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Features & Benefits• Provides practice questions for the

Science Assessment Framework

• Practice for benchmarks eligible forCriterion Reference Testing

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ISBN 0-07-873524-6

Contents To the Student . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . iv

Grade 9 Strands, Standards, Benchmarks, and Performance Standards . . v

Strand I Scientific Thinking and Practice

Standard I (I.I.I.1–I.I.III.3). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1

Strand I Benchmark Test (I.I.I.1–I.I.III.3 ) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10

Strand II Content of Science

Standard I Physical Science (II.I.I.1–II.I.III.12) . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12

Standard II Life Science (II.II.I.1–II.II.III.5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29

Standard III Earth and Space Science (II.III.I.1–II.III.II.12) . . . . . 44

Strand II Benchmark Test (II.I.I.1–II.III.II.12) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 56

Strand III Science and Society

Standard I (III.I.I.1–III.I.I.19) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 62

To the StudentIn today’s world, knowing science is important for thinking critically, solving problems, and

making decisions. But understanding science sometimes can be a challenge.

Mastering the New Mexico Science Assessment Framework provides an opportunity for you toprepare for the state science assessment. Each question is correlated to the standards on the NewMexico Science Assessment Framework for Science for High School.

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New MexicoGrade 9 Standards, Benchmarks, and Performance Standards

Strand I: Scientific Thinking and Practice

Standard I: Understand the processes of scientific investigations and use inquiry and scientific ways of observing, experimenting,predicting, and validating to think critically.

Benchmark I: Use accepted scientific methods to collect, analyze, and interpret data and observations and to design and conductscientific investigations and communicate results.1. Describe the essential components of an investigation, including appropriate methodologies, proper equipment, and safety

precautions.2. Design and conduct scientific investigations that include:

• testable hypotheses• controls and variables • methods to collect, analyze, and interpret data• results that address hypotheses being investigated• predictions based on results• re-evaluation of hypotheses and additional experimentation as necessary• error analysis.

3. Use appropriate technologies to collect, analyze, and communicate scientific data (e.g., computers, calculators, balances,microscopes).

4. Convey results of investigations using scientific concepts, methodologies, and expressions, including:• scientific language and symbols• diagrams, charts, and other data displays• mathematical expressions and processes (e.g., mean, median, slope, proportionality)• clear, logical, and concise communication• reasoned arguments.

5. Understand how scientific theories are used to explain and predict natural phenomena (e.g., plate tectonics, ocean currents,structure of atom).

Benchmark II: Understand that scientific processes produce scientific knowledge that is continually evaluated, validated, revised, orrejected.1. Understand how scientific processes produce valid, reliable results, including:

• consistency of explanations with data and observations• openness to peer review• full disclosure and examination of assumptions• testability of hypotheses• repeatability of experiments and reproducibility of results.

2. Use scientific reasoning and valid logic to recognize:• faulty logic• cause and effect• the difference between observation and unsubstantiated inferences and conclusions• potential bias.

3. Understand how new data and observations can result in new scientific knowledge.

4. Critically analyze an accepted explanation by reviewing current scientific knowledge.

5. Examine investigations of current interest in science (e.g., superconductivity, molecular machines, age of the universe).

6. Examine the scientific processes and logic used in investigations of past events (e.g., using data from crime scenes, fossils),investigations that can be planned in advance but are only done once (e.g., expensive or time-consuming experiments such asmedical clinical trials), and investigations of phenomena that can be repeated easily and frequently.

Benchmark III: Use mathematical concepts, principles, and expressions to analyze data, develop models, understand patterns andrelationships, evaluate findings, and draw conclusions.1. Create multiple displays of data to analyze and explain the relationships in scientific investigations.2. Use mathematical models to describe, explain, and predict natural phenomena.

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3. Use technologies to quantify relationships in scientific hypotheses (e.g., calculators, computer spreadsheets and databases,graphing software, simulations, modeling).

4. Identify and apply measurement techniques and consider possible effects of measurement errors.5. Use mathematics to express and establish scientific relationships (e.g., scientific notation, vectors, dimensional analysis).

Strand II: Content of Science

Standard I (Physical Science): Understand the structure and properties of matter, the characteristics of energy, and theinteractions between matter and energy.

Benchmark I: Understand the properties, underlying structure, and reactions of matter.

Properties of Matter1. Classify matter in a variety of ways (e.g., element, compound, mixture; solid, liquid, gas; acidic, basic, neutral).2. Identify, measure, and use a variety of physical and chemical properties (e.g., electrical conductivity, density, viscosity, chemical

reactivity, pH, melting point).3. Know how to use properties to separate mixtures into pure substances (e.g., distillation, chromatography, solubility).4. Describe trends in properties (e.g., ionization energy or reactivity as a function of location on the periodic table, boiling point of

organic liquids as a function of molecular weight).

Structure of Matter5. Understand that matter is made of atoms and that atoms are made of subatomic particles.6. Understand atomic structure, including:

• most space occupied by electrons• nucleus made of protons and neutrons• isotopes of an element• masses of proton and neutron 2000 times greater than mass of electron• atom held together by proton-electron electrical forces.

7. Explain how electrons determine the properties of substances by:• interactions between atoms through transferring or sharing valence electrons• ionic and covalent bonds• the ability of carbon to form a diverse array of organic structures.

8. Make predictions about elements using the periodic table (e.g., number of valence electrons, metallic character, reactivity,conductivity, type of bond between elements).

9. Understand how the type and arrangement of atoms and their bonds determine macroscopic properties (e.g., boiling point, electricalconductivity, hardness of minerals).

10. Know that states of matter (i.e., solid, liquid, gas) depend on the arrangement of atoms and molecules and on their freedom ofmotion.

11. Know that some atomic nuclei can change, including: • spontaneous decay • half-life of isotopes • fission • fusion (e.g., the sun) • alpha, beta, and gamma radiation.

Chemical Reactions 12. Know that chemical reactions involve the rearrangement of atoms, and that they occur on many timescales (e.g., picoseconds to

millennia). 13. Understand types of chemical reactions (e.g., synthesis, decomposition, combustion, redox, neutralization) and identify them as

exothermic or endothermic. 14. Know how to express chemical reactions with balanced equations that show:

• conservation of mass • products of common reactions.

15. Describe how the rate of chemical reactions depends on many factors that include temperature, concentration, and the presence ofcatalysts.

vi*Items in italics are not tested in Grade 9.

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Benchmark II: Understand the transformation and transmission of energy and how energy and matter interact.

Energy Transformation and Transfer1. Identify different forms of energy, including kinetic, gravitational (potential), chemical, thermal, nuclear, and electromagnetic.2. Explain how thermal energy (heat) consists of the random motion and vibrations of atoms and molecules and is measured by

temperature.3. Understand that energy can change from one form to another (e.g., changes in kinetic and potential energy in a gravitational field,

heats of reaction, hydroelectric dams) and know that energy is conserved in these changes.4. Understand how heat can be transferred by conduction, convection, and radiation, and how heat conduction differs in conductors

and insulators.5. Explain how heat flows in terms of the transfer of vibrational motion of atoms and molecules from hotter to colder regions.6. Understand that the ability of energy to do something useful (work) tends to decrease (and never increases) as energy is converted from

one form to another.

Interactions of Energy and Matter7. Understand that electromagnetic waves carry energy that can be transferred when they interact with matter.8. Describe the characteristics of electromagnetic waves (e.g., visible light, radio, microwave, X-ray, ultraviolet, gamma) and other

waves (e.g., sound, seismic waves, water waves), including:• origin and potential hazards of various forms of electromagnetic radiation• energy of electromagnetic waves carried in discrete energy packets (photons) whose energy is inversely proportional to wavelength.

9. Know that each kind of atom or molecule can gain or lose energy only in discrete amounts.10. Explain how wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation can be used to identify atoms, molecules, and the composition of stars.11. Understand the concept of equilibrium (i.e., thermal, mechanical, and chemical).

Benchmark III: Understand the motion of objects and waves, and the forces that cause them.

Forces1. Know that there are four fundamental forces in nature: gravitation, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force.2. Know that every object exerts gravitational force on every other object, and how this force depends on the masses of the objects

and the distance between them.3. Know that materials containing equal amounts of positive and negative charges are electrically neutral, but that a small excess or

deficit of negative charges produces significant electrical forces.4. Understand the relationship between force and pressure, and how the pressure of a volume of gas depends on the temperature and the

amount of gas.5. Explain how electric currents cause magnetism and how changing magnetic fields produce electricity (e.g., electric motors,

generators).6. Represent the magnitude and direction of forces by vector diagrams.7. Know that when one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts a force of equal magnitude and in the

opposite direction on the first object (i.e., Newton’s Third Law).

Motion8. Apply Newton’s laws to describe and analyze the behavior of moving objects, including:

• displacement, velocity, and acceleration of a moving object• Newton’s Second Law, F � ma (e.g., momentum and its conservation, the motion of an object falling under gravity, the

independence of a falling object’s motion on mass)• circular motion and centripetal force.

9. Describe relative motion using frames of reference.10. Describe wave propagation using amplitude, wavelength, frequency, and speed.11. Explain how the interactions of waves can result in interference, reflection, and refraction.12. Describe how waves are used for practical purposes (e.g., seismic data, acoustic effects, Doppler effect).

Standard II (Life Science): Understand the properties, structures, and processes of living things and the interdependence ofliving things and their environments.

Benchmark I: Understand how the survival of species depends on biodiversity and on complex interactions, including the cycling ofmatter and the flow of energy.

Ecosystems1. Know that an ecosystem is complex and may exhibit fluctuations around a steady state or may evolve over time.2. Describe how organisms cooperate and compete in ecosystems (e.g., producers, decomposers, herbivores, carnivores, omnivores,

predator-prey, symbiosis, mutualism).

vii*Items in italics are not tested in Grade 9.

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3. Understand and describe how available resources limit the amount of life an ecosystem can support (e.g., energy, water, oxygen,nutrients).

4. Critically analyze how humans modify and change ecosystems (e.g., harvesting, pollution, population growth, technology).

Energy Flow in the Environment5. Explain how matter and energy flow through biological systems (e.g., organisms, communities, ecosystems), and how the total

amount of matter and energy is conserved but some energy is always released as heat to the environment.6. Describe how energy flows from the sun through plants to herbivores to carnivores and decomposers.7. Understand and explain the principles of photosynthesis (i.e., chloroplasts in plants convert light energy, carbon dioxide, and water

into chemical energy).

Biodiversity8. Understand and explain the hierarchical classification scheme (i.e., domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species),

including:• classification of an organism into a category• similarity inferred from molecular structure (DNA) closely matching classification based on anatomical similarities• similarities of organisms reflecting evolutionary relationships.

9. Understand variation within and among species, including:• mutations and genetic drift• factors affecting the survival of an organism• natural selection.

Benchmark II: Understand the genetic basis for inheritance and the basic concepts of biological evolution.

Genetics1. Know how DNA carries all genetic information in the units of heredity called genes, including:

• the structure of DNA (e.g., subunits A, G, C, T)• information-preserving replication of DNA• alteration of genes by inserting, deleting, or substituting parts of DNA.

2. Use appropriate vocabulary to describe inheritable traits (i.e., genotype, phenotype).3. Explain the concepts of segregation, independent assortment, and dominant/recessive alleles.4. Identify traits that can and cannot be inherited.5. Know how genetic variability results from the recombination and mutation of genes, including:

• sorting and recombination of genes in sexual reproduction result in a change in DNA that is passed on to offspring• radiation or chemical substances can cause mutations in cells, resulting in a permanent change in DNA.

6. Understand the principles of sexual and asexual reproduction, including meiosis and mitosis.7. Know that most cells in the human body contain 23 pairs of chromosomes including one pair that determines sex, and that human

females have two X chromosomes and human males have an X and a Y chromosome.

Biological Evolution8. Describe the evidence for the first appearance of life on Earth as one-celled organisms, over 3.5 billion years ago, and for the later

appearance of a diversity of multicellular organisms over millions of years.9. Critically analyze the data and observations supporting the conclusion that the species living on Earth today are related by descent

from the ancestral one-celled organisms.10. Understand the data, observations, and logic supporting the conclusion that species today evolved from earlier, distinctly different

species, originating from the ancestral one-celled organisms.11. Understand that evolution is a consequence of many factors, including the ability of organisms to reproduce, genetic variability, the

effect of limited resources, and natural selection.12. Explain how natural selection favors individuals who are better able to survive, reproduce, and leave offspring.13. Analyze how evolution by natural selection and other mechanisms explains many phenomena including the fossil record of ancient

life forms and similarities (both physical and molecular) among different species.

Benchmark III: Understand the characteristics, structures, and functions of cells.

Structure and Function1. Know that cells are made of proteins composed of combinations of amino acids.2. Know that specialized structures inside cells in most organisms carry out different functions, including:

• parts of a cell and their functions (e.g., nucleus, chromosomes, plasma, and mitochondria)• storage of genetic material in DNA• similarities and differences between plant and animal cells• prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

viii*Items in italics are not tested in Grade 9.

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3. Describe the mechanisms for cellular processes (e.g., energy production and storage, transport of molecules, waste disposal,synthesis of new molecules).

4. Know how the cell membrane controls which ions and molecules enter and leave the cell based on membrane permeability andtransport (i.e., osmosis, diffusion, active transport, passive transport).

5. Explain how cells differentiate and specialize during the growth of an organism, including:• differentiation, regulated through the selected expression of different genes• specialized cells, response to stimuli (e.g., nerve cells, sense organs).

