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IBPS RRB PO (Mains)

No of Questions: 200 Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hours

TEST - I: REASONING

Directions (Q.Nos. 1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. At a recent international summit five delegates A, B, C, D and E participated. A person observed and made the following statements

I. B and C spoke English, although when D joined them they all changed to Spanish, the only common language among the three of them. II. The only common language among A, B and E was French. III. The only common language between C and E was Italian. IV. Three delegates could speak Portuguese. V. The most common language was Spanish. VI. One of the delegates spoke all five languages, another one spoke four, one spoke three, one spoke two and one spoke only one language.

1. The person who speaks all the five languages is (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) Can’t say (5) None of these 2. D does not speak which of the following languages? I. French II. Italian III. Portuguese (1) Only I (2) I and II (3) I and III (4) II and III (5) All of these 3. E speaks which of the following languages? I. French II. Italian III. Portuguese (1) Only I (2) I and II (3) I and III (4) II and III (5) All of these 4. The only person who does not speak Spanish is (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) Can’t say (5) None of these 5. Which of the following indicates the pair of persons who speak neither English nor Italian? (1) AD (2) AB (3) BD (4) DE (5) None of these Directions (Q.Nos. 6 – 7 ): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

At a train station, Choudary’s family is saying good-bye to Thakur’s family. But it is not known who is leaving and who is staying. Each of the members of the Choudary family says farewell to each of the members of the Thakur family. To say good-bye, two men shake hands, but a man and women kiss once on the cheek and so do two women.

An eyewitness to the event counted 21 handshakes and 34 kisses. 6. How many men were saying good-bye? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these 7. How many women were saying good-bye? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these Directions (Q.Nos. 8 – 12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A word arrangement Machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.

Input: We again 36 early 17 morning in day 7 11 Step I: again we 36 early 17 morning in day 7 11

Step II: again 36 we early 17 morning in day 7 11 Step III: again 36 early we 17 morning in day 7 11 Step IV: again 36 early 7 we 17 morning in day 11 Step V: again 36 early 7 in we 17 morning day 11 Step VI: again 36 early 7 in 17 we morning day 11 Step VII: again 36 early 7 in 17 day we morning 11

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Step VIII: again 36 early 7 in 17 day 11 we morning Step IX: again 36 early 7 in 17 day 11 morning we Step IX is the last step. 8. If the following is the IInd step of an input what will be Vth step? Step II: after 89 she 38 wins 11 Olympic 22 the 7

(1) after 89 she 7 the 22 Olympic 11 wins 38 (2) after 89 Olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7 (3) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22 (4) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the 11 wins 22 (5) None of the above 9. Which of the following is the last step for the input ‘eat 9 fast ice cream 22 3 umbrella cat 5? (1) cat eat 9 fast 5 ice cream 22 umbrella 3 (2) eat 22 ice cream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast (3) eat 22 umbrella 3 ice cream 9 cat 5 fast (4) eat 22 ice cream 3 umbrella 5 cat 9 fast (5) None of the above 10. Which step will be the last step for the input ‘elephant 17 free open 41 27 danger 15? (1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these 11. Which word/number will be at 4th from the left in step V for the given input in above question? (1) 41 (2) danger (3) open (4) 15 (5) None of these 12. Which word/number will be 3rd to the right of ‘41’ in step IV for the given input in Q.10? (1) open (2) danger (3) 15 (4) 17 (5) None of these Directions (Q.Nos. 13 – 18): in each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 13. Statements: some roses which are plants are flowers. All plants are lotus. Conclusions: I. Some lotus are not flowers. II. Some lotus which are roses are flowers. III. Some roses are lotus (1) I and II follow (2) only II follows (3) II and III follow

(4) I and III follow (5) None of these 14. Statements: All matches are cups. Some fields are not viewers. All viewers are fans. Some matches are not fans. Conclusions: I. Some cups which are fans are not viewers II. Some matches which are not viewers are cups III. Some fields which are fans are not matches. (1) I and III follow (2) only II follows (3) II and III follow

(4) Only III follows (5) None of these 15. Statements: Some pens are books. Some books are pencils. Some pencils are rubbers. All books are slates. Conclusions: I. All pencils are books. II. All pens are pencils. III. Some slates are pens. IV. All slates are books. (1) I and II follow (2) III and IV follow (3) Only III follows (4) I and IV follow (5) None of these 16. Statements: All roses which are leaves are flowers. Some sunflowers which are leaves are not plants. Conclusions: I. Some roses which are plants are not flowers II. Some flowers which are roses are not sunflowers (1) Only I follows (2) only II follows (3) Neither I nor II follows

(4) I and II follow (5) None of these 17. Statements: Some animals are not cats. All elephants are cats. No Kangaroo is animals. Conclusions: I. Some animals which are not elephants are not Kangaroos.

