular release of nitric oxide results from smooth muscle NOS activity. from smooth muscle NOS activity.

FALSEFALSE

10. 10. Aspirin binds permanently to COX-1 Aspirin binds permanently to COX-1 in in platelets. platelets.

10.10. Aspirin binds permanently to COX-1 Aspirin binds permanently to COX-1 in in platelets. platelets.

TRUETRUE

11. 11. Parkinson’s disease is associated with a Parkinson’s disease is associated with a massive loss of Noradrenaline in the massive loss of Noradrenaline in the substantia nigra pars compacta.substantia nigra pars compacta.

11. 11. Parkinson’s disease is associated Parkinson’s disease is associated with with a massive loss of Noradrenaline a massive loss of Noradrenaline in the in the substantia nigra pars substantia nigra pars compacta.compacta.

FALSEFALSE

12. 12. Delta 9 THC has a half-life of Delta 9 THC has a half-life of approximately 5 hours. approximately 5 hours.

12.12. Delta 9 THC has a half-life of Delta 9 THC has a half-life of approximately 5 hours. approximately 5 hours.

FALSEFALSE

13. 13. The phenomenon once known as The phenomenon once known as sparteine/debrisoquione metabolism is sparteine/debrisoquione metabolism is now known to occur because of now known to occur because of genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6.genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6.

13.13. The phenomenon once known as The phenomenon once known as sparteine/debrisoquione metabolism is sparteine/debrisoquione metabolism is now known to occur because of now known to occur because of genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6.genetic polymorphism of CYP2D6.

TRUETRUE

14. 14. Morphine’s analgesic effects in the Morphine’s analgesic effects in the central nervous system are mainly, but central nervous system are mainly, but not exclusively mediated by the not exclusively mediated by the activation of delta-opioid receptors.activation of delta-opioid receptors.

14.14. Morphine’s analgesic effects in the Morphine’s analgesic effects in the central nervous system are mainly, but central nervous system are mainly, but not exclusively mediated by the not exclusively mediated by the activation of delta-opioid receptors.activation of delta-opioid receptors.

FALSEFALSE

15. 15. The rate at which ethanol is eliminated The rate at which ethanol is eliminated from the body depends upon its from the body depends upon its

concentration in the plasma. concentration in the plasma.

15. 15. The rate at which ethanol is The rate at which ethanol is eliminated eliminated from the body depends from the body depends upon its upon its concentration in the plasma. concentration in the plasma.

FALSEFALSE

16. 16. During situations of saturable During situations of saturable metabolism, small increases in dose metabolism, small increases in dose usually result in disproportionately usually result in disproportionately large large increases in plasma increases in plasma concentration. concentration.

16.16. During situations of saturable During situations of saturable metabolism, small increases in dose metabolism, small increases in dose usually result in disproportionately usually result in disproportionately large large increases in plasma increases in plasma concentration. concentration.

TRUETRUE

17. 17. Steady state is reached when the Steady state is reached when the dose dose rate is equal to the metabolism rate is equal to the metabolism rate of rate of a drug.a drug.

17.17. Steady state is reached when the Steady state is reached when the dose dose rate is equal to the metabolism rate is equal to the metabolism rate of rate of a drug.a drug.

TRUETRUE

18. 18. An inactive “pro-drug” requires An inactive “pro-drug” requires metabolism to an active metabolite metabolism to an active metabolite before pharmacological activity is seen before pharmacological activity is seen

18.18. An inactive “pro-drug” requires An inactive “pro-drug” requires metabolism to an active metabolite metabolism to an active metabolite before pharmacological activity is seenbefore pharmacological activity is seen

TRUETRUE

19. 19. Some pharmacologically active Some pharmacologically active drugs drugs may be metabolised to may be metabolised to compounds compounds with similar with similar pharmacological activity. pharmacological activity.

19.19. Some pharmacologically active Some pharmacologically active drugs drugs may be metabolised to may be metabolised to compounds compounds with similar with similar pharmacological activity. pharmacological activity.

TRUETRUE

20. 20. Decreasing the pH of the urine will Decreasing the pH of the urine will increase the excretion of aspirin.increase the excretion of aspirin.

20.20. Decreasing the pH of the urine will Decreasing the pH of the urine will increase the excretion of aspirin.increase the excretion of aspirin.

FALSEFALSE

21. 21. St.John’s wort induces CYP3A.St.John’s wort induces CYP3A.

TRUETRUE

22. 22. Propranolol is a βPropranolol is a β11-selective β-blocker.-selective β-blocker.

FALSEFALSE

23. 23. Benzodiazepines may be prescribed Benzodiazepines may be prescribed for for up to 6 months.up to 6 months.

23.23. Benzodiazepines may be prescribed Benzodiazepines may be prescribed for for up to 6 months.up to 6 months.

TRUETRUE

24.24. The half life of a drug is a major The half life of a drug is a major determinant of the time required to determinant of the time required to reach steady state with chronic dosing.reach steady state with chronic dosing.

TRUETRUE

25. 25. The half-life of a drug determines The half-life of a drug determines the the duration of action after one dose.duration of action after one dose.

25.25. The half-life of a drug determines The half-life of a drug determines the the duration of action after one dose.duration of action after one dose.