6. Know that DNA directs protein building (e.g., role of RNA).

Biochemical Mechanisms7. Describe how most cell functions involve chemical reactions, including:

• promotion or inhibition of biochemical reactions by enzymes• processes of respiration (e.g., energy production, ATP)• communication from cell to cell by secretion of a variety of chemicals (e.g., hormones).

Standard III (Earth and Space Science): Understand the structure of Earth, the solar system, and the universe, theinterconnections among them, and the processes and interactions of Earth’s systems.

Benchmark I: Examine the scientific theories of the origin, structure, contents, and evolution of the solar system and the universe, andtheir interconnections.1. Understand the scale and contents of the universe, including:

• range of structures from atoms through astronomical objects to the universe• objects in the universe such as planets, stars, galaxies, and nebulae.

2. Predict changes in the positions and appearances of objects in the sky (e.g., moon, sun) based on knowledge of current positionsand patterns of movements (e.g., lunar cycles, seasons).

3. Understand how knowledge about the universe comes from evidence collected from advanced technology (e.g., telescopes,satellites, images, computer models).

4. Describe the key observations that led to the acceptance of the Big Bang theory and that the age of the universe is over 10 billion years.5. Explain how objects in the universe emit different electromagnetic radiation and how this information is used.6. Describe how stars are powered by nuclear fusion, how luminosity and temperature indicate their age, and how stellar processes

create heavier and stable elements that are found throughout the universe.7. Examine the role that New Mexico research facilities play in current space exploration (e.g., Very Large Array, Goddard Space Center).

Benchmark II: Examine the scientific theories of the origin, structure, energy, and evolution of Earth and its atmosphere, and theirinterconnections.

Characteristics and Evolution of Earth1. Describe the characteristics and the evolution of Earth in terms of the geosphere, the hydrosphere, the atmosphere, and the

biosphere.2. Recognize that radiometric data indicate that Earth is at least 4 billion years old and that Earth has changed during that period.3. Describe the internal structure of Earth (e.g., core, mantle, crust) and the structure of Earth’s plates.4. Understand the changes in Earth’s past and the investigative methods used to determine geologic time, including:

• rock sequences, relative dating, fossil correlation, and radiometric dating• geologic time scales, historic changes in life forms, and the evidence for absolute ages (e.g., radiometric methods, tree rings,

paleomagnetism).5. Explain plate tectonic theory and understand the evidence that supports it.

Energy in Earth’s System6. Know that Earth’s systems are driven by internal (i.e., radioactive decay and gravitational energy) and external (i.e., the sun) sources of

energy.7. Describe convection as the mechanism for moving heat energy from deep within Earth to the surface and discuss how this process

results in plate tectonics, including:• geological manifestations (e.g., earthquakes, volcanoes, mountain building) that occur at plate boundaries• impact of plate motions on societies and the environment (e.g., earthquakes, volcanoes).

8. Describe the patterns and relationships in the circulation of air and water driven by the sun’s radiant energy, including:• patterns in weather systems related to the transfer of energy• differences between climate and weather• global climate, global warming, and the greenhouse effect• El Niño, La Niña, and other climatic trends.

ix*Items in italics are not tested in Grade 9.

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Geochemical Cycles9. Know that Earth’s system contains a fixed amount of natural resources that cycle among land, water, the atmosphere, and living

things (e.g., carbon and nitrogen cycles, rock cycle, water cycle, ground water, aquifers).10. Describe the composition and structure of Earth’s materials, including:

• the major rock types (i.e., sedimentary, igneous, metamorphic) and their formation• natural resources (e.g., minerals, petroleum) and their formation.

11. Explain how layers of the atmosphere (e.g., ozone, ionosphere) change naturally and artificially.12. Explain how the availability of ground water through aquifers can fluctuate based on multiple factors (i.e., rate of use, rate of

replenishment, surface changes, and changes in temperature).

Strand III: Science and Society

Standard I: Understand how scientific discoveries, inventions, practices, and knowledge influence, and are influenced by, individualsand societies.

Benchmark I: Examine and analyze how scientific discoveries and their applications affect the world, and explain how societies influencescientific investigations and applications.

Science and Technology1. Know how science enables technology but also constrains it, and recognize the difference between real technology and science

fiction (e.g., rockets vs. antigravity machines; nuclear reactors vs. perpetual-motion machines; medical X-rays vs. Star-Trektricorders).

2. Understand how advances in technology enable further advances in science (e.g., microscopes and cellular structure; telescopesand understanding of the universe).

3. Evaluate the influences of technology on society (e.g., communications, petroleum, transportation, nuclear energy, computers,medicine, genetic engineering) including both desired and undesired effects, and including some historical examples (e.g., thewheel, the plow, the printing press, the lightning rod).

4. Understand the scientific foundations of common technologies (e.g., kitchen appliances, radio, television, aircraft, rockets,computers, medical X-rays, selective breeding, fertilizers and pesticides, agricultural equipment).

5. Understand that applications of genetics can meet human needs and can create new problems (e.g., agriculture, medicine,cloning).

6. Analyze the impact of digital technologies on the availability, creation, and dissemination of information.7. Describe how human activities have affected ozone in the upper atmosphere and how it affects health and the environment.8. Describe uses of radioactivity (e.g., nuclear power, nuclear medicine, radiometric dating).

Science and Society9. Describe how scientific knowledge helps decision makers with local, national, and global challenges (e.g., Waste Isolation Pilot

Project [WIPP], mining, drought, population growth, alternative energy, climate change).10. Describe major historical changes in scientific perspectives (e.g., atomic theory, germs, cosmology, relativity, plate tectonics,

evolution) and the experimental observations that triggered them.11. Know that societal factors can promote or constrain scientific discovery (e.g., government funding, laws and regulations about

human cloning and genetically modified organisms, gender and ethnic bias, AIDS research, alternative-energy research).12. Explain how societies can change ecosystems and how these changes can be reversible or irreversible.13. Describe how environmental, economic, and political interests impact resource management and use in New Mexico.14. Describe New Mexico’s role in nuclear science (e.g., Manhattan Project, WIPP, national laboratories).

Science and Individuals15. Identify how science has produced knowledge that is relevant to individual health and material prosperity.

16. Understand that reasonable people may disagree about some issues that are of interest to both science and religion (e.g., theorigin of life on Earth, the cause of the Big Bang, the future of Earth).

17. Identify important questions that science cannot answer (e.g., questions that are beyond today’s science, decisions that science canonly help to make, questions that are inherently outside of the realm of science).

18. Understand that scientists have characteristics in common with other individuals (e.g., employment and career needs, curiosity,desire to perform public service, greed, preconceptions and biases, temptation to be unethical, core values including honesty andopenness).

19. Know that science plays a role in many different kinds of careers and activities (e.g., public service, volunteers, public office holders,researchers, teachers, doctors, nurses, technicians, farmers, ranchers).

x*Items in italics are not tested in Grade 9.

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Name: Date: Class:Scientific Thinking and Practice

1. A systematic method of investigationshould include—

A. undocumented data.

B. careful observations.

C. unsupported interpretations.

D. only data that support a current theory.

2. Jen is writing a lab procedure for anexperiment she designed. Which set ofsymbols should she incorporate to alertthose performing the experiment aboutbiological, disposal, and toxic wastehazards?

F.

G.

H.

J.

3. In an experiment to determine the effect ofincubation temperature on the time it takesfor chicken eggs to hatch, Robin selects eggsthat are the same size and that were laid atapproximately the same time. What is theindependent variable in the experiment?

A. The size of the eggs

B. The incubation temperature

C. The time the eggs were laid

D. The time it takes for the eggs to hatch

4. Erin does an experiment to discover howthe amount of water in an environmentaffects the rate at which that environmentcools. In the experiment, she times howquickly beakers containing equal amountsof sand and water cool. She finds that sandcools faster than water. Based on the resultsof Erin’s experiment, in which of thefollowing biomes would you predict thatthe air temperature will drop the mostrapidly when the sun sets?

F. Desert

G. Tropical rainforest

H. Temperate grasslands

J. Temperate deciduous forest

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONSChoose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark your answers on the answer sheetprovided by your teacher.

5. Ben is asked to design an experiment that will give the relationship between the length of apendulum and the period of the pendulum, that is, the time it takes for one complete back-and-forth motion. Describe which quantities should be measured and which variables should beconsidered in Ben’s experimental design.

OPEN-RESPONSE QUESTIONWrite your answer to the following question on the lined answer sheet provided by your teacher.

Strand I (I.I.I.1–2)

1. A scientist wants to present her animatedmodel of how cancer cells divide to a groupof other scientists. Which of the followingequipment would be most helpful duringher presentation?

A. A microphone with a podium

B. An overhead projector withtransparencies

C. A large monitor with computer andvideo compatibility

D. A carousel slide projector with 35-mmmicroscope slides

2. A student wants to determine the speed of aremote-control car. He measures a 5.0-mlength on the floor and puts tape on thefloor at the beginning and end of themeasured distance. Which of the followingmethods would probably be most accuratefor determining the time it takes the car tocover the 5.0-m distance?

F. One stopwatch operated by anotherstudent

G. Two stopwatches operated by two otherstudents

H. One photogate operated by a computeror calculator-based laboratory system

J. Two photogates operated by a computeror calculator-based laboratory system

3. The graph below presents data from anexperiment.

Which of the following findings isrepresented in the graph?

A. As mass increases, force increases.

B. As mass increases, force decreases.

C. As force decreases, mass decreases.

D. As force decreases, mass remainsconstant.

4. Which of the following mathematicalexpressions shows that distance, d, isdirectly proportional to speed, v, whentime, t, remains constant?

F. d � �vt�

G. d � v � t

H. d � v 2 � t

J. d � �v� � t

Mass (kg) 10

Force (N)

0

100


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5. The chart to the right gives values of gravitationalpotential energy for a baseball at different heights.Using these data, construct an appropriate graph ofthe relationship. Explain why you chose that type of graph to plot the data.


Strand I (I.I.I.3–4)

Height above the Ground (m)

0

10

15

20

30

Gravitational Potential Energy (J)

0

24

37

49

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1. According to the theory of plate tectonics,most earthquakes are caused by—

A. tsunamis.

B. volcanic activity.

C. large slabs of rock breaking.

D. the formation of mountain ranges.

2. Predictions about when the El Niñophenomenon will occur rely most on thestudy of—

F. lunar cycles.

G. plate tectonics.

H. ocean currents.

J. marine mammals.

3. Knowledge of atomic structure allowsscientists to—

A. explain why plants and animals evolve.

B. predict the formation of a high-pressuresystem.

C. explain the chemical reactions thatdeplete the ozone layer.

D. predict when a particular nucleus of aradioactive isotope will decay.

4. Which means of transportation would bemost improved by the development of aroom-temperature superconductor?

F. Sports car

G. Jet airliner

H. Maglev train

J. Space rocket


5. There is a technology that is in its infancy. Its goal is to build robots that are smaller than livingcells and that have the ability to arrange individual atoms into any physically possible pattern.These new molecules could be designed to control the structure of matter to suit humanpurposes. These robots could be called molecular machines. Identify this technology and givetwo possible future applications.


Strand I (I.I.I.5, I.I.II.5)

1. Rob performed an experiment byaccelerating a cart that could be loaded withdifferent masses. His results are shown inthe table below.

Which conclusion is most consistent withRob’s data?

A. Only force affects the acceleration.

B. Acceleration is independent of bothmass and force.

C. When force doubles and mass doubles,the acceleration doubles.

D. When force doubles and the mass isconstant, the acceleration doubles.

2. Which of the following contributes toprogress in science?

F. Responding to criticism of a theory

G. Accepting a theory without testing it

H. Not allowing the publication of rivaltheories

J. Publishing only data that agree withcurrent theories

Force (N)

10

20

40

10

20

Mass (kg)

2.0

2.0

4.0

4.0

4.0

Acceleration (m/s2)

5

10

10

2.5

5

3. Which of the following will produce themost valid, reproducible results in anexperiment?

A. Keeping methods secret

B. Examining all assumptions

C. Using carefully biased data

D. Disclosing only data that agree withcurrent theory

4. Which of the following hypotheses istestable by direct experimentation?

F. The universe was formed by the BigBang.

G. Ancient astronauts visited pastcivilizations.

H. The shape of a car determines itsaerodynamics.

J. Smooth peanut butter tastes better thancrunchy peanut butter.


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5. Why are experiments repeated? If the results of an experiment cannot be reproduced, whathappens to the explanation that resulted from the experiment?


Strand I (I.I.II.1)

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5


1. What, if anything, is wrong with thefollowing logic: “Ever since I have worn thiscopper bracelet, I have had no pain in mywrist. The copper bracelet cured the pain”?

A. Nothing is wrong with the logic.

B. Bracelets are not made of copper.

C. It is impossible for a bracelet to curepain.

D. The pain could have stopped for someother reason.

2. Whenever white light passes through aprism, the visible spectrum is observed.Using this fact, which of the followingconclusions shows good scientific reasoning and valid logic?