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II. Some cats are not Kangaroos. (1) Only I follows (2) only II follows (3) Neither I nor II follows

(4) Both I and II follows (5) None of these 18. Statements: Some schools which are not students are colleges. No student is a principal. All schools are principals. Conclusions: I. No college is a principal.

II. Some principals are colleges. III. All colleges are schools. (1) I and III follow (2) Either I or II follows (3) Only II follows

(4) Either I or III follows (5) None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 19 – 23): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both are statements and Give answer

(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(4) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question 19. Is it 5 o’clock?

I. I’m looking at my watch. From this moment on, the hour hand will take exactly twice as long as the minute hand to reach the number six. II. I’m looking at my watch. From this moment on the hour hand will take exactly three times longer than the minute hand to reach the number six.

20. In which month is my birthday? I. I will celebrate my birthday in a month which begins on a Friday and ends on a Friday too.

II. I will celebrate my birthday in the current month. The result of adding the date of the last Monday of last month and the date of the first Thursday of next month is 38.

21. Alka and Madhu put 40 matches on the table and make themselves aware of the game for which the matches are to be used. As per the rules, the winner is the one who takes the last match. Who will win the game?

I. Each player in turn takes 1, 3 or 5 matches. II. Madhu chooses to go first and takes 3 matches. 22. Two cars start travelling from different points and in opposite directions in a circuit race at a constant speed. How much

faster is one car going than the other? I. The distances from A to B, B to C and C to A are the same.

II. The cars cross for the first time at point A, the second time at point B, the third time at point C and the fourth time again at point A.

23. What was the score in each match of a three-team tournament in which the three teams (who participated) A, B and C got 3 points, 2 points and 1 point respectively? 2 points are awarded for a win and 1 for a draw.

I. Each team played once against each of the two other teams II. Each team scored one goal. 24. Pointing to a boy Neha said, ‘He is the son of my grandfather’s only child’. How is Neha related to that boy? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Aunt (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these 25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that

group? (1) Iron (2) Aluminum (3) Copper (4) Steel (5) Porcelain Directions (Q.Nos. 26 – 30): Read the following informations carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Six hijackers of different heights and expertise in different fields, viz. negotiation, determining human psychology, technical, aviation, piloting and planning, hijacked the Indian Airlines plane IC814.

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5' 11" tall Sunny Ahmed Kazi was either psychiatrist or negotiator. Ibrahim Athar and Sahid Akhtar Sayed were the tallest and shortest among the hijackers, though not respectively. The pilot and Shakir were neither tallest nor shortest among the hijackers. 6' tall hijacker, who was expert of planning was shorter than Mistri Zahur Ibrahim. The name of the sixth hijacker is still unknown but it was clear that he was either technician or pilot. The shortest hijacker was technician. Their heights were in arithmetic progression with difference 1" and minimum height 5' 9". Shahid Akhtar Sayed was psychiatrist.

26. The unknown hijacker had the height (1) 6’ 1” (2)5’ 10” (3) 5’ 9” (4) can’t be determined (5) None of these 27. Mistri Zahur Ibrahim was expert in the field of (1) Aviation (2) Planning (3) Psychology (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these 28. Who had the expertise in planning? (1) Mistri Zahur Ibrahim (2) Ibrahim Athar (3)Shakir

(4)Can’t be determined (5) None of these 29. Who was tallest among the hijackers? (1) Ibrahim Athar (2)Shahid Akthar Sayed (3)Mistri Zhur Ibrahim

(4)Can’t be determined (5) None of these 30. What was tallest among the hijackers? (1) 5’ 9” (2) 5’ 10” (3) 6’ 2” (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 31 – 35): A statement is given followed by three courses of action. A course of action is taken for improvement, follow – up etc. Read the statement carefully and pick the correct answer choice. 31. Statement: The twenty-third death due to the cold waive was reported in the town ‘X’ and amongst the decreased twenty were homeless people. – A report Courses of action: I. Municipal corporation of city X should waive the entry fee for night shelters during winter. II. New shelters should be built. III. The timing of night shelters should be extended. (1) I and III follow (2) I and II follow (3) II and III follow (4) All of these (5) None of these 32. Statement: Women constables are attacked by teasers when they are a part of the special team assigned to trap eve- teasers. Courses of action: I. Women should stop taking part in such campaign. II. The women constables should be given a strong back-up force consisting of men constables too. III. The women constables should be equipped with revolvers and sharp knives. (1) Only I follows (2) II and III follow (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) None of these 33. Statement: A painting worth Rs. 70 lakh of a reputed painter has been stolen from an exhibition of city Z. Courses of action: I. All painting lovers should be called into police station for an enquiry. II. Costly paintings should not be allowed for exhibition.