TRUETRUE

26. 26. Bioavailability is a measure of the Bioavailability is a measure of the fraction of drug cleared through the fraction of drug cleared through the kidneys.kidneys.

26.26. Bioavailability is a measure of the Bioavailability is a measure of the fraction of drug cleared through the fraction of drug cleared through the kidneys.kidneys.

FALSEFALSE

27. 27. In first order kinetics, the rate of In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination of a drug is directly elimination of a drug is directly proportional to the plasma proportional to the plasma concentration of that drug.concentration of that drug.

27.27. In first order kinetics, the rate of In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination of a drug is directly elimination of a drug is directly proportional to the plasma proportional to the plasma concentration of that drug.concentration of that drug.

TRUETRUE

28. 28. The steady state plasma The steady state plasma concentration concentration for a drug is achieved for a drug is achieved within within approximately two half-lives of approximately two half-lives of that that drug.drug.

28.28. The steady state plasma The steady state plasma concentration concentration for a drug is achieved for a drug is achieved within within approximately two half-lives of approximately two half-lives of that that drug.drug.

FALSEFALSE

29. 29. In elderly people, there is In elderly people, there is proportionately more muscle and proportionately more muscle and water than there is fat.water than there is fat.

29.29. In elderly people, there is In elderly people, there is proportionately more muscle and proportionately more muscle and water than there is fat.water than there is fat.

FALSEFALSE

WHICH ARE CORRECT?WHICH ARE CORRECT?(may be up to 4) (may be up to 4)

1.1. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning cyclosporine A is/are concerning cyclosporine A is/are correct? Cyclosporin A is:correct? Cyclosporin A is:

i.i. an immunosuppressant of fungal origin.an immunosuppressant of fungal origin.

ii.ii. extremely effective against cell-extremely effective against cell-mediated inflammation.mediated inflammation.

iii.iii. more effective when used with more effective when used with methotrexate than when used alone.methotrexate than when used alone.

iv.iv. used in organ transplantation.used in organ transplantation.

1.1. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning cyclosporine A is/are concerning cyclosporine A is/are correct? Cyclosporin A is:correct? Cyclosporin A is:

i.i. an immunosuppressant of fungal origin.an immunosuppressant of fungal origin.

ii.ii. extremely effective against cell-extremely effective against cell-mediated inflammation.mediated inflammation.

iii.iii. more effective when used with more effective when used with methotrexate than when used alone.methotrexate than when used alone.

iv.iv. used in organ transplantation.used in organ transplantation.

2.2. Which of the following involve inhibition Which of the following involve inhibition of adenylate cyclase via a G-protein?of adenylate cyclase via a G-protein?

i.i. M2-receptor stimulation.M2-receptor stimulation.

ii.ii. Alpha1-receptor stimulation.Alpha1-receptor stimulation.

iii.iii. Alpha2-receptor stimulation.Alpha2-receptor stimulation.

iv.iv. Beta-receptor stimulation.Beta-receptor stimulation.

2.2. Which of the following involve inhibition Which of the following involve inhibition of adenylate cyclase via a G-protein?of adenylate cyclase via a G-protein?

i.i. M2-receptor stimulation.M2-receptor stimulation.

ii.ii. Alpha1-receptor stimulation.Alpha1-receptor stimulation.

iii.iii. Alpha2-receptor stimulation.Alpha2-receptor stimulation.

iv.iv. Beta-receptor stimulation.Beta-receptor stimulation.

3.3. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning noradrenaline is/are concerning noradrenaline is/are correct? Noradrenaline is:correct? Noradrenaline is:

i.i. synthesized from tyramine obtained in synthesized from tyramine obtained in the diet.the diet.

ii.ii. is stored in sympathetic nerve is stored in sympathetic nerve varicosities.varicosities.

iii.iii. is removed from the synapse mainly by is removed from the synapse mainly by monoamine oxidase activity.monoamine oxidase activity.

iv.iv. is released from sympathetic nerve is released from sympathetic nerve terminals by exocytosis.terminals by exocytosis.

3.3. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning noradrenaline is/are concerning noradrenaline is/are correct? Noradrenaline is:correct? Noradrenaline is:

i.i. synthesized from tyramine obtained in synthesized from tyramine obtained in the diet.the diet.

ii.ii. is stored in sympathetic nerve is stored in sympathetic nerve varicosities.varicosities.

iii.iii. is removed from the synapse mainly by is removed from the synapse mainly by monoamine oxidase activity.monoamine oxidase activity.

iv.iv. is released from sympathetic nerve is released from sympathetic nerve terminals by exocytosis.terminals by exocytosis.

4. 4. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning non-steroidal concerning non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs is/are correct? antiinflammatory drugs is/are correct? Almost all NSAIDs:Almost all NSAIDs:

i.i. suppress prostaglandin synthesis.suppress prostaglandin synthesis.

ii.ii. inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase.inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase.

iii.iii. produce gastric irritation.produce gastric irritation.

iv.iv. produce fever.produce fever.