F. A prism causes the color of a lightsource.

G. A prism can absorb white light.

H. A prism causes white light to be visible.

J. A prism can separate white light into itscomponent colors.

3. Which of the following represents anobservation and not a conclusion?

A. The chemical reaction gives off heat.

B. The chemical reaction did not occurbecause it was too cold.

C. The chemical reaction is caused by areactive metal added to water.

D. The chemical reaction will occur faster ifa more reactive nonmetal is used.

4. Read the following claim: “Vitamin A is animportant vitamin. It is needed to make apigment in your eyes. People can developnight blindness if they do not get enoughvitamin A. Carrots are an excellent sourceof vitamin A. Carrots should be part ofyour daily diet.” You would be mostinclined to interpret the claim as beingbiased if you knew it was written by—

F. dieticians.

G. biologists.

H. carrot growers.

J. vitamin A manufacturers.


5. Lauren performed an experiment to find out how table salt affects the freezing temperature ofwater. Her results are shown in the table.

After examining her data, Lauren concludes that if she adds 50 g of table salt to 50 mL of deionizedwater, the freezing temperature will be �24°C. From the data, how did Lauren reach thisconclusion? For Lauren’s conclusion to be valid, what must happen to the freezing temperature asmore and more salt is added to water? Why is Lauren’s conclusion really unproven?


Strand I (I.I.II.2)

Material

50 mL of deionized water

50 mL of deionized water + 2.5 g of table salt



Freezing Temperature (°C)

0.0

–1.2

–2.4

–3.6

1. Leptin is a hormone that humans and mostother living things have. It has beenreported that mice injected with leptin grewup to be much thinner than mice that werenot injected with leptin. From birth, bothgroups were fed the same amount of food.Which of the following could become newscientific knowledge if the scientificcommunity accepts the results of this studyand agrees that it applies to humans?

A. Food intake determines a person’s weight.

B. Food intake may not be thepredominant cause of obesity.

C. Heredity is the only factor thatdetermines a person’s weight.

D. Small people should eat the sameamount of food as large people.

2. Chicxulub is a 65-million-year-old impactcrater located on the Yucatan Peninsula ofMexico. The most popular current theoryfor why the dinosaurs and many otherorganisms went extinct 65 million years agois that they were killed by the effects of theimpact of the asteroid or comet that formedthis crater. Which of the following would beleast helpful to review if you wanted tocritically analyze this interpretation foryourself?

F. An overview of the methods used totrack asteroids and comets in space

G. The methods used to date the age of thecrater and the extinction of thedinosaurs

H. Calculations of the energy that would bereleased during an impact of thismagnitude

J. Predictions of chemical reactions thatcan occur in the atmosphere after a largeimpact


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Name: Date: Class:Scientific Thinking and PracticeStrand I (I.I.II.3–4)

3. Models of the atom change as new data are collected fromexperimentation. The diagram at the right shows theThomson and Rutherford models of the atom.

J. J. Thomson thought that electrons were embedded in thepositive part of the atom, like blueberries in a blueberrymuffin. Briefly describe the experiment and theobservations that led from the Thomson model to theRutherford model of the atom.


Rutherford modelThomson model

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1. For accurate radiometric dating of amineral, which condition must be met?

A. Daughter isotope atoms cannot bepresent in the sample.

B. Measurable amounts of parent isotopemust be present in the sample.

C. A large amount of daughter isotopemust have been present in the samplewhen it was formed.

D. The sample must have been altered bychemical changes from sources outsidethe sample.

2. What is the scientific logic behind the useof forensic DNA fingerprinting?

F. Aspects of personal history can bedecoded with a DNA profile.

G. A DNA profile shows the completegenetic makeup of a person.

H. With the exception of identical twins,each person has a unique DNA pattern.

J. DNA can be used to determine whichpart of the body the evidence camefrom.

3. Studies to develop walls that can withstandthe impact of debris thrown by hurricanewinds are ongoing. Which of the followingwould be best to use to simulate debristhrown by hurricanes?

A. A speeding car crashing into a wall

B. A wave tank that simulates storm surge

C. A large wrecking ball crashing into awall

D. A device that launches lumber atdifferent angles and speeds

4. The Hubble Space Telescope cost 2 billiondollars to build. When the Hubble firstbegan taking pictures of outer space, distantobjects were blurry. The cause was a faultymirror, which could not properly focus thelight from distant objects. Which of thefollowing should have been tested to ensurethat, once the Hubble was placed in orbit,the mirror curvature would be correct?

F. The laws of optics

G. The curvature of the Earth

H. The curvature of the mirror underweightless conditions

J. The increased pull of gravity on themirror when in orbit


5. The cost of a space shuttle mission can be 50 million dollars. Before the launch, the astronautsneed to practice all of the maneuvers and repair operations they will perform in the weightlessenvironment of space. Many of the practice sessions last for hours. How do scientists simulate anear weightless environment on Earth for the astronauts to practice in? Identify two things theastronauts learn about themselves during the practice sessions.


Strand I (I.I.II.6)

Use the graph below to answer questions 1–3.

1. Which explanation is best supported by thedata?

A. Photosynthesis does not occur at 0°C.

B. Photosynthesis occurs at the fastest rateat 50°C.

C. The rate of photosynthesis increasesfrom 30°C to 40°C.

D. The rate of photosynthesis at 45°C isgreater than that at 25°C.

2. When another plant is tested, the graph isshifted to the left and peaks at 20°C. Forwhich type of environment is this plantprobably best suited?

F. Colder climate

G. Wetter climate

H. Hot-desert climate

J. Hot-equatorial climate

Rate ofphotosynthesis

0 10 20 30 40 50

Temperature (°C )

Rate of Photosynthesis v. Temperature for a Plant

3. In the orginal graph, the plant is producingoxygen gas at the fastest rate at—

A. 0°C.

B. 15°C.

C. 30°C.

D. 50°C.

4. The table below shows the results of anexperiment to determine the relationshipbetween the distance from a light sourceand the measured intensity of the light.

Which of the following can be concludedfrom the data?

F. When the distance from a light sourcedoubles, the intensity of light is twice asmuch.

G. When the distance from a light sourcedoubles, the intensity of light is one-halfas much.

H. When the distance from a light sourcedoubles, the intensity of light is one-third as much.

J. When the distance from a light sourcedoubles, the intensity of light is one-fourth as much.

Distance from Light Source (cm)

10

20

40

80

Intensity of Light (candela)

64

16

4

1


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Strand I (I.I.III.1)

5. The following data were gathered by a student doing a chemistry experiment.

The mass of 40 cm3 of gold was 770 g; the mass of 10 cm3 of gold was 190 g; the mass of 30 cm3

of gold was 575 g; and the mass of 20 cm3 of gold was 390 g. Create a chart to display the data;make a line graph of mass versus volume to assist in analyzing the data; and use the graph todescribe the relationship between the mass and volume of gold.

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1. Twenty mice are released on a small,forested island. The population is found todouble each year for four years. What is thepopulation after four years?

A. 80

B. 120

C. 160

D. 320

2. As a diver descends into the ocean, thewater pressure increases. The pressurechange can be modeled using the equationP � 1 atm � (0.1 atm/m � d ), where P � water pressure in atmospheres (atm)and d � depth in meters (m). What is thepressure on a person who dives 80 m deep?

F. 6 atm

G. 7 atm

H. 8 atm

J. 9 atm

3. The mathematical model comparing thebody length of an alligator to its tail length

is k � �TB

�. Based on the data in the table

below, what is the value of k in themathematical model?

A. 0.5

B. 1.0

C. 1.5

D. 2.0

4. Geologists have developed a simplemathematical model of the temperature atdifferent depths below Earth’s surface. If thesurface temperature is 20°C, then thetemperature at a particular depth � 20°C �(25°C/km � d ), where d = depth inkilometers. Which of the following can beconcluded from the mathematical model?

F. Earth cooled very slowly over time as itsolidified.

G. Earth is rapidly heated as the sun rises inthe morning.

H. As depth increases, the temperatureincreases by 20°C for every kilometer.

J. As depth increases, the temperatureincreases by 25°C for every kilometer.

0.500.75

1.02.5

1.01.5

2.05.0


5. Apple trees consume about 70 L of water per day during the middle of summer. Let W equal thenumber of liters of water absorbed, and let D equal the number of days. Write a mathematicalmodel (an algebraic equation) that could be used to predict how much water an apple tree willabsorb in the middle of summer during a given number of days. Use the model to predict howmany liters of water the tree will absorb in 30 days.


Strand I (I.I.III.2–3)

1. When analyzing the results of anexperiment, Kristin compared theexperimental results with the results of thecontrols. Controls improve an experimentby—

A. allowing the effects of the variable to bedetermined.

B. making sure that everything in theexperiment remains constant.

C. allowing for the experiment to test asmany variables as possible.

D. guaranteeing that the experimentaloutcome verifies the hypothesis.

2. The picture below shows begonias beingwatered in an experiment. The hypothesis isthat acid rain restricts the growth ofbegonias. Which of the following would bebest to use for obtaining the data necessaryto confirm or disprove the hypothesis?

F. A balance

G. A computer

H. A calculator

J. A microscope

Rainwater

Acid rainwater

1 2

3. Which is the most likely prediction that thetheory of plate tectonics will allow us tomake as more knowledge is gained?

A. When an El Niño will occur

B. When an earthquake will occur

C. When the magnetic poles will flip

D. How quickly the global climate willchange

4. Which of the following must occur ifscientific processes are to produce valid,reliable results?

F. No peer review

G. Some bias in data collection

H. Reproducible experimental results

J. Some inconsistency between data andobservations

5. Which of the following is only anobservation and not an inference about aburning candle?

A. When the candle burns, its waxvaporizes.

B. When the candle burns, carbon dioxideis produced.

C. When the candle burns, its heightdecreases by 1.0 cm.

D. When the candle burns, it reacts withthe oxygen in the air.


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Name: Date: Class:

Strand I (I.I.I.1–I.I.III.3) Benchmark Test

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Name: Date: Class:

Strand I (I.I.I.1–I.I.III.3)

6. The study of proteins found in salivaindicates that saliva can be used to diagnosesome diseases. The results of this study maylead to better methods of—

F. analyzing saliva.

G. making new proteins.

H. making artificial saliva.

J. determining the shape of proteinmolecules.

7. Which of the following is a method used byscientists to date fossils precisely?

A. Taking X-ray images of the fossil

B. Measuring the hardness of the rockswhere the fossil is found

C. Determining the pH of the soil thatoriginally covered the fossil

D. Analyzing the isotopes present involcanic rocks found near the fossil

8. Rivers and streams carry sediments fromone location to another. Which graphshows that the faster a river flows, the largerthe particles the river can carry?

F.

G.

H.

J. 120100

80604020

0

Speed of river(m/sec)

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Siz

e of

larg

est

part

icle

car

ried

(cm

)120100

80604020

0


0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Siz

e of

larg

est

part

icle

car

ried

(cm

)

120100

80604020

0


0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Siz

e of

larg

est

part

icle

car

ried

(cm

)

605040302010

0

Siz

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car

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(cm

)


0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7


Benchmark Test

9. According to the table, does the temperature from June to July explain the reduction in the number of fish and lily pads? Explain your answer. Make agraph showing the effect of pH on the number ofliving organisms (fish and lily pads). Explain whatyour graph shows.


pHlevelMonth

Numberof Fish

Numberof

Lily Pads

Temp.(°C)

May 5.9 50 200 16

June 5.5 30 165 17

July 4.9 20 100 17

Aug. 4.2 5 33 19

1. Which of the following is classified as acompound?

A. Air

B. Carbon

C. Steel

D. Sucrose

Use the diagrams below to answer question 2.

2. Identify the state of matter represented indiagram C.

F. Gas

G. Liquid

H. Solid

J. Solution

A B C

3. A sport drink should be classified as—

A. a gel.

B. a mixture.

C. an element.

D. a compound.

4. An acid solution is best described as asolution that has—

F. no ions.

G. an orderly arrangement of ions.

H. more hydronium ions (H3O�) thanhydroxide ions (OH�).

J. more hydroxide ions (OH�) thanhydronium ions (H3O�).


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Name: Date: Class:Physical Science

5. Describe the changes that occur in the arrangement of water molecules and their freedom ofmotion when liquid water freezes.


Strand II (II.I.I.1 and 10)

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1. In order to determine the density of lead,you need to—

A. weigh the lead.

B. measure the temperature of the lead.

C. find both the mass and volume of thelead.

D. find out whether the lead floats in wateror sinks.

2. Which of the following is a chemicalproperty?

F. Viscosity

G. Melting point

H. Combustibility

J. Ability to solidify

3. In an experiment that used three acids ofdifferent strengths, you poured the acidsinto three test tubes but forgot to labelthem. Which of the following could havebeen used to measure the degree of acidityof each acid?

A. pH paper

B. Litmus paper

C. Phenol red paper

D. Cobalt blue paper

4. A good method for determining theviscosity of a liquid would be—

F. measuring the boiling point and meltingpoint of the liquid.

G. measuring how long it takes the solidstate of the liquid to melt.

H. measuring how long it takes a steel ballbearing to fall through the liquid.

J. measuring how long it takes anabsorbent towel to soak up a givenamount of the liquid.


5. A student is asked to determine the identity of an unknown substance in lab. She determines thedensity, boiling point, and melting point of the unknown and compares her results to thedensity, boiling point, and melting point of four possible substances. Using the table below,determine the identity of the unknown substance. Explain the reasons for your choice.

Substance IsopropanolMethanolEthanoln-PropanolUnknown substance

Density (g/cm3)0.790.790.790.800.80

8265789779 could not be determined

P P


Strand II (II.I.I.2)

1. The best method to separate and collect thecomponents of a saltwater solution is to usethe process of—

A. filtration.

B. diffusion.

C. distillation.

D. chromatography.

2. Which of the following is the best methodof separating a mixture of iron and sandparticles of equal size?

F. Pouring the mixture through a sieve

G. Moving a magnet through the mixture

H. Using the process of gaschromatography

J. Moving a metal detector across the topof the mixture

3. A mixture of sugar and ground-up ceramicpieces is gathered at a crime scene. Whichof the following properties will be mostuseful to employ when deciding how toseparate the sugar from the ground-upceramic pieces?