III. An operation for search should be started by the police after the lodging of an FIR. (1) Only I follows (2) II and III follow (3) I and III follow (4) All of these (5) None of these 34. Statement: when all the citizens of country ‘X’ were expecting excellence from their team in the forthcoming World Cup Cricket tournament, defeat in the recently concluded one-day series against country Y is a major jolt. Courses of action: I. Government should immediately set up an enquiry commission to find out the reason

for the dismal performance of the cricket team of country X. II. The players should be advised to concentrate on regular practice.

III. Poor performers should be replaced by good performers, who have shown their performance in domestic cricket.

(1) I and III follow (2) II and III follow (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) None of these 35. Statement: Free sales of foreign goods are harming indigenous industries. Courses of action: I. Import duties on foreign goods should be increased. II. Indigenous industries should be given patronage by the government. III. Foreign goods should be duplicated to fulfil domestic demands of foreign goods.

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(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow (3) Only II follows (4) All of the above (5) None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 36 – 40): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments in so far as they relate to the question. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answer (1) If only argument I is ‘strong’ (2) If only argument II is ‘strong’ (3) If either I or II is ‘strong’

(4)If neither I nor II is ‘strong’ (5) If both I and II are ‘strong’ 36. Statement: should Antipiracy Bill be brought in the Parliament? Arguments: I. Yes, This will help the film industry to fight against piracy as a result of which the industry will be financially strong.

II. No, We have already provisions such as Copyright laws etc. to fight against piracy. 37. Statement: Should Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) be entitled to dual citizenship? Arguments: I. Yes, This will bolster the intimacy of the NRIs with the Indian soil.

II. No, The move will not be fruitful for all NRIs because there is lack of provision for dual citizenship in many countries.

38. Statement: Should reputed private driver training schools be allowed to issue driving licences? Arguments: I. Yes, This will enable more and more people to get driving licences. II. No, This will increase the congestion of the vehicles on the road and will result in traffic jams too. 39. Statement: Should a trouble –torn state like Jammu and Kashmir release separatist leaders without any condition? Arguments: I. Yes, Release of separatist leaders will be useful as a goodwill gesture to make the situation peaceful in the state.

II. No, Unconditional release of the separatist leaders will aggravate the existing situation because these leaders have not shown any flexibility in their views.

40. Statement: Should power theft be made a cognizable offence? Arguments: I. Yes, People do not use power honestly. II. Yes, This will be a wise decision and will reduce anti – social activities in society.

TEST - II: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q. Nos. 41 – 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Sixty years after independence, India remains one of the unhealthiest places on earth. Millions of people still suffer from diseases that no longer exist almost anywhere else on the planet. What makes the picture even bleaker is the fact that India's economic boom has so far had little impact on health standards. Between 2001 and 2006, India's economy grew almost 50%, the country's biggest expansion in decades. Meantime, its child-malnutrition rate dropped just a single percentage point to 46%. This is worse than in most African countries. The incredible economic growth is having an impact in other ways by driving up rates of rich-world diseases such as obesity and encouraging high-end health services, some of which offer world-class care but remain far beyond the reach of the vast majority of Indians. The country brags about the skill of India's world-class doctors when its marketers sell India as a medical-tourism destination and an emerging health-service giant. The truth behind the glossy advertising is that: India is the sick man of Asia, malnourished and beset by epidemics of AIDS and diabetes and with spending levels on public health that even its Prime Minister has conceded are seriously lagging behind other developing countries in Asia. Part of the reason for the sorry state of India's medical services in the crumbling public health infrastructure—not fancy hospitals or equipment but basic services such as clean water, a functioning sewage system, power. The World Health Organization estimates that more than 900000 Indians die every year from drinking bad water and breathing bad air. Public health experts believe that India's vast population adds to the burden, overloading systems where they do exist and aiding the spread of disease in the many places they don't. Moreover for the past decade or so, funding for preventive public-health initiatives such as immunization drives and programmes to control the spread of

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communicable diseases has been cut. Experts also blame policies that concentrate on the latest scientific techniques and not enough on basics for the fact that millions of people in India are suffering and dying. Especially in rural India, health services are poor to non-existent. Current staff often doesn't turn up for work. Clinics are badly maintained and people end up seeking help from pharmacists who are not sufficiently trained. India needs more than a million more doctors and nurses. The government has also promised more money for rural health through its ambitious National Rural Health Mission. It will increase public-health spending from the current 1% of India's GDP to upto 3% by 2010, but that's still just half the rate at which countries with comparable per capita incomes such as Senegal and Mongolia fund their health sectors. If that is to change, we must realize that the link between wealth and good health isn't clear-cut. Poor states that have made efforts in child immunization over the past few years now have better coverage than richer states, where immunization has actually slipped. India needs to stop being complacent and prepare to spend on health but whenever it is mentioned there is always this debate about cost. Why don't we have the same debate when spend tens of billions on new arms? It's hard to be an economic superpower if you're too sick to work.