4. 4. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements concerning non-steroidal concerning non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs is/are correct? antiinflammatory drugs is/are correct? Almost all NSAIDs:Almost all NSAIDs:

i.i. suppress prostaglandin synthesis.suppress prostaglandin synthesis.

ii.ii. inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase.inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase.

iii.iii. produce gastric irritation.produce gastric irritation.

iv.iv. produce fever.produce fever.

5. 5. Which of the following compounds Which of the following compounds increase nitric oxide synthase activity?increase nitric oxide synthase activity?

i.i. Histamine.Histamine.

ii.ii. Sildenafil.Sildenafil.

iii.iii. Acetylcholine.Acetylcholine.

iv.iv. Glyceryl trinitrate.Glyceryl trinitrate.

5. 5. Which of the following compounds Which of the following compounds increase nitric oxide synthase activity?increase nitric oxide synthase activity?

i.i. Histamine.Histamine.

ii.ii. Sildenafil.Sildenafil.

iii.iii. Acetylcholine.Acetylcholine.

iv.iv. Glyceryl trinitrate.Glyceryl trinitrate.

6.6. Which of the following compounds are Which of the following compounds are selective β1-receptor antagonists?selective β1-receptor antagonists?

i.i. PropranololPropranolol

ii.ii. AtenololAtenolol

iii.iii. SalbutamolSalbutamol

iv.iv. MetoprololMetoprolol

6.6. Which of the following compounds are Which of the following compounds are selective β1-receptor antagonists?selective β1-receptor antagonists?

i.i. PropranololPropranolol

ii.ii. AtenololAtenolol

iii.iii. SalbutamolSalbutamol

iv.iv. MetoprololMetoprolol

7.7. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding LDL receptors is/are NOT regarding LDL receptors is/are NOT correct?correct?

i.i. Decreasing LDL receptor populations Decreasing LDL receptor populations increase cholesterol clearance.increase cholesterol clearance.

ii.ii. Decreased LDL receptor populations Decreased LDL receptor populations result in increased cholesterol result in increased cholesterol populations.populations.

iii.iii. LDL receptors binding decreases LDL receptors binding decreases cholesterol clearance.cholesterol clearance.

iv.iv. LDL receptors binding results in LDL receptors binding results in increased cellular cholesterol levels.increased cellular cholesterol levels.

7.7. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding LDL receptors is/are NOT regarding LDL receptors is/are NOT correct?correct?

i.i. Decreasing LDL receptor populations Decreasing LDL receptor populations increase cholesterol clearance.increase cholesterol clearance.

ii.ii. Decreased LDL receptor populations Decreased LDL receptor populations result in increased cholesterol result in increased cholesterol populations.populations.

iii.iii. LDL receptors binding decreases LDL receptors binding decreases cholesterol clearance.cholesterol clearance.

iv.iv. LDL receptors binding results in LDL receptors binding results in increased cellular cholesterol levels.increased cellular cholesterol levels.

8.8. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding Familial regarding Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is/are Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is/are correct? FH patients: correct? FH patients:

i.i. have low LDL receptor populations.have low LDL receptor populations.

ii.ii. have high LDL to HDL plasma lipid ratio have high LDL to HDL plasma lipid ratio levels.levels.

iii.iii. patients suffer athersclerosis as a patients suffer athersclerosis as a consequence.consequence.

iv.iv. patients do not benefit from statin patients do not benefit from statin administration.administration.

8.8. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding Familial regarding Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is/are Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is/are correct? FH patients: correct? FH patients:

i.i. have low LDL receptor populations.have low LDL receptor populations.

ii.ii. have high LDL to HDL plasma lipid ratio have high LDL to HDL plasma lipid ratio levels.levels.

iii.iii. patients suffer athersclerosis as a patients suffer athersclerosis as a consequence.consequence.

iv.iv. patients do not benefit from statin patients do not benefit from statin administration.administration.

9.9. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding 5-HT receptor subtypes is/are regarding 5-HT receptor subtypes is/are correct?correct?

i.i. 5-HT1A receptors play a role in mood 5-HT1A receptors play a role in mood control.control.

ii.ii. 5-HT3 receptors play a role in the 5-HT3 receptors play a role in the emetic response.emetic response.

iii.iii. 5-HT4 receptor activation increased GI 5-HT4 receptor activation increased GI motility.motility.

iv.iv. 5-HT1D receptors are located on the 5-HT1D receptors are located on the post-synaptic membrane.post-synaptic membrane.

9.9. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements regarding 5-HT receptor subtypes is/are regarding 5-HT receptor subtypes is/are correct?correct?

i.i. 5-HT1A receptors play a role in mood 5-HT1A receptors play a role in mood control.control.

ii.ii. 5-HT3 receptors play a role in the 5-HT3 receptors play a role in the emetic response.emetic response.

iii.iii. 5-HT4 receptor activation increased GI 5-HT4 receptor activation increased GI motility.motility.

iv.iv. 5-HT1D receptors are located on the 5-HT1D receptors are located on the post-synaptic membrane.post-synaptic membrane.

10.10. The neurotransmitter 5-HT is The neurotransmitter 5-HT is associated predominantly with which of associated predominantly with which of the following central nuclei.the following central nuclei.

i.i. locus coerulus.locus coerulus.

ii.ii. rostral raphe nucleus.rostral raphe nucleus.

iii.iii. nucleus accumbens.nucleus accumbens.

iv.iv. caudal raphe nucleus.caudal raphe nucleus.