A. Sugar is sweeter than ceramic material.

B. Sugar is less dense than ceramicmaterial.

C. Sugar is soluble in water; ceramicmaterial is not.

D. Sugar is a compound; ceramic materialis a mixture.

4. On the periodic table of elements, the mostreactive metals are found—

F. at the top of the group of elements onthe far left side of the table.

G. at the top of the group of elements onthe far right side of the table.

H. at the bottom of the group of elementson the far left side of the table.

J. at the bottom of the group of elementson the far right side of the table.


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5. Using the portion of the periodic table shown above, choose the metal and nonmetal that shouldbe the most reactive with each other. Explain the trends in reactivity that led to your choice.

H

Li Be B C N O F Ne

Na Mg AI Si P S CI Ar

He1

2

3

2 13 14 15 16 17

181


Strand II (II.I.I.3–4)

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1. The smallest particle of an element thatretains all the properties of that elementis—

A. an atom.

B. a crystal.

C. a molecule.

D. a proton.

2. Which particles use the most space in anatom?

F. Protons

G. Neutrons

H. Neutrinos

J. Electrons

3. The mass of a proton is—

A. about the same as the mass of anelectron.

B. 2,000 times greater than the mass of aneutron.

C. about the same as the mass of a heliumnucleus.

D. 2,000 times greater than the mass of anelectron.

4. Which of the following is one of the forcesthat holds an atom together?

F. The magnetic force between protons andneutrons

G. The electrical force between electronsand protons

H. The gravitational force between protonsand neutrons

J. The gravitational force between thenucleus and electrons


5. In the model for the atom shown below, identify the subatomic particle(s) found in region A andin region B. What is the name given to region B?

Region A

Region B



1. From its position on the periodic table,which of the following elements shouldexhibit the most metallic character?

A. P

B. Se

C. Sb

D. Bi

2. Which of the following nonmentals is mostreactive?

F. O

G. S

H. F

J. Cl

3. Which of the following would be best to usefor electrical wiring?

A. Cl

B. I

C. In

D. S

4. Predict which of the following would bemost reactive with water.

F. Mg

G. Ca

H. Sr

J. Ba


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5. Using the periodic table of elements, predict the following characteristics of Co: metalliccharacter; relative reactivity; electrical conductivity.


Use the periodic table of elements below to answer questions 1 through 5.

1

H

1 18

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

2

3 4 5 7 8 9 11 12

13 14 15 16 17

10

1.008

3Li6.941

4

Be9.012

11

Na22.99

12

Mg24.31

K39.10

Ca40.08

Rb85.47

Sr87.62

2019

37 38

Cs132.9

Ba137.3

Fr223.0

Ra226.0

87 88

5655

Sc44.96

Ti47.88

Y88.91

Zr91.22

Lu175.0

Hf178.5

Lr262.1

Rf261.1

103 104

7271

2221

39 40

V50.94

Cr52.00

Nb92.91

Mo95.94

Ta180.9

W183.8

Db262.1

Sg263.1

105 106

7473

2423

41 42

Mn54.94

Fe55.85

Tc98.91

Ru101.1

Re186.2

Os190.2

Bh264.1

Hs265.1

107 108

7675

2625

43 44

Co53.93

Rh102.9

Ir192.2

Mt268

109

77

27

45

Ni58.69

Pd106.4

Pt195.1

78

28

46

Cu63.55

Ag107.9

Au197.0

79

29

47

Zn63.39

Cd112.4

Hg200.6

80

30

48

Ga69.72

In114.8

Tl204.4

81

31

49

B10.81

Al26.98

5

13

Ge72.61

Sn118.7

Pb207.2

82

32

50

C12.01

Si28.09

6

14

As74.92

Sb121.8

Bi209.0

83

33

51

N14.01

P30.97

7

15

Se78.96

Te127.6

Po209.0

84

34

52

O16.00

S32.07

8

16

Br79.90

I126.9

At210.0

85

35

53

F19.00

Cl35.45

9

17

Kr83.80

Xe131.3

Rn222.0

86

36

54

Ne20.18

Ar39.95

10

He4.003

18

6


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1. The process illustrated in the diagramabove represents—

A. nuclear fission.

B. nuclear fusion.

C. radiometric dating.

D. spontaneous decay.

2. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is50 years. How much of a 100-g sample ofthe isotope will remain after 200 years?

F. 25.0 g

G. 12.5 g

H. 6.25 g

J. 3.12 g

3. The reaction thought to be the mostimportant energy source of the sun is—

A. hydrogen nuclei splitting to formprotons.

B. helium nuclei splitting to form hydrogennuclei.

C. hydrogen nuclei coming together tomake helium nuclei.

D. helium nuclei coming together to makehydrogen nuclei.

4. An isotope of uranium emits a particlecomposed of two protons and twoneutrons. What remains after the isotopeemits the particle?

F. A new element that has a mass smallerthan the uranium mass

G. A new element that has a mass that isgreater than the uranium mass

H. A new isotope of uranium that has amass that is greater than the startingmass

J. A new isotope of uranium that has amass that is smaller than the startingmass


5. Define the term half-life. Compare an isotope having a short half-life to an isotope with a long half-life. Compared with an isotope having a long half-life, how much of an isotope having a short half-life remains after the same period of time?



1. Chemical reactions occur when—

A. nuclear changes occur.

B. protons are rearranged.

C. physical changes occur.

D. electrons are rearranged.

2. When potassium metal is put into water, itwill burst into flames. This reaction isidentified as—

F. exothermic.

G. neutralizing.

H. endothermic.

J. reactant favored.

3. In order to balance an incomplete equation,such as H2 � N2 → NH3, what must bedone?

A. Coefficients must be added.

B. Subscripts must be changed.

C. The product must be changed.

D. A new reactant must be added.

4. When methane gas (CH4) burns, itcombines with oxygen gas (O2). If only twoproducts form, which of the following mustbe the products?

F. Carbon and water

G. Carbon dioxide and water

H. Carbon and carbon dioxide

J. Carbon and carbon monoxide


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5. Balance the following incomplete equations by adding the appropriate coefficients wherenecessary.

1. __Al � __Cl2 → ___AlCl3

2. __FeCl2 � __NaOH → __ Fe(OH)2 � __NaCl



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1. To determine rate of a chemical reaction,one must measure—

A. the room temperature.

B. the temperature of the products.

C. the atmospheric pressure in the room.

D. the time it takes for the reaction to occur.

2. Which of the following will increase therate of most chemical reactions?

F. Increasing the temperature

G. Decreasing the temperature

H. Putting the reaction vessel into a well-lighted room

J. Putting the reaction vessel into acontainer of water at room temperature

3. In order to increase the rate of combustionof a solid, you could—

A. use many large pieces of the solid.

B. grind the solid into smaller particles.

C. decrease the concentration of oxygenpresent.

D. increase the concentration of nitrogenpresent.

4. Which of the following will decrease therate of most chemical reactions withoutstopping the reaction?

F. Stirring the reactants

G. Using less concentrated reactants

H. Increasing the surface area betweenreactants

J. Removing one reactant from thereaction mixture


5. You are asked to design a new composter that will process yard and kitchen wastes at a faster ratethan a standard pile. Identify three physical conditions that would increase the rate ofcomposting.



1. When wood burns,—

A. nuclear energy is converted into thermalenergy.

B. thermal energy is converted into nuclearenergy.

C. chemical energy is converted intothermal energy.

D. thermal energy is converted intochemical energy.

2. A weight lifter lifts a weight over her head.She releases the weight in front of her and itfalls straight down to the floor. How doesthe energy of the weight at the instant ithits the ground compare with the energy ofthe weight when it is above the weightlifter's head?

F. The weight has no energy.

G. The weight has less energy.

H. The weight has more energy.

J. The weight has the same amount ofenergy.

3. Hydroelectric dams can generate electricitybecause the dammed water used to turn theturbines had high—

A. electrical energy.

B. electromagnetic energy.

C. chemical potential energy.

D. gravitational potential energy.

4. An arrow is shot straight up. While thearrow is rising, the arrow—

F. has no kinetic energy.

G. has no gravitational potential energy.

H. loses kinetic energy and gains an equalamount of gravitational potential energy.

J. loses gravitational potential energy andgains an equal amount of kinetic energy.


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5. Complete the chart below by identifying the form of energy described in the left column.

DescriptionEnergy gained by a steel girder that has been lifted from the ground and placed onthe top floor of a buildingEnergy in the sucrose of a candy barEnergy of ultraviolet lightEnergy due to the motion of a hockey pucksliding across the ice

Form of Energy?

???


Strand II (II.I.II.1 and 3)

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1. An example of heat transfer by conductionis—

A. heat coming to Earth from the sun.

B. warm water rising in a heating pot ofwater.

C. warm air moving by the fan of a spaceheater.

D. silverware warming when placed in acup of hot coffee.

2. Heat normally flows—

F. between hot objects of the sametemperature.

G. between cold objects of the sametemperature.

H. from an object of high temperature toan object of low temperature.

J. from an object of low temperature to anobject of high temperature.

3. Heat conduction in conductors differs fromthat in insulators because—

A. insulators cannot transmit heat.

B. conductors have the ability to transmitheat faster.

C. heat in insulators can be transmittedonly by convection.

D. conductors have atoms that can movefarther apart than atoms in insulators.

4. Which of the following would be the mostpractical insulator for the handle of a fryingpan?

F. Cardboard

G. Cotton

H. Wood

J. Silver


5. Use the illustration above to complete the table below.

Name ofAppliance

Iron

Toaster

Space heater

Hair dryer

Function ofAppliance

removes creasesfrom clothing

toasts bread

warms a room

dries hair

Identification and Description of Method of Heat Transfer Used by Appliance


Strand II (II.I.II.4–5)

1. All electromagnetic waves—

A. pose a proven health hazard.

B. have long wavelengths and smallfrequencies.

C. carry energy that can be transferredwhen the waves interact with matter.

D. carry energy that can be converted intomass when the waves interact withmatter.

2. The waves shown below are drawn to thesame scale. They all are traveling to theright at the same speed. Which of the waveshas the highest frequency?

F.

G.

H.

J.

3. Which of the following is an example ofelectromagnetic waves interacting withmatter?

A. Microwaves cooking food in an oven

B. Ocean waves eroding sand from a beach

C. Seismic waves from an earthquakecausing the ground to rise and fall

D. Sound waves rattling the windows whena car playing loud music passes a house

4. There are two kinds of seismic waves:S-waves and P-waves. S-waves move rocksup and down, while P-waves cause rocks toexpand and contract. Seismic P-waves aremost similar to which other type of wave?

F. Water waves

G. Sound waves

H. Microwaves

J. Radio waves


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5. Compare the wavelength, frequency, and speed of visible light waves to those of sound waves.Why can't sound waves travel through outer space?


Strand II (II.I.II.7–8)

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1. Which of the fundamental forces of naturecan act at any distance and can be attractiveor repulsive?

A. Gravitational force

B. Electromagnetic force

C. Weak nuclear force

D. Strong nuclear force

2. What would happen to your mass andweight if you went to a planet that was thesame size as Earth but had twice the mass?

F. Your mass would double, and yourweight would double.

G. Your mass would double, and yourweight would remain the same.

H. Your mass would remain the same, andyour weight would double.

J. Your mass would remain the same, andyour weight would remain the same.

3. Which of the following exerts agravitational force of attraction on you?

A. Every object that has mass

B. Every object that has charge

C. Every object that has energy

D. Every object that has wave properties

4. In figure A, two masses, M and m, are at adistance d apart. If the masses were movedto a distance 2d apart, as shown in figure B,the gravitational force between them wouldbe—

F. half as much.

G. two times larger.

H. four times larger.

J. one-fourth as much.

M m M m

2dd

A B


5. Complete the chart below by naming the fundamental force of nature being described.

Description of Force

Causes attraction between masses

Holds the nucleus together

Holds atoms and molecules together

Causes spontaneous decay

Fundamental Force of Nature

?

?

?

?


Strand II (II.I.III.1–2)

1. How can you use a copper wire to producea magnetic field?

A. Put an electric current through the wire.

B. Put the wire through a coil of anotherwire.

C. Move the wire quickly between twoblocks of iron.

D. Move the wire quickly between twoblocks of copper.

2. What will be produced in a loop of wire if abar magnet is thrust through it as shown inthe illustration below?

F. Nothing

G. An electric current

H. A monopole magnet

J. A permanent magnet

N SWire

3. Some types of cardiovascular exerciseequipment, such as stationary bikes, do notneed to be connected to an electrical outletto display the rider’s speed. A stationarybike generates its own electricity by themotion of the person pedaling it. Electricityis produced because the pedaling—

A. creates a battery.

B. creates an electric motor.

C. causes a coil of wire to experience aconstant magnetic field.

D. causes a coil of wire to experience achanging magnetic field.

4. An electric motor works because theelectrical current flowing in the coil of wirein the motor—

F. alternates in direction.

G. doesn’t produce a magnetic field.

H. always travels in the same direction.

J. changes the polarity of the motor’smagnet.


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5. Describe how you could use a long iron nail, a 1-m length of insulated wire, and a D-cell batteryto make an electromagnet and lift some metal (iron) paper clips.