41. Why has the author referred to India “as one of the unhealthiest places on earth” ? I. There is no cure available for many of the diseases contracted in India. II. The Government has not clearly defined health standards. III. A large number of people in India suffer from diseases, which have been wiped out in other countries.

(1) II and III (2) Only III (3) I and III (4) All of these (5) None of these 42. What staff related problems does the rural healthcare system face?

I. High rate of absenteeism. II. Badly maintained clinics. III. Good Maintenance of equipment by staff. (1) II and III (2) I and III (3) Only II (4) All of these (5) None of these

43. What has contributed to the present ill health among Indians? (1) Disintegration of the public healthcare infrastructure

(2) Healthcare facilities are often monopolized by foreigners (3) Doctors in India do not conduct research in areas like diabetes which are affecting the population.

(4) The current government has taken no interest at all in public health initiatives (5) Indian economy is not growing. 44. What has the impact of high cost of healthcare in India been?

(1) The medical insurance sector is booming (2) Patients seek care only from those who are adequately qualified (3) The National Health Mission Scheme will be discontinued (4) The number of poor increases (5) The health care remains beyond the reach of the vast majority 45. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage? (1) Comparing India and Africa in terms of economic growth (2) Cautioning India to improve its healthcare system (3) Exhorting India to have higher growth rate which will benefit the healthcare sector

(4) Criticizing medical practitioners for their lack of concern for the health of the weaker sections of society (5) Advising India to maintain a lower economic growth and focus on healthcare. 46. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? I. Economic growth leads to provision of better healthcare services for all. II. Africa has cheaper and better healthcare facilities than India. III. The per capita income of India and Senegal is equivalent.

(1) Only I (2) II and III (3) Only III (4) All of these (5) I and II 47. Which of the following cannot be seen as a cause for the state of India’s healthcare system? (1) Vast population (2) Lack of basic services like water, power, etc

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(3) Inadequate waste management facilities (4) Lack of funding for preventive medical treatment like immunizations (5) Lack of funding from the World Health Organization 48. What impact has India’s economic growth had on the healthcare system? (1) Economic growth has resulted in higher prices of food and so malnutrition has risen. (2) India is spending more on healthcare than other developing countries (3) Excellent healthcare facilities are available at rates unaffordable by most Indians (4) India has become one of the most sought after medical tourism destinations in the world (5) Good healthcare services are available to all 49. What can be inferred from the statistics given for 2001 – 2006? (1) India has made strides in reducing its malnutrition rate

(2) During this period India managed to achieve a growth rate equivalent to that of developed countries (3) India managed to achieve high standards both in economic growth and in healthcare (4) Though India achieved a high economic growth rate, this did not positively impact the healthcare sector to a great extent (5) None of the above 50. How has the Prime Minister reacted to the crisis facing the healthcare sector? I. Is concerned about the spending levels on the healthcare system. II. Has decided to reduce expenditure on defence. III. Has encouraged private sector investment in healthcare. (1) II and III (2) Only II (3) Only I (4) I and III (5) None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 51-53): Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 51. Complacent (1) Pleasing (2) Self – Satisfied (3) Conforming (4) Willing (5) Rich 52. Sorry (1) Forgiveness (2) Apology (3) Repentant (4) Miserable (5) Pity 53. Reach (1) Extend (2) Span (3) Grasp (4) Distance (5) Achieve Directions (Q. Nos. 54 – 55): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 54. Bleaker (1) Hopeful (2) Warm (3) Cosy (4) Sheltered (5) Protected 55. Non - existent

(1) Hypothetical (2) Active (3) Realistic (4) Available (5) Fictional

Directions (Q. Nos. 56 – 60): In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words may be mis - spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (5), i.e., 'All correct'.

56. An incentive (1)/ can be as straightforward as praizing (2)/ an employee publicly (3)/ for his dedication (4)/ to the organization. All correct (5)

57. A company is establissed, (1)/ so that people can accomplish (2)/ something collectively (3)/ and make a contribution (4)/ to society. All correct (5)

58. Naina has made a massive (1)/ fortune (2)/ and earned (3)/ a reputation (4)/ as a talented stock broker. All correct (5)

59. Industries (1)/ like software and Pharmaceuticals have low production (2)/ costs and will beneficial (3)/ greatly from this initiative. (4)/ All correct (5)

60. We can ensure more business (1)/ investment in the region (2)/ if we have laws which guarantee (3)/ property rites.(4)/ All correct (5)

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Directions (Q. Nos. 61 – 65): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

A. However this is too narrow a definition for India. B. Most often economic reforms refer to opening the economy in terms of trade and investment and tax cuts. C. The sooner action is initiated the faster India will be able to attain its targeted growth rate. D. This is a standard definition of economic reforms and may be applicable to most countries. E. Economic reforms in India have to extend to reforming the public sector, transport, power, agriculture and infrastructure among other sectors. F. To identify these sectors and the necessary reforms required, there is a need for new thought leadership.

61. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

62. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F

63. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)E

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

65. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Directions (Q. Nos. 66 – 70): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrasegiven in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? if the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 66. Teaching farmers a few water harvesting techniques will ensure that farmers lack adequate water for irrigation.

(1) do not lack adequate (2) do not have adequate (3) lacking adequately (4) without adequate (5) No correction required

67. Awards are important because they recognize and reward individuals who have had a positive impact on society. (1) Of recognition and reward (2) of recognizing and rewarding (3) By recognizing rewards (4) It recognizes and rewards (5) No correction required

68. Very often we react to a crisis by pretence that it doesn't exist. (1) Pretending when (2) to pretend that (3) inpretence (4) By pretending that (5) No correction required

69. The report stated that countries women are educated have higher economic growth rates. (1) In countries (2) that countries where (3) there are countries that (4) countries that (5) No correction required

70. Economists have predicted that Asia's current economic problems are likely to be temporarily. (1) Likely temporary (2) like being temporary (3) likely to be temporary

(4) temporarily likely (5) No correction required

71. ……… is venison or any other meat that is sliced, dried, pounded and made into cakes; used by explorers and others when out of reach of fresh meat.

(1) Peat (2) Permian (3) Perch (4) Pemmican (5) None of these 72. ……. Is a sport in which people wearing parachutes are towed behind the speed boat so that they can reach enough

speed to ascend. (1) Paragliding (2) Parachuting (3)Paratowing (4) Parascending (5) None of these 73. Identify the odd pair.

(1)Adoke : Donga (2) Dacha : Grange (3)Rectory : Vicarage (4) Matador : Quoits (5) None of these

74. ‘Actor’ is to ‘Thespian’ as ‘Harlequin’ is to (1) Conjuror (2) Hypnotist (3) Comedian (4)Buskar (5) None of these

75. ‘Venom’ is to ‘Toxin’ as ‘Venial’ is to

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(1) Venal (2) Maleficence (3) Dislike (4) Gall (5) None of these 76. Which word best refers generally to the creation of difficulties or delays that hold people back from doing something? (1) Hamper (2) Impede (3) Hinder (4) Obstruct (5) None of these 77. Which word best refers to someone who is not giving full attention to what they are doing, typically in a situation where

this could result in harm to themselves or others? (1) Heedless (2) Carless (3) Thoughtless (4) Guileless (5) None of these

78. In which cluster, all the words ignore the existence of God? (1) Pantheism, Agnosticism, Atheism (2) Atheism, Agnosticism, Secularism (3) Deism, Secularism, Agnosticism (4) Atheism, Deism, Secularism (5) None of the above 79. Which set of words are only nouns?

(1) Analysis, praxis, thesis (2) Pompous, ridiculous, photographic (3) Penance, science, porous (4) Poisonous, vocalize, stupidity (5) None of the above 80. Which set of words are only adjectives? (1)Riduculous, native, psychologize (2) Protestant, spheroid, oratory (3) Astronomy, sympathy, privacy (4) Nation, action, privacy (5) None of the above

TEST - III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Q.Nos.81-85): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. 1 of 7777 12%of 1203 ?5

+ =

(1) 1250 (2) 125 (3) 1950 (4) 1800 (5) 1700 82. 32.1 26 27 25 ?× − × =

(1) 160 (2)15 (3) 250 (4) 55 (5) 110 83. 3480.9998 100.99 ?= −

(1) 40 (2) 39 (3) 52 (4) 42 (5) 44

84. 1 1 1 12 ?3 3 5 7+ + + =

(1) 4 (2) 132

(3) 122

(4) 3 (5) 5

85. 3 2 1 012 (1.2) (1.02) (1.002) ?+ + + = (1) 147 (2) 1731 (3) 1730 (4) 1733 (5) 148

Directions (Q.Nos. 86 – 90): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 86. 66, 64.5, 60.8, 54.9, 47.79, 38.66, 27.51, ?

(1) 16.44 (2) 15.54 (3) 14.34 (4) 13.24 (5) 12.14 87. 4, 104, 1320, 12204, 85876, ?

(1) 419380 (2) 429880 (3) 439780 (4) 449580 (5) 439880 88. 24.5, 32.2, 39.9, 47.6, 55.3, ?

(1) 59.9 (2) 59.7 (3) 58.3 (4) 57.7 (5) 56.7 89. 15, 18, 39.6, 134.64, 753.984, ?

(1) 6235.385 (2) 6336.280 (3) 6563.620 (4) 6785.856 (5) 6536.856 90. 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 28, 41, 58, ?