10.10. The neurotransmitter 5-HT is The neurotransmitter 5-HT is associated predominantly with which of associated predominantly with which of the following central nuclei.the following central nuclei.

i.i. locus coerulus.locus coerulus.

ii.ii. rostral raphe nucleus.rostral raphe nucleus.

iii.iii. nucleus accumbens.nucleus accumbens.

iv.iv. caudal raphe nucleus.caudal raphe nucleus.

11.11. The use of dopamine D2 receptor The use of dopamine D2 receptor antagonist is NOT indicated for which antagonist is NOT indicated for which of the following?of the following?

i.i. Schizophrenia.Schizophrenia.

ii.ii. Parkinson’s disease.Parkinson’s disease.

iii.iii. Acute Mania.Acute Mania.

iv.iv. Hypertension.Hypertension.

11.11. The use of dopamine D2 receptor The use of dopamine D2 receptor antagonist is NOT indicated for which antagonist is NOT indicated for which of the following?of the following?

i.i. Schizophrenia.Schizophrenia.

ii.ii. Parkinson’s disease.Parkinson’s disease.

iii.iii. Acute Mania.Acute Mania.

iv.iv. Hypertension.Hypertension.

12.12. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? The main mechanism of action of The main mechanism of action of MDMA is the:MDMA is the:

i.i. activation of postsynaptic NA activation of postsynaptic NA receptors.receptors.

ii.ii. release of 5-HT from presynaptic release of 5-HT from presynaptic terminals.terminals.

iii.iii. blockade of presynaptic DA receptors.blockade of presynaptic DA receptors.

iv.iv. disruption of the function of the 5-HT disruption of the function of the 5-HT transporter protein.transporter protein.

12.12. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? The main mechanism of action of The main mechanism of action of MDMA is the:MDMA is the:

i.i. activation of postsynaptic NA activation of postsynaptic NA receptors.receptors.

ii.ii. release of 5-HT from presynaptic release of 5-HT from presynaptic terminals.terminals.

iii.iii. blockade of presynaptic DA receptors.blockade of presynaptic DA receptors.

iv.iv. disruption of the function of the 5-HT disruption of the function of the 5-HT transporter protein.transporter protein.

13.13. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? CB2 receptors:CB2 receptors:

i.i. exist mainly in the peripheral nervous exist mainly in the peripheral nervous system and the immune system.system and the immune system.

ii.ii. are expressed only in mammalian are expressed only in mammalian species.species.

iii.iii. are activated by delta-9-THC.are activated by delta-9-THC.

iv.iv. are not G-protein coupled.are not G-protein coupled.

13.13. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? CB2 receptors:CB2 receptors:

i.i. exist mainly in the peripheral nervous exist mainly in the peripheral nervous system and the immune system.system and the immune system.

ii.ii. are expressed only in mammalian are expressed only in mammalian species.species.

iii.iii. are activated by delta-9-THC.are activated by delta-9-THC.

iv.iv. are not G-protein coupled.are not G-protein coupled.

14.14. Which of the following is/are correct? Poor Which of the following is/are correct? Poor microsomal oxidation that occurs because of microsomal oxidation that occurs because of the CYP2D6 genetic polymorphism:the CYP2D6 genetic polymorphism:

i.i. is an example of genetic variation in is an example of genetic variation in pharmacokinetics.pharmacokinetics.

ii.ii. may result from inheritance of autosomal may result from inheritance of autosomal recessive variant CYP2D6 alleles.recessive variant CYP2D6 alleles.

iii.iii. may lead to high blood levels and reduced may lead to high blood levels and reduced clearance of some tricyclic antidepressants.clearance of some tricyclic antidepressants.

iv.iv. may occur in approximately 50% of may occur in approximately 50% of Caucasians.Caucasians.

14.14. Which of the following is/are correct? Poor Which of the following is/are correct? Poor microsomal oxidation that occurs because of microsomal oxidation that occurs because of the CYP2D6 genetic polymorphism:the CYP2D6 genetic polymorphism:

i.i. is an example of genetic variation in is an example of genetic variation in pharmacokinetics.pharmacokinetics.

ii.ii. may result from inheritance of autosomal may result from inheritance of autosomal recessive variant CYP2D6 alleles.recessive variant CYP2D6 alleles.

iii.iii. may lead to high blood levels and reduced may lead to high blood levels and reduced clearance of some tricyclic antidepressants.clearance of some tricyclic antidepressants.

iv.iv. may occur in approximately 50% of may occur in approximately 50% of Caucasians.Caucasians.

15.15. Which of the following may be Which of the following may be associated with malignant associated with malignant hyperpyrexia (hyperthermia)?hyperpyrexia (hyperthermia)?

i.i. Elevated myoplasmic CaElevated myoplasmic Ca2+2+..

ii.ii. Use of some inhalation anaesthetics Use of some inhalation anaesthetics and neuromuscular blockers.and neuromuscular blockers.

iii.iii. A defect in calcium regulation within A defect in calcium regulation within voluntary (striated) muscle cells.voluntary (striated) muscle cells.

iv.iv. Inositol triphosphate (IPInositol triphosphate (IP33) phosphatase ) phosphatase deficiency.deficiency.