Strand II (II.I.III.5)

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25


1. Before you draw a vector diagramrepresenting forces, you need to knowonly—

A. the direction of the forcesand the scale used to represent forcemagnitude.

B. the magnitude of the forces and the scaleused to represent force magnitude.

C. the magnitude and direction of theforces and the resultant of adding theforces.

D. the magnitude and direction of theforces and the scale used to representforce magnitude.

2. Two groups of students are engaged in atug-of-war. The rope they are pulling onhas a knot in the middle. The group on theright pulls with a force of 2,000 N, and thegroup on the left is pulling with a force of1,000 N. Which of the following scalediagrams best represents the forces actingon the knot (shown as a • in the diagrams)?

F.

G.

H.

J.

3. When a wrestler does a push-up, he pushesdown on the floor with a force of 500 N.The floor pushes up on the wrestler with aforce of—

A. 0 N.

B. 500 N.

C. 1,000 N.

D. unknown magnitude.

4. Which of the following is not an example ofan action-reaction pair of forces accordingto Newton's third law?

F. When a car pushes on the road, the roadpushes on the car.

G. When you pull on a rope to start a lawnmower, the rope pulls on you.

H. When a soccer ball pushes on a wall, thewall pushes on the soccer ball.

J. When you hit a ball with a bat, you pushon the bat and the bat pushes on theball.


5. Identify the action-reaction pair of forces in each of the following situations:

A. a car that accelerates from a stop sign

B. a basketball that bounces off the floor



1. What average force must the seat back in a1,000-kg car exert to accelerate a 100-kgdriver 10 m/s2?

A. 10 N

B. 100 N

C. 1,000 N

D. 10,000 N

2. A cannon gives a cannonball a momentumof �45 kg·m/s. What is the momentum ofthe cannon at the instant the cannonballleaves the barrel of the cannon?

F. �45 kg·m/s

G. 0 kg·m/s

H. �45 kg·m/s

J. Greater than �45 kg·m/s

3. Which of the following is true about twometal balls of unequal mass falling from aheight of 20 m?

A. They fall with the same acceleration.

B. They fall with a variable acceleration.

C. The less massive ball has a greateracceleration.

D. The more massive ball has a greateracceleration.

4. A car is traveling west at 45 km/h, and aperson walking on the sidewalk is travelingeast at 5 km/h. What is the velocity of thewalker, relative to the driver of the car?

F. 5 km/h east

G. 5 km/h west

H. 50 km/h east

J. 50 km/h west


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5. The graph below shows the change in velocity of a race car over time.

What is the acceleration of the race car and the force on the race car between 0 s and 10 s? What is the race car's displacement between 10 s and 20 s?

0 10 20 30

50

40

30

20

10

Vel

oci

ty (

m/s

)

Time (s)

Velocity vs. Time for a 500-Kg Race Car



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1. Compared with waves of smaller amplitude,waves of larger amplitude in the samemedium will—

A. travel at a faster speed.

B. travel at the same speed.

C. have a higher frequency.

D. have a longer wavelength.

2. As an ocean wave moves into shallowerwater, its wavelength decreases and its—

F. speed increases.

G. speed decreases.

H. frequency increases.

J. frequency decreases.

3. A wave enters a new medium. Which of thefollowing will happen to the wave in thenew medium?

A. Its energy will be lost.

B. Its frequency will change.

C. Its speed will remain the same.

D. Its direction of propagation will change.

4. When waves refract, they—

F. change speed and direction.

G. change direction, but not speed.

H. change speed, but not direction.

J. change neither speed nor direction.


5. The arrows in the diagrams below represent fine beams of light, like from a laser pointer.

Identify the phenomenon shown in figure A, and compare the size of angle X to the size of angle Y. Identify the phenomenon shown in figure B, and state how the speed of the beam of light in air compares to the speed of the beam in water.

Air

Water

Figure B

Angle X Angle Y

Figure A

Air

Mirror



1. The speed of a car or a baseball can bemeasured by applying the—

A. acoustic effect.

B. Coriolis effect.

C. Doppler effect.

D. seismic effect.

2. In order to calculate the distance from aship to an undersea volcano, sonar can beused to determine—

F. the speed of sound in water.

G. the speed of a radio wave in water.

H. the loudness of the echo from thevolcano.

J. the time needed for a sound wave totravel to the volcano and return to theship.

3. Which of the following does notincorporate one or more acoustic effects?

A. Detecting a tornado with radar

B. Mapping the ocean floor with sonar

C. Imaging an unborn baby withultrasound

D. Designing an auditorium that minimizesechoes

4. What will happen to the wavelengths oflight from a distant galaxy that is racingaway from Earth, compared with thewavelengths of light coming from the sunto Earth?

F. The wavelengths of the light will be thesame for both.

G. The wavelengths of the light from thegalaxy will be stretched.

H. The wavelengths of the light from thegalaxy will be compressed.

J. The wavelengths of the light from thegalaxy will change continuously.


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5. Explain how seismic data are used to determine the epicenter of an earthquake.


Strand II (II.I.III.12)

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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.II.I.1 and 4) Life Science

1. Which of the following human activitieslikely will have a negative impact on theenvironment?

A. Expanding the size of cities

B. Recycling metal, paper, and plastic

C. Using biological controls in place ofpesticides

D. Increasing the use of renewable energyresources

2. Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxideinto the environment. Scientists think thatan increase in carbon dioxide in theatmosphere will lead to global climatechange. Which of the following is the mostlikely to be the result of this climate change?

F. Ocean water levels will rise, resulting inthe flooding of coastal areas.

G. The hole in the ozone layer will growdue to the release of carbon dioxide.

H. The amount of acid precipitation willincrease, causing river water to becomemore acidic.

J. The speed at which tectonic plates driftwill increase, resulting in a greaterincidence of volcanoes and earthquakes.

3. Many farmers and homeowners try toreduce populations of flying insects, such asmosquitoes, by erecting nesting boxes forbirds called purple martins. The use ofpurple martins to eat insects is an exampleof—

A. a limiting factor.

B. biological control.

C. antibiotic resistance.

D. a renewable resource.

4. An earthquake caused the side of amountain to collapse into a valley, coveringthe valley with rubble. Which of thefollowing shows the correct order ofcommunities that would appear in the newenvironment over time?

F. Shrubs, moss, grasses, pine trees

G. Moss, grasses, shrubs, pine trees

H. Grasses, lichens, pine trees, shrubs

J. Lichens, pine trees, grasses, shrubs


5. The diagram below shows how an area changed over a 500-year period.

What process is represented in the diagram? What term is used to describe species such as mossand lichens? What causes the community to gradually change from mosses and lichens to theorganisms pictured in the climax community? In New Mexico, what are some plants that can befound in a climax community?

Exposed rock

Moss Lichen

Climax community


1. Which of these plays an ecological rolemost similar to that of a decomposer?

A. A lion that hunts diseased and frailanimals

B. A leech that sucks blood from an aquaticturtle

C. A cockroach that eats the remains ofdead animals

D. A plant that uses sunlight to make foodfrom inorganic materials

2. In which type of ecological relationship iseach member harmed by the presence ofthe other?

F. Competition

G. Mutualism

H. Parasitism

J. Predation

3. The grizzly bear eats berries during sometimes of the year and salmon at other timesof the year. A grizzly bear is an example ofa(n)—

A. carnivore.

B. decomposer.

C. herbivore.

D. omnivore.

4. A scientist studied populations of a smallflying insect and a flowering plant that wereoften present in the same meadow. Theirpopulation densities were compared whereeach was present by itself and then wherethey were present together. The results areshown in the table below.

Which term best describes the relationshipbetween the insect and flowering plant?

F. Competition

G. Mutualism

H. Parasitism

J. Predation

Separate

Insect

24

Plant

35

Together

Insect

57

Plant

64


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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.II.I.2–3) Life Science

5. Producers live in almost all environments on Earth. However, there are very few producers livingdeep in the ocean. What resources are required by most producers, and explain why the oceandepths lack many producers. Explain why some producers are able to live deep in the ocean.


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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.II.I.5– 6) Life Science

Use the diagram below to answer questions 1and 2.

1. According to the above energy pyramid,how much energy from each level is passedon to the next level?

A. 10 percent

B. 25 percent

C. 50 percent

D. 90 percent

2. Why is there less energy available toorganisms at the second level than toorganisms at the first level?

F. The organisms at the top don’t need asmuch energy as those at the bottom.

G. Chemical energy that is available is contin-uously transformed into heat energy.

H. Organisms at the first level use up someof the energy for their life activities.

J. The types of organisms in the secondlevel do not use as much energy as thosein the first level.

0.1% Consumers

1% Consumers

10% Consumers

100% Producers

Heat

Heat

Heat

HeatParasites, scavengers, and

decomposers feed at each level.

3. Which of the following organisms wouldlikely be found in Level B?

A. Grass

B. Hawk

C. Rabbit

D. Snake

4. Which statement describes the flow ofmatter and energy through the biosphere?

F. Energy is passed from producers toconsumers and finally back to matter inthe soil.

G. Energy follows a one-way path throughthe biosphere, but matter is recycled andnever lost.

H. Matter is passed from producers toconsumers, and energy is passed fromconsumers to producers.

J. Matter comes from the soil and goesinto organisms; energy comes fromorganisms and goes into the soil.

D

C

B

A


5. Construct a pyramid of energy to show the flow of energy through the following organisms:deer, mountain lion, and plants. Label each level as producer, first-level consumer, or second-level consumer. Explain how the shape of the diagram is related to the flow of energy in the foodchain.


1. If the chloroplasts were removed from aplant cell, the cell would not be able to—

A. take in water and minerals.

B. produce carbon dioxide throughphotosynthesis.

C. break down organic compounds toproduce energy.

D. make its own food by converting lightenergy to chemical energy.

2. Which statement best describes the processof photosynthesis?

F. Photosynthesis can take placeapproximately 12 hours a day in someplant cells.

G. Photosynthesis takes placeapproximately 24 hours a day in plantcells only.

H. Photosynthesis takes placeapproximately 12 hours a day in bothplant and animal cells.

J. Photosynthesis takes placeapproximately 24 hours a day in someplant and animal cells.

3. Chlorophyll absorbs most wavelengths oflight. It does not absorb—

A. blue.

B. green.

C. red.

D. yellow.

4. Which of these groups contains onlyproducts of the light-dependent reactionsof photosynthesis?

F. PGAL, ATP, oxygen

G. NADPH, oxygen, ATP

H. Chlorophyll, water, ADP

J. NADP�, carbon dioxide, ADP


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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.II.I.7) Life Science

5. Describe how a plant cell carries out photosynthesis. Include information on where in the plantcell the process takes place, and identify the materials that are needed and the productsproduced. Why is photosynthesis important?


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Name: Date: Class:


5.

The diagram above is called a cladogram. It shows the evolutionary history of species A throughK. What information can be inferred from the diagram about the ancestry, classification, DNA,and anatomy of species J and I as compared with species J and K?

H I J K

G

C FD

E

B

A

Present

10 millionyears ago


1. Which of the following classificationcategories is the most inclusive?

A. Family

B. Genus

C. Kingdom

D. Species

2. The scientific name for a lion is Pantheraleo. The scientific name for a tiger isPanthera tigris. Which of the followingstatements best explains why they aredifferent species?

F. They prey on different animals.

G. Their mating seasons are different.

H. They live in different regions of theworld.

J. They cannot interbreed to producefertile offspring.

3. A student is observing a cell under amicroscope. She notices that the cell has anucleus and organelles. The cell cannotbelong to an organism in the kingdom—

A. Eubacteria.

B. Fungi.

C. Plantae.

D. Protista.

4. Organisms that belong to the same ordermust also belong to the same—

F. class.

G. family.

H. genus.

J. species.

Strand II (II.II.I.8) Life Science

1. Which of the following statements aboutmutations is not true?

A. They must be beneficial to theorganisms.

B. They must occur in gametes in order tobe passed on.

C. They can lead to variations within apopulation.

D. They are random changes in thesequence of DNA.

2. A member of a species appears with a newvariation in its fur color due to a mutation.This variation makes the individual bettercamouflaged in its environment. Underwhat conditions can the organism pass thisbeneficial mutation to future generations?

F. It will be passed on under all conditions.

G. The organism must have been born withit.

H. The mutation must occur in the skin ofthe organism.

J. The mutation must be in the sperm oregg cell of the organism.

3. The random change in allele frequencies insmall populations is known as—

A. genetic drift.

B. allelic mutation.

C. natural selection.

D. genetic equilibrium.

4. Which of the following describes therelationship between natural selection andthe types of variations within a species?

F. The survival of individuals with differentkinds of variations is due to chance.

G. More individuals with useful variationssurvive and pass the variations to theiroffspring.

H. Genetic equilibrium controls the naturalselection of variations present in apopulation.

J. The kinds of variations that are passedto future generations are independent ofnatural selection.


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Name: Date: Class:Life Science

5. Use natural selection to explain why some bacteria are resistant to antibiotics.


Strand II (II.II.I.9)

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Name: Date: Class:


5. Michael is very tall. He works out regularly and is very muscular. He has been playing basketballfor 10 years. He has just led his team to the championship play-offs. Will Michael’s futureoffspring have the same physique and skills as he? Your answer should include an explanation ofthe difference between inherited traits and acquired traits.