(1) 67 (2) 69 (3) 73 (4) 75 (5) 77 91. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs. 1754 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs. 1492.

What is the cost price of the article? (1) Rs. 1623 (2) Rs. 1523 (3)Rs. 1689 (4) Rs. 1589 (5) None of these

92. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 9 : 10 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 2580 more than the share of B, then what is the total amount of money of A and D together? (1) Rs. 5676 (2) Rs. 6192 (3) Rs. 6708 (4) Rs. 7224 (5)None of these

93. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘OPERATE’ be arranged?

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(1) 5040 (2) 720 (3) 2520 (4) 360 (5) None of these 94. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits number is less than the original number by 18. The sum of the two

digits of the number is 16. What is the original number? (1) 97 (2) 87 (3) 79 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

95. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus is 64 km/h and including the stoppages the speed of the bus is 48 km/h. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? (1) 12.5 min (2) 15 min (3) 10 min (4) 18 min (5) None of these

96. The difference between two numbers is 3 and the difference between their squares is 63. Which is the larger number? (1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

97. In a college election between two candidates, one candidate got 55 % of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total votes were 15200, what is the number of valid votes the other candidate got? (1) 7106 (2) 6840 (3) 8360 (4) 5814 (5) None of these

98. The simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 45000 at the end of 4 yr is Rs. 15300. What would be the approximate compound interest obtained on the same amount at the same rate of interest in the same period? (1) Rs. 18244 (2) Rs. 19500 (3) Rs. 16285 (4) Rs. 18566 (5) Rs. 17364

99. If all the fractions 3 1 8 4 2 5 5, , , , , and5 8 11 9 7 7 12

are arranged in the descending order of their values, which one will be the

third highest?

(1) 18

(2) 49

(3) 512

(4) 811

(5) None of these

100. By how much is 45

th of 1150 less than 56

th of 1248?

(1) 140 (2) 115 (3) 125 (4) 120 (5) None of these Directions (Q.Nos. 101-105): In each of the following questions, a question and three statements I, II and III are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not. 101. How much profit did the company earn in the year 2002?

I. The company earned 40% more profit in the year 2003 than that in the year 2001. II. The company earned a total profit of Rs. 20 crore in the years 2001 and 2002 taken together III. In the year 2003, the company earned 80% profit that in 2002. (1) Any two of I, II and III are sufficient (2) Either I and II or II and III are sufficient

(3) I and II or III are sufficient (4) All I, II and III are necessary to answer the question (5) The question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III 102. In an institute employing managers, observers and assistants, what is the monthly salary of an assistant?

I. Each observer gets Rs. 12000 per month more than an assistant. II. An observer and an assistant together get Rs. 32000 per month. III. The total salary per month of a manager and an observer is Rs. 57000. (1) Either I or II and III are sufficient (2) I and II are sufficient

(3) Any two of I, II and III are sufficient (4) All I, II and III are necessary to answer the question (5) The question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III 103. What is the circumference of semi – circle in cm? I. The area of semi – circle is half of the areas of parallelogram. II. The length of parallelogram is 1.5times the radius of the semi-circle. III. The difference between the length and breadth of parallelogram is 8 cm.

(1) II and III are sufficient (2) I and III are sufficient (3) I and II are sufficient (4) All I, II and III are necessary to answer the question

(5) The question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III 104. In a partnership business of A, B and C what profit did B get at the end of 2 yr? I. A and B started the business by investing in ratio 3 : 5. II. C joined after 6 months with Rs. 4 lakh.

III. After two years, A's share in profit wasRs. 60000 (1) I and III are sufficient (2) II and III are sufficient

(3) Either I or II and III are sufficient (4) All I, II and III are necessary to answer the question (5) The question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III 105. How many students secured atleast 60% marks in Mathematics in a class of 240 students?

I. 20% of the students in the class secured 80% and above marks in Mathematics. II. 80 students have secured more than 50% but less than 60% marks in Mathematics.

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III. The number of students who secured marks between 60% and 79% was equal to the number of students who secured less than 50% marks in Mathematics.

(1) I and II are sufficient (2) I and III are sufficient (3) II and III are sufficient (4) All I, II and III are necessary to answer the question (5) The question can’t be answered even with all I, II and III. Directions (Q.Nos. 106 – 110): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

Annual Turn-Over of Companies A and B both during the years (In lakh )

106. What is the per cent increase in turn –over of company A from year 2000 to 2001?

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these

107. What is the percent increase in total turn-over of both companies taken together from year 1997 to 1998?

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these

108. What is the difference between the average turn – over of company A and B (Rs. in lakh)?

(1) 48 (2) (3) (4) 35 (5) None of these

109. The turn-over of company A in 1998 is approximately what per cent of its total turn-over in all the years? (1) 22 (2) 16 (3) 23 (4) 15 (5) 20

110. What is the ratio between the turn-over of both companies together in the years 1996 and 1997 respectively? (1) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 111 – 115): Study the following Pie-diagrams carefully and answer the questions given below.