15.15. Which of the following may be Which of the following may be associated with malignant associated with malignant hyperpyrexia (hyperthermia)?hyperpyrexia (hyperthermia)?

i.i. Elevated myoplasmic CaElevated myoplasmic Ca2+2+..

ii.ii. Use of some inhalation anaesthetics Use of some inhalation anaesthetics and neuromuscular blockers.and neuromuscular blockers.

iii.iii. A defect in calcium regulation within A defect in calcium regulation within voluntary (striated) muscle cells.voluntary (striated) muscle cells.

iv.iv. Inositol triphosphate (IPInositol triphosphate (IP33) phosphatase ) phosphatase deficiency.deficiency.

16.16. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? Most morphine-like drugs:Most morphine-like drugs:

i.i. suppress cough.suppress cough.

ii.ii. undergo extensive first-pass undergo extensive first-pass metabolism.metabolism.

iii.iii. decrease the emotional component of decrease the emotional component of pain.pain.

iv.iv. rarely produce dependence when rarely produce dependence when prescribed for pain relief.prescribed for pain relief.

16.16. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? Most morphine-like drugs:Most morphine-like drugs:

i.i. suppress cough.suppress cough.

ii.ii. undergo extensive first-pass undergo extensive first-pass metabolism.metabolism.

iii.iii. decrease the emotional component of decrease the emotional component of pain.pain.

iv.iv. rarely produce dependence when rarely produce dependence when prescribed for pain relief.prescribed for pain relief.

17.17. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? Nerve fibres that carry nociceptive Nerve fibres that carry nociceptive information from the periphery to the information from the periphery to the CNS are:CNS are:

i.i. A-delta fibres.A-delta fibres.

ii.ii. A-beta fibres.A-beta fibres.

iii.iii. C-fibres.C-fibres.

iv.iv. Ia and Ib fibres.Ia and Ib fibres.

17.17. Which of the following is/are correct? Which of the following is/are correct? Nerve fibres that carry nociceptive Nerve fibres that carry nociceptive information from the periphery to the information from the periphery to the CNS are:CNS are:

i.i. A-delta fibres.A-delta fibres.

ii.ii. A-beta fibres.A-beta fibres.

iii.iii. C-fibres.C-fibres.

iv.iv. Ia and Ib fibres.Ia and Ib fibres.

18.18. Which of the following drugs may Which of the following drugs may potentiate the effects of morphine?potentiate the effects of morphine?

i.i. Diazepam.Diazepam.

ii.ii. Haloperidol.Haloperidol.

iii.iii. Promethazine.Promethazine.

iv.iv. Triazolam.Triazolam.

18.18. Which of the following drugs may Which of the following drugs may potentiate the effects of morphine?potentiate the effects of morphine?

i.i. Diazepam.Diazepam.

ii.ii. Haloperidol.Haloperidol.

iii.iii. Promethazine.Promethazine.

iv.iv. Triazolam.Triazolam.

19.19. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements is/are correct? Bioavailability is:is/are correct? Bioavailability is:

i.i. the rate at which the drug is absorbed the rate at which the drug is absorbed across the gut.across the gut.

ii.ii. the fraction of the dose reaching the the fraction of the dose reaching the systemic circulation intact.systemic circulation intact.

iii.iii. the fraction of the drug metabolised by the fraction of the drug metabolised by the liver during the first pass effect.the liver during the first pass effect.

iv.iv. affected by BOTH first pass metabolism affected by BOTH first pass metabolism and absorption from the gut.and absorption from the gut.

19.19. Which of the following statements Which of the following statements is/are correct? Bioavailability is:is/are correct? Bioavailability is:

i.i. the rate at which the drug is absorbed the rate at which the drug is absorbed across the gut.across the gut.

ii.ii. the fraction of the dose reaching the the fraction of the dose reaching the systemic circulation intact.systemic circulation intact.

iii.iii. the fraction of the drug metabolised by the fraction of the drug metabolised by the liver during the first pass effect.the liver during the first pass effect.

iv.iv. affected by BOTH first pass metabolism affected by BOTH first pass metabolism and absorption from the gut.and absorption from the gut.

20.20. Elimination of a drug refers to:Elimination of a drug refers to:

i.i. Excretion of its breakdown products in Excretion of its breakdown products in urineurine

ii.ii. Renal excretion of the unchanged drugRenal excretion of the unchanged drug

iii.iii. Uptake of drug from the blood into the Uptake of drug from the blood into the liverliver

iv.iv. Metabolism of the drug in the liverMetabolism of the drug in the liver

20.20. Elimination of a drug refers to:Elimination of a drug refers to:

i.i. Excretion of its breakdown products in Excretion of its breakdown products in urineurine

ii.ii. Renal excretion of the unchanged drugRenal excretion of the unchanged drug

iii.iii. Uptake of drug from the blood into the Uptake of drug from the blood into the liverliver

iv.iv. Metabolism of the drug in the liverMetabolism of the drug in the liver

21.21. Clearance:Clearance:

i.i. Refers to the efficiency of elimination of Refers to the efficiency of elimination of drug by an organ or the whole bodydrug by an organ or the whole body