1. Characteristics, such as eye shape and eyecolor, that individuals get from theirparents are known as—

A. acquired traits.

B. adaptive traits.

C. inherited traits.

D. vestigial traits.

2. Which statement is true about inheritedversus acquired traits?

F. Inherited traits are passed on tooffspring.

G. Inherited traits are always evident atbirth.

H. Acquired traits are always present atbirth.

J. Acquired traits do not change during anindividual’s lifetime.

3. Which of the following is an acquired trait?

A. Colorblindness in humans

B. The color of a flower petal

C. The stripe pattern of a zebra

D. An ape's knowledge of sign language

4. Which of the following characteristics ismost likely to be passed on from parent tochild?

F. Strong muscles

G. Good handwriting

H. Attached earlobes

J. Ability to speak a foreign language

Strand II (II.II.II.4) Life Science

1. Which of the following combinations willproduce a normal human male?

A.

B.

C.

D.

2. If a cell that has 24 chromosomesundergoes meiosis, how manychromosomes will be present in each of thenew cells that are produced?

F. 6

G. 12

H. 24

J. 48

X yy

XX y

X y

X X

3. Which of the following cells is produced bymeiosis?

A. Egg cells

B. Liver cells

C. Retinal cells

D. Muscle cells

4. Which of the following statements describesasexual reproduction?

F. It requires two parent organisms.

G. It requires the sperm cell to fertilize theegg cell.

H. It produces new organisms that showgenetic variation.

J. It produces new organisms that aregenetically identical to the parent.


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5. Explain why meiosis, and not mitosis, produces egg and sperm cells.


Strand II (II.II.II.6 –7)

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Name: Date: Class:


1. Scientists have developed a detaileddescription of the geological and biologicalhistory of Earth. This description is basedmainly on evidence from—

A. rocks and fossils.

B. astronomy and climate.

C. biomes and technology.

D. competition and habitats.

2. Which of the following statements aboutthe fossil record is not true?

F. The fossil record shows how organismshave changed over time.

G. The fossil record provides informationabout the history of life on Earth.

H. The fossil record contains fossils of everyorganism that has lived on Earth.

J. The fossil record is incomplete becausesome fossils have been lost throughEarth’s processes.

3. Scientists believe the first organisms to liveon Earth were—

A. eukaryotic autotrophs.

B. prokaryotic autotrophs.

C. eukaryotic heterotrophs.

D. prokaryotic heterotrophs.

4. Scientists learn about organisms that livedin the past by studying fossils. Fossilremains of an animal are least likely toprovide information about—

F. how the animal moved.

G. how big the animal was.

H. the color of the animal’s hair.

J. the type of food the animal ate.


5. The geologic time scale documents the appearance of organisms on Earth. Use the table todescribe how the dominant organisms of Precambrian times differed from the dominantorganisms of the Paleozoic era. Explain how fossils found during the different eras can helpscientists learn about past life and climates.

Era Precambrian

Paleozoic

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Life FormsProkaryotesEukaryotesInvertebratesFirst land plantsFirst amphibiansFirst reptilesDinosaursFirst mammalsFirst flowering plantsMammals dominantHuman evolution


1. Fossils can provide evidence that—

A. no ancient life forms still exist.

B. complex organisms evolved fromsimpler life forms.

C. simple organisms evolved from more-complex life forms.

D. the organisms of today have nothing incommon with ancestral organisms.

2. The sedimentary layers of rock in theillustration below are in the sameorientation that they were deposited in.

Which of the following statements aboutthe fossils in the layers is most likely to betrue?

F. Fossils in layer A are the most complex.

G. Fossils in layer D probably evolved mostrecently.

H. Fossils in layer C are younger than thefossils in layer B.

J. Organisms evolved from the mostcomplex in layer D to the simplest inlayer A.

A

B

C

D

Use the diagram below to answer questions 3and 4.

3. The common ancestor for all the organismsis—

A. B.

B. D.

C. F.

D. G.

4. According to the cladogram, which of thefollowing statements is most likely to betrue about species A?

F. Species A is not as complex as Species G.

G. Species A is more complex than Species F.

H. Species A is more complex than Species C.

J. Species A is not as complex as Species H.

A B

FD

C

E

H I

G


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5. Using the endosymbiotic theory, describe how the first eukaryotic cells were formed.


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1. Three lion cubs are born to a lioness. Oneof the lion cubs is weak and has a hard timewalking. When the pride moves on to findwater and food, the weak cub gets leftbehind because it cannot keep up. Thissituation is an example of—

A. coevolution.

B. adaptive radiation.

C. survival of the fittest.

D. punctuated equilibrium.

2. A species is likely to evolve when—

F. it lives in a stable environment.

G. there are no variations within thepopulation.

H. beneficial mutations occur in thepopulation.

J. organisms pass on the traits they acquireover their lifetimes.

3. Within a population, organisms inherittraits from their parents. Some organismswill inherit traits that help them survive,while others will not. This idea bestdescribes—

A. genetic drift.

B. natural selection.

C. ecological succession.

D. reproductive isolation.

4. The Abert squirrel lived all around thesouthwest part of the United States. About10,000 years ago, populations of the squirrelbecame separated by the Colorado River.Which of the following could have led tothe evolution of a subspecies of the Abertsquirrel called the Kaibab squirrel?

F. Mass extinction

G. Adaptive radiation

H. Geographic isolation

J. Convergent evolution


5. The illustration shows the heads of a numberof different species of honeycreepers found inthe Hawaiian islands. Explain how they couldhave evolved from one common ancestor, theLaysan finch. Your answer should include adiscussion of adaptive radiation, naturalselection, variations, and speciation.


Strand II (II.II.II.11–12)

Possible ancestral

Laysan Finch

Amakihi CrestedHoneycreeper

Grosbeak FinchAkialoa Liwi

OuAkikiki

1. The wing of a bat and the wing of an insecthave similar functions but differentstructures. They are called analogousstructures. Analogous structures represent apattern of evolution called—

A. coevolution.

B. adaptive radiation.

C. divergent evolution.

D. convergent evolution.

2. The embryonic development of allvertebrates shows some similarities. In fact,the more closely two vertebrates are related,the—

F. less similar their fertilized eggs look.

G. longer the periods they spend at similarembryonic stages.

H. shorter the periods during which theypass through similar embryonic stages.

J. more likely they are to undergoembryonic stages other than those oftheir closest common ancestor.

3. The observation that some species canevolve quickly, in rapid bursts, followed bylong periods of genetic stability is knownas—

A. gradualism.

B. stabilization.

C. convergent evolution.

D. punctuated equilibrium.

4. Which area of study do scientists use leastwhen analyzing evolutionary relationshipsamong organisms?

F. Anatomy

G. Microbiology

H. Biochemistry

J. Embryology


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5. Distinguish between gradualism and punctuated equilibrium. How could the stability of theenvironment influence the rate at which a species develops?


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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.II.III.2) Life Science

1. If the structure in the diagram above wereremoved from a cell, the first cell activity tobe affected would be the ability to—

A. produce proteins for support.

B. produce spindle fibers to carry outmitosis.

C. trap light energy to carry outphotosynthesis.

D. break down food molecules into usableenergy.

2. Which of the following statements aboutthe cell membrane is not true?

F. It helps give the cell its shape.

G. It is found only in animal cells.

H. It provides some protection for the cell.

J. It helps maintain the cell’s homeostasis.

3. Which of the following types of humanbody cells would likely have a high numberof lysosomes?

A. Heart cells

B. Retinal cells

C. Muscle cells

D. White blood cells

4. Which of the following shows the geneticmaterial stored in the cell in order ofdecreasing size?

F. DNA, gene, chromosome, nucleus

G. Nucleus, chromosome, DNA, gene

H. Chromosome, nucleus, gene, DNA

J. Gene, DNA, chromosome, nucleus


5. A student observes the cell on the right under a microscope.Identify the type of cell the student is observing as either ananimal or a plant cell. Describe two differences between plantand animal cells. How are animal and plant cells similar?


1. All of the following terms describeprocesses that move materials from an areaof high concentration to an area of lowconcentration except—

A. osmosis.

B. diffusion.

C. active transport.

D. passive transport.

2. Macromolecules are synthesized from theirmonomers by—

F. hydrolysis reactions.

G. replication reactions.

H. combustion reactions.

J. condensation reactions.

3. All plant and animal cells release energystored in food by—

A. converting amino acids into proteins.

B. breaking down the lipids and proteins incell membranes.

C. converting light energy into the chemicalenergy stored in glucose.

D. breaking down the chemical bonds ofglucose in the presence of oxygen.

4. Endocytosis, the process by which largemolecules or groups of molecules or wholecells move into a cell, differs from diffusionbecause—

F. the materials do not pass directlythrough the cell membrane.

G. the process does not require any energyexpenditure by the cell.

H. the process is used only for theexpulsion of wastes from the cell.

J. the materials can pass in either directionthrough the cell membrane.


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5. Compare and contrast active transport and passive transport. Give an example of a materialmoved by each process.


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Name: Date: Class:


1. Which of the following statements bestdescribes the organs of a multicellularorganism?

A. Every tissue in an organ system carriesout the same function.

B. Every organ in an organ system carriesout the same function.

C. Organs make up tissues that help thebody carry out specific functions.

D. Tissues make up organs that help thebody carry out specific functions.

2. What characteristic do all cells in amulticellular organism share?

F. They have the same enzymes.

G. They have the same genetic makeup.

H. They have the same origin and function.

J. They have the same chemicalcomposition.

3. Which one of the cells in the diagramsbelow is specialized to react quickly tochanges in an organism’s environment?

A.

B.

C.

D.

4. Some cells in multicellular organisms mayhave the ability to become any other type ofcell. These are called—

F. stem cells.

G. nerve cells.

H. epithelial cells.

J. white blood cells.


5. When a fertilized egg begins to divide, all of the cells are identical, but the adult has hundreds ofcell types. What is the name of the process by which cells begin to differ from one another andbecome specialized to perform different functions? What is one factor that determines what anunspecialized cell in the embryo will become? List two different human tissues and describe theirgeneral functions.


1. Which of the following gives the correctorder of size from smallest to largest?

A. a planet, our solar system, a star, anebula, a galaxy

B. a planet, a star, our solar system, anebula, a galaxy

C. a planet, a star, our solar system, agalaxy, a nebula

D. a planet, a nebula, a star, our solarsystem, a galaxy

2. Which of the following is the farthest fromEarth?

F. The closest star

G. The closest black hole

H. The Andromeda galaxy

J. The outermost part of the Milky Waygalaxy

3. The diagram below shows the materiallocated between Mars and Jupiter.

This material is composed of—

A. asteroids.

B. comets.

C. ice.

D. meteors.

4. A large group of stars, dust, and gas heldtogether by gravity is called a—

F. cluster.

G. galaxy.

H. nebula.

J. supernova.


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Name: Date: Class:Earth and Space Science

5. Briefly describe what a comet is. What happens when Earth passes through the path of a comet?


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1. If Earth’s axis were not tilted relative to itspath around the sun,—

A. the moon would not wax or wane.

B. the climate would be the sameeverywhere on Earth.

C. the length of the day would not changethroughout the year.

D. the sun would not appear to move in thesky throughout the day.

2. Which of the following is not true when thesun is positioned directly above Earth'sequator?

F. It could be the fall or spring equinox.

G. It is the longest or shortest day of theyear.

H. Neither hemisphere is tilted toward thesun.

J. The number of daylight hours nearlyequals the number of nighttime hours.

3. You would expect to see a solar eclipsewhen—

A. the sun gets between Earth and Venus.

B. the sun gets between Earth and themoon.

C. the moon gets between Earth and thesun.

D. Earth gets between the sun and themoon.

4. Astronomers know approximately whenEarth will encounter streams of debris fromcomets. This allows them to predict—

F. the size of the tail of a comet.

G. when a meteor shower will occur.

H. when asteroids will intersect Earth'sorbit.

J. the direction the tail of a comet willpoint.


5. Draw the phase of the moon that will be seen on Earth when the moon is at each position,A through D, in the figure below.

Moon

Sunlight

Earth

A

B

C

D



1. Galileo was one of the first scientists to usea telescope. He observed that four moonsorbit Jupiter and that Venus goes through afull cycle of phases like our moon. Theseobservations gave supporting evidence towhich of the following?

A. Big Bang theory

B. Expanding-universe theory

C. Geocentric model of the solar system

D. Heliocentric model of the solar system

2. Before the early 1990s, when the HubbleSpace Telescope began receiving data fromobjects in the universe, which of thefollowing was not well-known?

F. What makes stars shine

G. Distances to far-off galaxies

H. The existence of the planet Pluto

J. The presence of the asteroid belt in oursolar system

3. Any computer model that represents theuniverse correctly must incorporatesomething that comprises at least 90% ofwhat’s out there. Which of the following isbelieved to be that “something”?

A. Black holes

B. Dark matter

C. Superclusters

D. Galaxy clusters

4. Analysis of gamma rays is a relatively newscience in astronomy. Gamma rays are thehighest-energy form of electromagneticradiation. Which of the following objectswould be easiest to study by analyzinggamma rays emitted from the object?

F. Planet

G. Nebula

H. Asteroid

J. Supernova


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5. When atoms of elements in thegaseous state are excited, they emit abright-line spectrum. This spectrumis unique for each element. Thefigure to the right shows the bright-line spectra of four elements and aspectrum from a star. Whatinformation about the star’scomposition is gained by analyzingits spectrum?


Element A

Element B

Element C

Element D

Spectrumfrom star

Strand II (II.III.I.3 and 5)

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1. A nuclear reaction that takes place in thecores of stars involves the fusion of protonsto form an isotope of helium, helium-3.Then two helium-3 isotopes fuse, and twoprotons break away to leave behind ahelium-4 nucleus. What happens as a resultof this process?