Number of students studying in different faculties In the years 2001 and 2002 from state X Year 2001 Total Students 35000 Year 2002 Total Students 40000

111. In which faculty there was decrease in the number of students from 2001 to 2002?

(1) None (2) Arts (3)Agriculture (4) Pharmacy (5) None of these

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112. What is the ratio between the number of students studying pharmacy in the years 2001 and 2002 respectively? (1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 7 : 12 (5) None of these

113. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of students of Engineering from the year 2001 to 2002? (1) 17 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 23 (5) 20

114. In the year 2001, the number of students studying arts and commerce together is what per cent of the number of students studying these subjects together in 2002? (1) 76 (2) 85 (3) 82 (4) 79 (5) None of these

115. In which of the following faculties the per cent increase in the number of students was minimum from 2001 to 2002? (1) Arts (2) Science (3) Commerce (4) Medicine (5) Engineering

Directions (Q.Nos. 116 – 120) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a school consisting of 2800 children, the ratio of girls to boys is 4 : 3 respectively. All the children have taken different hobby classes viz. Singing, Dancing, Painting and Cooking. 20% of the boys take Painting classes. The number of girls taking dancing classes is five-fourth of the number of boys taking the same. One-fourth of the girls take cooking classes. The total number of students taking cooking classes is 700. Two-fifth of the boys take singing classes and the remaining boys take dancing classes. The girls taking singings classes is twice the number of boys taking the same. The remaining girls take painting classes.

116. What is the respective ratio of boys taking painting classes to the boy taking singing classes? (1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 6 : 5 (4) 3 : 4 (5) None of these

117. The number of girls taking cooking classes is what per cent of the total number of children in the school? (Rounded off to the nearest integer) (1) 14 (2) 20 (3) 6 (4) 26 (5) None of these

118. The number of boys taking cooking classes is what per cent of the total number of children in the school? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 9.68 (2) 12.61 (3) 10.71 (4) 8.43 (5) None of these

119. What is the total number of children taking dancing classes? (1) 325 (2) 445 (3) 390 (4) 405 (5) None of these

120. What is the number of girls taking painting classes? (1) 116 (2) 15 (3) 125 (4) 28 (5) None of these

TEST – IV: GENERAL AWARENESS

121. A customer can carry out banking transactions through ATM (1) only during working hours of the bank, where the customer maintains the account (2) only from 06:00 am to 10:00 pm on weekdays and from 10:00 am to 2:00 pm on Sundays and holidays (3) only from 10:00 am to 5:00 pm (4) round the clock (i.e., 24 h a day and 365 days in a year) (5) None of the above

122. India is the world's third-biggest exporter of beef according to the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the OECD. The world's biggest exporter of beef is

(1) Australia (2) US (3) Brazil (4) China (5) Malaysia 123. Bank assurance helps the bank to build synergies between insurance business and distribution of insurance products,

because (1) customers of bank have more trust in bank/branch than a private agent (2) banks have wide network of branches (3) bank branches have ready customers requiring financial products/services (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

124. India, along with which of the following countries, became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) recently?

(1) Afghanistan (2) Pakistan (3) Iran (4) Saudi Arabia (5) Ukraine 125. Discount and Finance House of India Ltd.

(1) participates in call and short notice money market and interbank term deposit market both as borrower and lender (2) deals in Government of India dated securities from April 1992

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(3) (1) and (2) (4) deals in stock market (5) None of the above

126. Nitish Kumar was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Bihar for the sixth time recently. Who among the following is holding the additional charge of Bihar Governor at present?

(1) Kalyan Singh (2) Ram Naik (3) Mridula Sinhaa (4) Keshari Nath Tripathi (5) Om Prakash Kohli 127. Export-Import Bank of India has been set up for the purposes of

(1) functioning as a specialized institution for providing credits to foreign trade on international competitive terms (2) offering advisory services to exporters (3) providing refinance facilities in regard to export finance extended by commercial banks and other financial institutions (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

128. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently took over the administration of which of the following insurers?