ii.ii. Cannot be greater than the blood flow Cannot be greater than the blood flow to the organto the organ

iii.iii. Determines the steady state drug Determines the steady state drug concentration during constant dosingconcentration during constant dosing

iv.iv. Is determined by the half-lifeIs determined by the half-life

21.21. Clearance:Clearance:

i.i. Refers to the efficiency of elimination of Refers to the efficiency of elimination of drug by an organ or the whole bodydrug by an organ or the whole body

ii.ii. Cannot be greater than the blood flow Cannot be greater than the blood flow to the organto the organ

iii.iii. Determines the steady state drugDetermines the steady state drug concentration during constant dosingconcentration during constant dosing

iv.iv. Is determined by the half-lifeIs determined by the half-life

22.22. Clearance can be defined as:Clearance can be defined as:

i.i. The volume of blood irreversibly The volume of blood irreversibly cleared of drug per unit timecleared of drug per unit time

ii.ii. The amount of drug metabolized per The amount of drug metabolized per unit timeunit time

iii.iii. The constant relating the rate of The constant relating the rate of elimination of a drug to the plasma elimination of a drug to the plasma drug concentrationdrug concentration

iv.iv. The amount of drug excreted in the The amount of drug excreted in the urine per unit timeurine per unit time

22.22. Clearance can be defined as:Clearance can be defined as:

i.i. The volume of blood irreversibly The volume of blood irreversibly cleared of drug per unit timecleared of drug per unit time

ii.ii. The amount of drug metabolized per The amount of drug metabolized per unit timeunit time

iii.iii. The constant relating the rate of The constant relating the rate of elimination of a drug to the plasma elimination of a drug to the plasma drug concentrationdrug concentration

iv.iv. The amount of drug excreted in the The amount of drug excreted in the urine per unit timeurine per unit time

23.23. The volume of distribution is:The volume of distribution is:

i.i. The total volume of the bodyThe total volume of the body

ii.ii. The volume of fluid in the tissue The volume of fluid in the tissue compartmentscompartments

iii.iii. The volume of the body minus the The volume of the body minus the blood volumeblood volume

iv.iv. The constant relating the amount of The constant relating the amount of drug in the body to the plasma drug drug in the body to the plasma drug concentrationconcentration

23.23. The volume of distribution is:The volume of distribution is:

i.i. The total volume of the bodyThe total volume of the body

ii.ii. The volume of fluid in the tissue The volume of fluid in the tissue compartmentscompartments

iii.iii. The volume of the body minus the The volume of the body minus the blood volumeblood volume

iv.iv. The constant relating the amount of The constant relating the amount of drug in the body to the plasma drug drug in the body to the plasma drug concentrationconcentration

1)Which receptor does the following use? 1)Which receptor does the following use?

NGF:NGF:

BDNF:BDNF:

NT3:NT3:

NT4:NT4:

NT5:NT5:

1)Which receptor does the following use? 1)Which receptor does the following use?

NGF:NGF: TrkATrkA

BDNF:BDNF: TrkBTrkB

NT3:NT3: TrkCTrkC

NT4:NT4: TrkBTrkB

NT5:NT5: TrkBTrkB

2) What do you need to calculate: 2) What do you need to calculate:

Loading dose: Loading dose:

Maintenance dose rate: Maintenance dose rate:

2) What do you need to calculate: 2) What do you need to calculate:

Loading dose: Loading dose:

CCpp x V x Vdd

Maintenance dose rate:Maintenance dose rate:

CCpsspss x CL x CL

3) 3) What binding property does an agonist What binding property does an agonist have?have?

3)3) What binding property does an agonist What binding property does an agonist have?have?

Efficacy Efficacy

4) Where are CB4) Where are CB11 receptors found and what receptors found and what type or receptor are they ?type or receptor are they ?

4) Where are CB4) Where are CB11 receptors found and what receptors found and what type or receptor are they?type or receptor are they?

GCPRs found primarily in the brainGCPRs found primarily in the brain

5) 5) What neurotransmitter is linked to What neurotransmitter is linked to dependency of drugs?dependency of drugs?

5)5) What neurotransmitter is linked to What neurotransmitter is linked to dependency of drugs?dependency of drugs?

DopamineDopamine

6) What leads to CB tolerance?6) What leads to CB tolerance?

Down-regulation/desensitization of Down-regulation/desensitization of cannabinoid receptorscannabinoid receptors

7) What does cocaine effect?7) What does cocaine effect?

Blocks reuptake dopamine, NA and 5-HTBlocks reuptake dopamine, NA and 5-HT

8) What does amphetamine effect?8) What does amphetamine effect?

Increases dopamine and 5-HT release, Increases dopamine and 5-HT release, blocks NA reuptakeblocks NA reuptake

9) What happens upon: 9) What happens upon:

GABAGABAAA activation? activation?

NMDA activation?NMDA activation?

9) What happens upon: 9) What happens upon:

GABAGABAAA activation? activation?

Influx of ClInflux of Cl-- ions leading to ions leading to hyperpolarization of the neuronhyperpolarization of the neuron

NMDA activation?NMDA activation?