A. A nebula forms.

B. Mass is created.

C. The star collapses.

D. Energy is released.

2. As a yellow colored main-sequence starages, it becomes more red in color. Itstemperature will—

F. increase.

G. decrease.

H. remain constant.

J. fluctuate uncontrollably.

3. Elements that are heavier than iron butlighter than lead are made by—

A. small stars whose cores become very hot.

B. neutron stars whose cores become veryhot.

C. supergiant stars whose cores becomevery hot.

D. white dwarf stars whose cores becomevery hot.

4. Elements heavier than lead are made—

F. during the death of a large star.

G. by a large cloud of dust and gas.

H. by a star that expands and then cools.

J. in an object whose gravity is so strongthat not even light can escape.


5. Use the diagram below to describe the sequence of events that leads to the creation anddistribution of heavier, stable elements throughout the universe.


Nebula High-massstar

Low-massstar

Main sequence

Red supergiant

Main sequence

Supernova

Black hole

Whitedwarf

Neutron star

Red Giant


1. In terms of location, Earth’s biosphereoverlaps its—

A. geosphere only.

B. geosphere and hydrosphere only.

C. hydrosphere and atmosphere only.

D. geosphere, hydrosphere, andatmosphere.

2. What is the most abundant gas in Earth'satmosphere today?

F. Oxygen

G. Nitrogen

H. Water vapor

J. Carbon dioxide

3. Early in its history, Earth’s atmospherecontained much less oxygen and muchmore carbon dioxide than it does today.Which of the following is the main reasonthat the composition of Earth’s atmospherehas changed in this way?

A. Some organisms began to carry outphotosynthesis.

B. The sizes of Earth's oceans have changedover time.

C. The tectonic plates on Earth’s surfacehave moved through time.

D. Meteorites and other objects from outerspace have collided with Earth.

4. Modern Earth scientists estimate that Earthis at least 4 billion years old. This estimate isbased mainly on the analysis of—

F. fossils in layers of rock.

G. rings in ancient tree trunks.

H. layers in sedimentary rocks.

J. radioactive elements in rocks.


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5. Although the different systems on Earth (the atmosphere, biosphere, geosphere, andhydrosphere) are often studied individually, they are not independent of each other. Give twoexamples of ways in which these different Earth systems interact.


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1. In comparison to the crust that underliesthe oceans, the crust that makes up thecontinents is—

A. colder.

B. denser.

C. thicker.

D. younger.

2. S-type seismic waves can travel throughsolids but not liquids. Which of thefollowing layers of Earth, numbered in thedrawing below, do not transmit S waves?

F. 2 and 3

G. 2 and 4

H. 4

J. 5

3. Earth’s tectonic plates are best described aslarge slabs of—

A. continental crust.

B. continental crust and oceanic crust.

C. continental crust, oceanic crust, andupper mantle.

D. continental crust, oceanic crust, uppermantle, and lower mantle.

4. Which of the following statements bestdescribes a major difference between thecore and the mantle?

F. The core is solid metal, while the mantleis primarily magma.

G. The material in the core is stationary,while the material in the mantle movesaround.

H. The core is made of iron and nickel,while the mantle is made of rock that isless dense.

J. The surface of the core is very irregular,while the surface of the mantle isperfectly spherical.


5. Draw a simple cross-section through part of a tectonic plate that includes both continental andoceanic lithosphere. In your cross section, include at least one ocean basin and one mountainrange. Label continental crust, oceanic crust, mantle, continental lithosphere, and oceaniclithosphere.


Strand II (II.III.II.3)

1. Use the geologic cross section below toanswer the question.

Assuming the rock layers shown are still inthe orientation in which they weredeposited, which layer is the oldest?

A. Shale

B. Limestone

C. Sandstone

D. Volcanic ash

2. Rubidium-87 has a half-life of about 50billion years, while carbon-14 has a half-lifeof about 5,700 years. Which isotope wouldbe better to use for dating the tusk of amastodon that died about 30,000 years ago?

F. Carbon-14 would be better.

G. Rubidium-87 would be better.

H. Both isotopes would work equally well.

J. It would not be possible to date the tuskwith either isotope.

SHALE

SILTSTONE

SANDSTONE

VOLCANIC ASH

LIMESTONE

3. Geologists often use fossils to correlate rocklayers that are widely separated on Earth'ssurface. In order to be useful in correlatingrock layers, a fossil must be—

A. found in rocks of many different ages.

B. preserved in rocks that were formed inthe ocean.

C. formed by chemical alteration of hardparts of a dead organism.

D. the remains of an organism that lived foronly a short span of geologic time.

4. Of the following lists of organisms, which isin the proper order of appearance in thefossil record?

F. Amphibians, fish, mammals, reptiles

G. Fish, amphibians, reptiles, mammals

H. Mammals, amphibians, reptiles, fish

J. Reptiles, fish, amphibians, mammals


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5. Explain the difference between relative-age dating and absolute-age dating, and give an exampleof each method.



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1. The Mariana Islands are an arc of volcanicislands in the Pacific Ocean. Based on thisfact only, which of the following is mostlikely to be true?

A. Tectonic plates collide near the MarianaIslands.

B. The Mariana Islands are larger thanmost islands.

C. The Mariana Islands have a warm andwet climate.

D. There is very little seismic activity nearthe Mariana Islands.

2. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions oftenoccur in the same regions of the world.What is the best explanation for this?

F. Earthquakes disturb magma below thesurface and cause volcanic eruptions.

G. Volcanism makes rocks weaker and morelikely to experience an earthquake.

H. Both earthquakes and volcanic eruptionsare triggered by the gravitational pull ofthe moon.

J. Both earthquakes and volcanic eruptionsoccur most frequently along plateboundaries.

3. Which statement best explains why thecontinents and oceans on Earth havechanged so greatly in shape and locationover time?

A. Erosion redistributed the soil and causedmountains to form.

B. Large masses of continents and oceanfloor moved around relative to oneanother.

C. The gravitational force of the moonpulled them out of shape as the moonorbited Earth.

D. Heat from the sun evaporated smallerbodies of water and exposed more oceanfloor as land.

4. Most geologists think that the drivingmechanism of plate tectonics is the processin which hot material in the mantle riseswhile cooler material sinks. This process iscalled—

F. drift.

G. convection.

H. divergence.

J. magmatism.


5. Describe two observations that are used to support the theory of plate tectonics, and explainhow they support the theory.


Strand II (II.III.II.5 and 7)

1. What is the primary difference betweenweather and climate?

A. Weather in an area can change, but theclimate of an area never changes.

B. Climate is controlled by solar energy,and weather is controlled by energyfrom the ground.

C. Climate refers only to precipitation andwind, but weather also includes averagetemperatures.

D. Weather refers to the short-term state ofthe atmosphere, and climate refers tolong-term conditions.

2. What would be a likely result if the air inEarth’s atmosphere were suddenly unable tomove?

F. The polar regions would become colder.

G. Waves in the oceans would becomelarger.

H. Land masses would experience largethunderstorms.

J. Winds in equatorial regions wouldincrease in strength.

3. In 1815–1816, “the year without a summer,”ash from a huge volcanic eruption inIndonesia caused global weatherfluctuations. In particular, many regionsexperienced extremely low temperatures.What was the most likely cause of theseatmospheric disturbances?

A. Gas and ash from the eruption causedsnow in tropical regions.

B. Ash from the volcanic eruptionprevented sunlight from reaching Earth'ssurface.

C. Debris from the eruption covered theground and prevented it from radiatingenergy.

D. Lava from the volcano caused glaciers tomelt, and this cooled the oceans andatmosphere.

4. Which of the following most accuratelyexplains why clouds form when a warm airmass collides with a cold air mass?

F. Water condenses because the cold airmass sinks toward the ground.

G. Water condenses because the warm airmass rises above the cold air mass.

H. Water condenses because warm airmasses have more dust particles in them.

J. Water condenses because the cold airmass freezes the water in the warm airmass.


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5. What is the difference between global warming and the greenhouse effect? How are the tworelated?



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1. What is the main difference betweenrenewable and nonrenewable resources?

A. Renewable resources are used for foodand shelter, but nonrenewable resourcesare used for energy.

B. Renewable resources can easily bereplaced on short timescales, butnonrenewable resources cannot.

C. Renewable resources are produced bynatural processes, but nonrenewableresources are produced by humans.

D. Renewable resources can be used byhumans without causing environmentaldamage, but nonrenewable resourcescannot.

2. The burning of fossil fuels has the greatestand most direct impact on the—

F. rock cycle.

G. water cycle.

H. carbon cycle.

J. nitrogen cycle.

3. Which of the following is least likely tohave a direct effect on the nitrogen cycle?

A. Raising livestock

B. Burning fossil fuels

C. Applying fertilizer to farmland

D. Pumping water from shallow aquifers

4. The figure below shows a diagram of thewater cycle. At what numbered point wouldyou expect to find the highest rate ofmechanical weathering?

F. 1

G. 2

H. 3

J. 4

3

4

12


5. Give two specific examples of the impacts that living things have on the water, carbon, andnitrogen cycles.



1. Which of the following is mostcharacteristic of igneous rock that formeddeep underground?

A. Mineral grains sorted by size

B. Gas bubbles and a foamy texture

C. Small crystals and a glassy texture

D. Large crystals intergrown with eachother

2. Which mineral most commonly forms as anevaporite?

F. Quartz

G. Olivine

H. Feldspar

J. Halite

3. Most of the coal that is used by humans forfuel was formed from plants that livedmillions of years ago, died, and were buried.However, not all plants that died turnedinto coal. In order to become coal, the plantmaterial must have been deposited in—

A. still water.

B. turbulent water.

C. a cold climate.

D. an arid climate.

4. Eclogite is classified as a high-grademetamorphic rock because the minerals init—

F. require millions of years to crystallize.

G. precipitate from solutions of hot water.

H. are found only in active mountain belts.

J. form under high temperature andpressure.


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5. Explain how geologists can use different types of sedimentary rocks to infer what the geographyor climate of an area was like long ago. Give two specific examples.



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Name: Date: Class:

Strand II (II.III.II.11–12) Earth and Space Science

1. Which of the following statements bestexplains why the temperature of thestratosphere increases with increasingdistance from Earth’s surface?

A. The stratosphere traps air pollution.

B. The stratosphere absorbs ultravioletradiation.

C. The stratosphere is made of highlycharged particles.

D. The stratosphere contains a highconcentration of water vapor.

2. The figure below shows the different layersin Earth’s atmosphere. Which layer is mostaffected by the emission of car exhaust andsmoke?

F. Exosphere

G. Mesosphere

H. Stratosphere

J. Troposphere

3. A family drilled a well to provide thehousehold with drinking water. The welltapped an unconfined aquifer. The level ofthe water decreased after several years.What would be the best way for the familyto prevent the water level in the well fromdecreasing further?

A. Use a stronger pump in the well.

B. Drill a new well downhill of the old well.

C. Use less water for washing clothes anddishes.

D. Install a reservoir uphill of the well, tocatch rainwater.

4. Wells may run dry during very dry years.What is the best explanation for thisobservation?

F. Dry air causes the water in the wells toevaporate.

G. Lack of precipitation prevents the wellsfrom being recharged.

H. Humans are asked not to water theirlawns when it is very dry.

J. Dehydration of permeable sedimentscauses them to become impermeable.


5. Describe the two main factors that determine the flow velocity of groundwater.


1. The difference between a compound and amixture is that a compound—

A. can contain molecules, but a mixturecontains only atoms.

B. always has a definite composition, but amixture’s composition can vary.

C. is composed of two or more elements,but a mixture must contain at least onecompound.

D. can be separated into its components,but a mixture cannot be separated intoits components.

2. Which of the following would most likelyresult if a greenhouse were covered in blackplastic for 72 hours?

F. The rate of oxygen production in thegreenhouse would decrease.

G. The amount of sunlight needed in thegreenhouse would decrease.

H. The rate of starch production in theplants in the greenhouse would increase.

J. The amount of glucose production inthe plants in the greenhouse wouldincrease.

3. Which of the structures labeled in theillustration stores information about how tomanufacture proteins?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

A

D

C

B

4. Which of the elements in the table abovewould be most reactive with Cl?

F. Na

G. Mg

H. S

J. Ar

5. Why are many buildings in Californiadesigned to be earthquake-resistant, whilemost buildings in New York are not?

A. California is located on continentalcrust, while New York is on oceaniccrust.

B. California is located on a plate margin,while New York is in the middle of aplate.

C. California includes a number of mantlehot spots, while New York is thousandsof miles from a hot spot.

D. California includes a region of relativelyyoung mountains, while the mountainsin New York are old.

H

Li Be B C N O F Ne

Na Mg AI Si P S CI Ar

He1

2

3

2 13 14 15 16 17

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Strand II (II.I.I.1–II.III.II.12)

6. When Earth formed, it had very little liquidwater on its surface. Where is most of thewater on Earth’s surface thought to havecome from?