NaNa+ + influx leading to depolarizationinflux leading to depolarization

Ca2+ influx initiating signalling cascadesCa2+ influx initiating signalling cascades

10) What happens to GTP after GPRC 10) What happens to GTP after GPRC activation?activation?

GDP is exchanged for GTP on the α-subunit GDP is exchanged for GTP on the α-subunit and it dissociatesand it dissociates

11) What happens when the CB11) What happens when the CB11 is is activated?activated?

Adenylate cyclase is inhibited and Adenylate cyclase is inhibited and intracellular cAMP levels dropintracellular cAMP levels drop

12) Therapeutic Index (TI) is a ratio of 12) Therapeutic Index (TI) is a ratio of what?what?

LD50 : ED50LD50 : ED50

13) With respect to cortisol levels, what 13) With respect to cortisol levels, what condition is associated with:condition is associated with:

Excess cortisol: Excess cortisol:

Reduced cortisol:Reduced cortisol:

13) With respect to cortisol levels, what 13) With respect to cortisol levels, what condition is associated with:condition is associated with:

Excess cortisol: Excess cortisol:

Cushing’s syndromeCushing’s syndrome

Reduced cortisol:Reduced cortisol:

Addison’s diseaseAddison’s disease

14) What equation is used to describe 14) What equation is used to describe receptor binding?receptor binding?

Hill Langmuir equation Hill Langmuir equation

15) What binding property distinguishes full 15) What binding property distinguishes full and partial agonists?and partial agonists?

EfficacyEfficacy

16) H16) H22 receptor agonists increase levels of receptor agonists increase levels of what?what?

Increase adenylate cyclase activity via GsIncrease adenylate cyclase activity via Gs

17) What receptor do benzodiazepines 17) What receptor do benzodiazepines effect?effect?

GABAGABAAA

18) How does vigabatrin work?18) How does vigabatrin work?

Antiepileptic drug. Antiepileptic drug.

Irreversible GABA transaminase inhibitor Irreversible GABA transaminase inhibitor (suicide inhibitor).(suicide inhibitor).

19) What is a main ADR of antipsychotics?19) What is a main ADR of antipsychotics?

Block dopamine in striatum leading to Block dopamine in striatum leading to Parkinsonian symptomsParkinsonian symptoms

20) What converts DOPA to dopamine?20) What converts DOPA to dopamine?

DOPA decarboxylaseDOPA decarboxylase

21) More receptors has what effect on 21) More receptors has what effect on binding capacity? binding capacity?

Increases BIncreases Bmaxmax

22) What are typical antipsychotics?22) What are typical antipsychotics?

First generation antipsychotics e.g.First generation antipsychotics e.g.

Haloperidol – high potencyHaloperidol – high potency

Chlorpromazine – low potencyChlorpromazine – low potency

23) Which 5-HT receptor is ionotropic?23) Which 5-HT receptor is ionotropic?

5-HT5-HT33

24) Where does risperidone act?24) Where does risperidone act?

Atypical antipsychotic binding 5-HT, Atypical antipsychotic binding 5-HT, Dopamine, Adrenergic and HistamineDopamine, Adrenergic and Histamine

Highest affinity as a 5-HT2Highest affinity as a 5-HT2AA antagonist antagonist

25) What causes depression?25) What causes depression?

Decreased monoaminesDecreased monoamines

26) What causes the cheese reaction?26) What causes the cheese reaction?

Irreversible MAO inhibitors lead to Irreversible MAO inhibitors lead to increased tyramineincreased tyramine

This leads to hypertensionThis leads to hypertension

27) What does fluoxetine do?27) What does fluoxetine do?

Antidepressant - blocks reuptake of 5-HT Antidepressant - blocks reuptake of 5-HT (SSRI)(SSRI)

28) What does the nucleus accumbens do?28) What does the nucleus accumbens do?

Pleasure center of the brain - euphoria via Pleasure center of the brain - euphoria via increased dopamine levelsincreased dopamine levels

29) Where does baclofen act?29) Where does baclofen act?

GABAGABABB agonist - treats spasticity agonist - treats spasticity

30) What can’t you take benzodiazepines 30) What can’t you take benzodiazepines with?with?

CNS depressants (i.e. alcohol)CNS depressants (i.e. alcohol)

31) What needs to be removed from the 31) What needs to be removed from the NMDA receptor?NMDA receptor?

Voltage-dependant MgVoltage-dependant Mg2+2+ block block

32) What is a low efficacy opioid?32) What is a low efficacy opioid?

Dihydrocodeine (semi-synthetic)Dihydrocodeine (semi-synthetic)

33) What is the fastest diuretic?33) What is the fastest diuretic?

Furosemide is faster than amilorideFurosemide is faster than amiloride

34) What spectrometry was used in the 34) What spectrometry was used in the lab?lab?

Colorimetric spectrometer to measure urine Colorimetric spectrometer to measure urine salicylate contentsalicylate content

35) What is the analgesic dose of Aspirin?35) What is the analgesic dose of Aspirin?

300-600mg300-600mg

36) When are diuretics indicated?36) When are diuretics indicated?

HypertensionHypertension

37) Where do opioids cause analgesia?37) Where do opioids cause analgesia?

CNSCNS

38) What is alcohol dehydrogenase?38) What is alcohol dehydrogenase?