F. Slow melting of the polar ice caps

G. Chemical erosion of the earlyatmosphere of Earth

H. Charged particles emanating from thesun

J. The interior of Earth via volcaniceruptions

7. Which of the following is an example ofelectromagnetic waves transferring energywhen they interact with matter?

A. Sound waves vibrating the ear drum

B. Seismic waves shaking buildings

C. Ultraviolet waves burning the skin

D. Light waves traveling through outerspace

8. Evidence for an expanding universe comesfrom—

F. the velocity of stars, as measured usingDoppler radar.

G. the brightness of the light from stars, asanalyzed by computers.

H. the redshift in light from distantgalaxies, as detected by spectrometers.

J. the images of distant galaxies, asphotographed by the Hubble SpaceTelescope.

9. Which of the following best explains whydeltas usually form where rivers enter theocean?

A. A river’s rate of flow decreasessignificantly, causing sediment to bedeposited.

B. A river’s headward erosion removessediment, causing the ocean to moveonto land.

C. The salty sea water mixes with the freshriver water, causing minerals toprecipitate.

D. The dense fresh water sinks beneath thesalt water, causing sediment to bedeposited.


10. A 100-g arrow is shot horizontally north at a target 90 m from the archer. It reaches the target in3.0 seconds. What is the average velocity of the arrow? If the bowstring produces an accelerationof 400 m/s2, what is the average force the bow exerts on the arrow?


Benchmark Test

11. Which of these pictures shows the positionsof the sun, Earth, and moon that wouldallow an observer at position T to see aneclipse of the moon?

F.

G.

H.

J.

12. Jenn is a quality control technician. She isgiven a saline solution and asked to separateit into its components and to determine themasses of the salt and the water. Which ofthe following should she use to carry outthis task?

A. Filtration setup and balance

B. Gas chromatograph and balance

C. Distillation apparatus and balance

D. Fine wire mesh screen and balance

T

T

T

T

13. In 1987 many countries around the worldagreed to ban or limit the use ofchlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), chemicalsfound in air conditioners and refrigerators.Which of the following environmentalproblems has been alleviated most directlyby this action?

F. Water pollution

G. Global warming

H. Ozone depletion

J. Acid precipitation

14. During their mating season, the femalemembers of Species C release thousands ofeggs into the water where they live. Themales release thousands of sperm cells. Notall of the sperm cells will fertilize an eggcell. This is an example of—

A. overproduction.

B. carrying capacity.

C. organic evolution.

D. heterotroph hypothesis.


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15. Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.


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16. An astronomer who wants to know moreabout the structure of nebulae should use atelescope to look for—

F. small rocky objects.

G. groups of mature stars.

H. interstellar clouds of dust and gas.

J. vast regions of completely dark space.

17. The half-life of an isotope is governed by itsrate of—

A. fusion.

B. fission.

C. chemical reactivity.

D. spontaneous decay.

18. What would be the magnitude of thegravitational force between Earth and thesun if Earth orbited the sun at one-half itspresent orbital radius and had twice itspresent mass?

F. Twice the present gravitational force

G. One-half the present gravitational force

H. Eight times the present gravitationalforce

J The same as the present gravitationalforce

19. Which of the following pairs of organismswould most likely compete for food?

A. Cow and grass

B. Snake and hawk

C. Mushroom and shrub

D. Brown bear and salmon


20. The environment has been changed by each of the following human activities: introducing exoticspecies, cutting down trees, polluting water, and burning fossil fuels. Select two of theseactivities, and explain how each has modified the environment.


Benchmark Test

21. A high-speed particle is traveling throughan atom. As it passes very close and next tothe nucleus, no deflection in its path isdetected. The particle is a(n)—

F. ion.

G. proton.

H. neutron.

J. electron.

22. Each diagram below indicates thegravitational potential energy of an object.Each object is initially at rest. Assumingthere is no air resistance, which object willhave the most kinetic energy when it hasfallen 10 m?

A.

B.

C.

D.

220 J

210 J

210 J

200 J

23. Most fossils are the remains of organismsthat lived in the oceans or other bodies ofwater. What is the most likely explanationfor this observation?

F. More microorganisms live in water thanon land.

G. There are more predators on land thanin the water.

H. Bodies of water have highersedimentation rates than land.

J. Water-dwelling organisms have fewerhard parts than land organisms.

24. A student makes a wet-mount slide of anonion skin cell. Instead of using distilledwater to make the slide, the student usessalt water. The student observes through amicroscope that the cytoplasm inside thecell shrinks. What is the best explanationfor the shrinking cytoplasm?

A. Salt diffused into the cell.

B. Salt diffused out of the cell.

C. Water diffused into the cell.

D. Water diffused out of the cell.


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25. Explain how magnetic stripes on the seafloor can help geologists determine how fast plates are moving apart from a mid-ocean ridge.


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26. Charles Darwin suggested that somegiraffes in a population had short necks andsome had long necks. The giraffes with thelong necks were able to reach leaves higherup on trees. They survived and passed theirgenes on to their offspring. This ideasupports the idea of—

F. adaptive radiation.

G. artificial selection.

H. natural selection.

J. use and disuse.

27. Most of the variations in the physical traitsthat exist within members of a speciesoriginate from—

A. mitotic cell division.

B. mutations of DNA in some members.

C. interactions with other members of thespecies.

D. production of identical proteins in allindividuals.

28. Earth has several global wind systems, suchas the trade winds and the doldrums.Which of the following characteristics bestaccounts for the existence of these windsystems?

F. Earth has numerous active volcanoes.

G. Earth has few land masses near its poles.

H. Earth’s axis is tilted relative to its orbitalplane.

J. Earth’s equatorial regions receive moresunlight than its poles.

29. As a tsunami travels through the openocean, its wavelength is 200 km and it has aspeed of 600 km/h. About how many wavecrests will pass under a ship each hour?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Six


30. Identify the major geologic features that are associated with each type of convergent boundary.


Benchmark Test

1. Perpetual-motion machines are machinesthat produce more energy than they need tooperate. The reason that perpetual-motionmachines do not exist in real life is that—

A. they defy the laws of physics.

B. they are too costly to manufacture.

C. scientists have not perfected their safeoperation.

D. the government refuses to allow researchinto more efficient machines.

2. The discovery of superconductors has led tothe redesign of equipment used to—

F. harvest crops.

G. correct vision.

H. manufacture cars.

J. make electromagnets.

3. When a scientist investigates the structureof mitochondria, which of the followingtechnologies allows the scientist to observestructure with the most detail?

A. X rays

B. Cloning

C. Radioactive isotopes

D. An electron microscope

4. One risk of using windmills to produceelectricity is that they stop working if theair is calm. What is one benefit of usingwindmills?

F. They are about 20% efficient.

G. They produce large amounts of noise.

H. They use a renewable source of energy.

J. They require large amounts of space tooperate.


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5. Identify two positive and two negative influences that the Internet has on society.


Strand III (III.I.I.1–3)

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1. The development of which of the followingproducts did not require an understandingof radio waves?

A. Garage-door openers

B. Corded land-based telephones

C. Television broadcasting stations

D. Global Positioning System receivers

2. Genetically modified foods are crop plantsdeveloped for human or animalconsumption, using the techniques ofmolecular biology and genetic engineering.Which of the following effects of geneticengineering is most likely to have a negativeimpact on society?

F. Resistance of some crops to pests

G. Ability of crops to grow in colderclimates

H. Increase in vitamin and mineral contentof some foods

J. Development of allergic reactions insusceptible individuals

3. There are four forces that form thescientific foundation of airplane flight.Which is responsible for an airplane'sresistance to forward motion?

A. Drag

B. Lift

C. Thrust

D. Weight

4. The Internet is a digital technology that hasbeen most instrumental in—

F. allowing researchers to store vastnumbers of data.

G. allowing researchers to collect moreaccurate and precise data.

H. giving researchers the ability to performcomplex calculations very quickly.

J. giving researchers the ability to sharedata quickly with scientists across theglobe.


5. The diagram below shows the steps required to carry out a new biological process. Identify theprocess. Then identify one way it could be used to benefit mankind. Also identify one possibleapplication that would raise ethical questions.


Somaticcell nuclear

transfer

Fusion

8-cellstage Blastocyst Cultured pluripotent

stem cells

Pancreatic insulin-producing cells

Nucleusfrom

egg cell

Eggcell

Skincell

63


1. Which of the following chemicals harm theozone layer when released into theatmosphere?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Chlorofluorocarbons

D. Polymers derived from hydrocarbons

2. The depletion of ozone in the upper layersof the atmosphere has caused—

F. more ozone at ground level in majorcities.

G. more ultraviolet radiation to reachEarth's surface.

H. the amount of radiation released by thesun to increase.

J. the release of more ozone-depletingmaterials by volcanoes.

3. Which can radioactivity not be used to do?

A. Estimate the age of Earth

B. Control the growth of cancerous tumors

C. Image the interiors of storm systems

D. Heat water in order to generateelectricity

4. Which of the following uses the ratio of theamounts of parent isotope and daughterisotope present in a material?

F. Cloning

G. DNA splicing

H. Nuclear medicine

J. Radiometric dating


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5. Give two reasons why community leaders might choose to build a hydroelectric plant to generateelectricity even if a coal-burning plant would be less expensive to build.



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1. The way scientists view the atom haschanged dramatically over the last 150years. Over that time, new discoveries haveled to new models of the atom that haveresulted in advances in chemistry andtechnology. Four of the models are shownbelow. What is the correct order of theirdevelopment?

A. I, II, III, IV

B. III, II, IV, I

C. II, IV, I, III

D. IV, I, II, III

Positively chargedmaterial

Electrons

II

Nucleus

Electron

IV

Electron

Nucleus

Orbit

I

Nucleus

Electroncloud

III

2. Which of the following is not a societalfactor that has constrained stem cellresearch in the United States?

F. Government funding for stem cellresearch is often hard to obtain.

G. Groups of citizens believe that usingembryos to get stem cells tampers withlife.

H. No one wants to know if stem cells canregenerate good tissue to replacediseased tissue.

J. Groups of citizens feel that stem cellresearch should be confined to use ofadult stem cells and umbilical cord stemcells.

3. The societal stigma associated withcontracting human immunodeficiencyvirus has constrained which of thefollowing? ?

A. AIDS research

B. Cancer research

C. Cloning research

D. Stem cell research

4. By causing atmospheric changes throughactivities such as transportation andelectric-power production, humans have—

F. replaced nonrenewable resources.

G. caused the destruction of habitats.

H. established balance in ecosystems.

J. decreased the levels of pollutants atground level.


5. Plate tectonics is a relatively new theory that has revolutionized the way geologists think aboutEarth. Briefly describe plate tectonics and two observations that support the theory.



1. It is important to balance environmentaland economic interests in the agriculturaluse of watershed areas in New Mexicobecause—

A. law prohibits watershed use by wildlifeand livestock in New Mexico.

B. New Mexico is not geographically,demographically, or ecologically diverse.

C. New Mexico relies heavily on bothfarming and ranching for income andemployment.

D. the New Mexico Cooperative ExtensionService does not educate farmers,ranchers, and environmental groupsregarding watershed use.

2. Which of the following is not a directsource of water in New Mexico?

F. Rain water

G. Ground water

H. Surface water

J. Glacial melt water

3. “WIPP” is the abbreviation for the WasteIsolation Pilot Plant, a U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) facility located insoutheastern New Mexico, 40 km southeastof Carlsbad. What is the function of WIPP?

A. It is a site for reprocessing spent nuclearfuel rods.

B. It is the site for disposal of chemical andbiological waste.

C. It is a storage site for some forms ofradioactive nuclear waste.

D. It is a landfill that serves greaterCarlsbad and surrounding areas.

4. Sandia National Laboratories has played amajor role in research and development inwhich of the following since the beginningof World War II?

F. Biotechnology

G. Plate tectonics

H. Stem-cell research

J. Nuclear technology


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5. Briefly describe the role of New Mexico in the development of the atomic bomb.



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1. Geologists now have a very goodunderstanding of the way minerals formand the rocks they are commonly found in.This knowledge has had the most directeffect on—

A. the development of disease-resistantcrops.

B. the wealth of individual landowners.

C. the ethical conduct of large businessowners.

D. the academic performance of children inschool.

2. Improvements in high-magnetic-fieldmagnets, for magnetic resonance imaging(MRI) diagnostics and the levitation oftrains, have been possible because ofscientific advancements in—

F. superconductors.

G. mechanical engineering.

H. alternative energy sources.

J. perpetual-motion machines.

3. The origin of life on Earth is one issue ofinterest to both science and religion thathas caused disagreement among people. Ingeneral, the people who accept the religiousview do so because of their—

A. curiosity.

B. passion for debate.

C. faith in the fossil record.

D. belief in a superior being.

4. Which of these questions can be addressedmost successfully using a scientific method?

F. Which variety of pork tastes best?

G. Which variety of pork is mostnutritious?

H. Should large pig farms be abolished?

J. What will pigs look like one millionyears from now?


5. Identify one question that science cannot answer. Explain why this question is currently orpermanently outside the realm of science.



1. Most scientists are ethical. Which is anethical practice in scientific research?

A. Altering results of experiments

B. Withholding experimental data

C. Sharing results of investigations

D. Using biased sources of information

2. Scientists, like others, may have some of thecharacteristics listed below. Which pair ofcharacteristics is not beneficial to science orsociety?

F. Honesty and openness

G. Preconception and bias

H. Competence and integrity

J. Responsibility and accountability

3. Which profession requires specializedknowledge about fossil and nuclear fuels?

A. Airline pilot

B. Electrical engineer

C. Nuclear-medicine technician

D. Energy-conservation technician

4. Which career involves the direct applicationof knowledge about forces and the motionof objects?

F. Dental technician

G. Electrical engineer

H. Aerospace engineer

J. Pharmaceutical chemist


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5. Identify two types of electromagnetic radiation you would need to study if you wanted to pursuea career in medical imaging, and briefly explain how each is used.



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