Soluble cytoplasmic enzyme in liverSoluble cytoplasmic enzyme in liver

Converts alcohol to aldehyde or ketoneConverts alcohol to aldehyde or ketone

39) How does ethanol affect the CNS?39) How does ethanol affect the CNS?

Increased permeability of neuronal Increased permeability of neuronal membrane lipid bilayermembrane lipid bilayer

40) What is Alzheimer’s?40) What is Alzheimer’s?

Degradation of cholinergic neurons in basal Degradation of cholinergic neurons in basal forebrainforebrain

41) Rank the affinity of the following ACE 41) Rank the affinity of the following ACE inhibitors?inhibitors?

LisinoprilLisinopril

CaptoprilCaptopril

FosinoprilFosinopril

QuinaprilQuinapril

41) Rank the affinity of the following ACE 41) Rank the affinity of the following ACE inhibitors?inhibitors?

LisinoprilLisinopril

CaptoprilCaptopril

FosinoprilFosinopril

QuinaprilQuinapril

Quinapril>Lisinopril>Fosinopril>CaptoprilQuinapril>Lisinopril>Fosinopril>Captopril

42) What can opioids cause?42) What can opioids cause?

ImmunosuppressionImmunosuppression

43) What do you use to treat non-Hodgkin’s 43) What do you use to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?lymphoma?

CyclophosphamideCyclophosphamide

44) What do anti-epileptics do?44) What do anti-epileptics do?

Enhance GABAEnhance GABA

Inhibit NaInhibit Na++ and Ca and Ca2+2+ channels channels

45) What CYP does ethanol induce?45) What CYP does ethanol induce?

CYP2E1CYP2E1

46) What is ethanol metabolized to?46) What is ethanol metabolized to?

Acetic acid (90%)Acetic acid (90%)

47) Where/what type is GABAA and 47) Where/what type is GABAA and GABAB?GABAB?

47) Where/what type is GABA47) Where/what type is GABAAA and GABA and GABABB??

GABAGABAAA: : Presynaptic Presynaptic

Ligand-gated ion channelLigand-gated ion channel

GABAGABABB:: PostsynapticPostsynaptic

GPCRGPCR

48) What is an emergency hypertensive?48) What is an emergency hypertensive?

Sodium nitoprussideSodium nitoprusside

49) What enzyme forms: 49) What enzyme forms:

Glutamate:Glutamate:

GABA:GABA:

Dopamine:Dopamine:

Histamine:Histamine:

49) What enzyme forms: 49) What enzyme forms:

Glutamate: Glutamate: Glutaminase Glutaminase

GABA: GABA: L-glutamic acid decarboxylaseL-glutamic acid decarboxylase

Dopamine: Dopamine: DOPA decarboxylaseDOPA decarboxylase

Histamine: Histamine: Histidine decarboxylaseHistidine decarboxylase

50) What do glutamate receptors mGluR1-8 50) What do glutamate receptors mGluR1-8 cause?cause?

mGluR-1,5:mGluR-1,5:

Increased excitation via increased PLCIncreased excitation via increased PLC

mGluR-2,3,4,6,7,8:mGluR-2,3,4,6,7,8:

Decrease excitation via decreased AC Decrease excitation via decreased AC

51) What causes schizophrenia?51) What causes schizophrenia?

Increased dopamine in NA, decreased Increased dopamine in NA, decreased dopamine in PCdopamine in PC

52) How does Selegiline work?52) How does Selegiline work?

MAO inhibitor (Parkinson’s disease)MAO inhibitor (Parkinson’s disease)

53) What is the function of: 53) What is the function of:

5-HT5-HT11::

5-HT5-HT22::

5-HT5-HT33::

53) What is the function of: 53) What is the function of:

5-HT5-HT11: : antidepressantantidepressant

5-HT5-HT22: : antipsychoticantipsychotic

5-HT5-HT33: : antiemeticantiemetic

54) What is Δ-9 THC?54) What is Δ-9 THC?

Weak partial agonist to CBWeak partial agonist to CB11

55) Which are indole psychotomimetics?55) Which are indole psychotomimetics?

LSD and psilocybinLSD and psilocybin

56) Which are phenyl alkylamine 56) Which are phenyl alkylamine psychomimetics?psychomimetics?

Mescaline, methamphetamine, PCPMescaline, methamphetamine, PCP

57) What is a side effect of COX-1 57) What is a side effect of COX-1 inhibition? inhibition?

Gastrointestinal bleeding or perforationGastrointestinal bleeding or perforation

58) What is a side-effect of COX-2 58) What is a side-effect of COX-2 inhibition?inhibition?

Cardiac (MI, thrombosis, stroke)Cardiac (MI, thrombosis, stroke)

59) What is the first treatment for iron 59) What is the first treatment for iron overdose?overdose?

Whole bowel irrigation (WBI)Whole bowel irrigation (WBI)

60) What causes alcohol tolerance? 60) What causes alcohol tolerance?

60) What causes alcohol tolerance?60) What causes alcohol tolerance?

Increased elimination (enzyme induction)Increased elimination (enzyme induction)

340 mcq drill with answers

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aa phentolamine

mixed alpha1 andphentolamine

sympathomimetic activity

urine ee depolarisation

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