(1) Sahara India Life Insurance (2) Birla Sun Life (3) Max Life (4) Bharti Axa (5) Tata AIG 129. A close-ended fund means

(1) the corpus is of fixed size with a definite redemption period (2) listing on stock exchanges provides easy liquidity

(3) the market price is always below the Net Asset Value (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

130. The Ministry of Earth Sciences foundation day is celebrated every year on (1) 17 Jul (2) 21 Jul (3) 25 Jul (4) 27 Jul (5) 31 Jul 131. Under the provisions of Section 35 (b) (ii) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, inspection of branches of Indian banks

situated abroad is to be carried out by (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Exim Bank (3) Ministry of External Affairs (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

132. ___________ has been appointed as the new Department of Economic Affairs Secretary. (1) Subhash C Garg (2) BP Sharma (3) NK Sinha (4) Yudhvir Singh Malik (5) Aruna Sundararajan 133. Statutory Liquidity Ratio means

(1) the maximum percentage of demand and time liabilities up to which bank can extend the advances. (2) maintenance of liquid assets by banks in the form of cash, gold and unencumbered approved securities equal to not less the 25% of their total demand and time deposit liabilities under the provisions of Section 24 of Banking

Regulation Act (3) to keep liquid cash (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

134. Who among the following has been appointed as Secretary to President-elect Ram Nath Kovind? (1) Jigmet Takpa (2) Bishwanath Sinha (3) AR Sule (4) Sanjay Kothari (5) Jayant N Khobragade 135. A new private sector bank

(1) will be subject to the directives, instructions, guidelines and advices given by the Reserve Bank of India (2) will be governed by the provisions of RBI Act, 1934, Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and other relevant statutes (3) would be governed by existing branch licensing policy whereby banks could open branches including at urban/metro centers without prior approval of RBI once capital adequacy and prudential accounting norms are satisfied (4) All of the above

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(5) None of the above 136. The DRDO recently successfully test fired the "Nag" missile. It is a/an (1) anti-aircraft missile (2) anti-submarine missile (3) type of torpedo (4) shoulder-launched mortar (5) anti-tank missile 137. What are the major activities of NABARD?

(1) It provides refinance to State Cooperative Banks. Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks, etc (2) It coordinates the activities of different agencies in the field of agriculture and rural credit (3) It improves absorptive capacity of credit delivery system (4) None of the above (5) All of the above

138. The govt launched a mobile app named "Aarambh" recently which is aimed facilitating (1) pollution monitoring (2) weather forecasting (3) digitising govt work (4) road maintenance (5) linking Aadhar with all govt services 139. Merchant Banking connects

(1) services rendered by Banks for merchants and traders (2) catering to the needs of corporate customers for raising finance (3) special scheme for sanction of term loan to merchants (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

140. Sorin Grindeanu was ousted as the Prime Minister in which of the following countries recently after a no-confidence vote?

(1) Romania (2) Tanzania (3) Estonia (4) Nigeria (5) South Sudan 141. The following are the schemes of assistance extended by Exim Import Bank of India.

(1) It extends as assistance to exporters engaged in export of plant, equipment, machinery and related services by way of medium term loans for the period exceeding six months. This credit assistance enables exporters to extend deferred credit to the foreign buyer (2) It extends financial assistance to Indian promoters who promotes overseas joint ventures to support their equity investments through overseas investment finance (3) It extends overseas buyer's credit to foreign importers for import of Indian capital goods and related services (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

142. The book titled "Crisis Within: On Knowledge and Education in India" is authored by who among the following? (1) Aravind Adiga (2) Fred Dallmayr (3) Kalyan Chakravarty (4) GN Devy (5) Geoffrey Davis 143. Exim Bank under its Foreign Currency Preshipment Credit (FCPC), Exim Bank gives short term foreign currency finance to

eligible exports for procurement of inputs and to commercial banks for on-lending to export customers; the terms of finance are (1) interest rate on finance is maximum 2% over LIBOR (London Inter Bank Offer Rate) (2) maximum period of finance is 180 days from the date of disbursement (3) for commercial banks, loans availed from EXIM Bank are exempted from the requirement of Cash Reserve Ratio,

Statutory Liquidity Requirement and Incremental Credit-Deposit Ratio requirements (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

144. Who among the following is the present Union Minister of Food Processing Industries? (1) Uma Bharti (2) Upendra Kushwaha (3) Jitan Ram Manjhi (4) Harsimrat Kaur Badal (5) Ram Vilas Paswan 145. Financial system consists of two broad categories, normally

(1) Scheduled and non-scheduled commercial banks (2) Public sector and private sector banks (3) Organized sector and un-organized sector (4) Reserve Bank of India and Govt. of India

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(5) None of the above 146. PM Narendra Modi recently inaugurated the former President, Dr APJ Abdul Kalam's memorial at Pei Karumbu in

Rameswaram in (1) Kerala (2) Karnataka (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Tamil Nadu (5) Telangana 147. The main objective of Land Development Bank is

(1) providing investment credit for agriculture (2) providing crop loans to the farmers (3) developing allied activities in rural and semi-urban areas (4) creating good social relations in the residents of rural and semi-urban areas (5) None of the above

148. Manushi Chhillar, who won the 54th Femina Miss India World 2017, hails from (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Rajasthan (3) Karnataka (4) Punjab (5) Haryana 149. ATM stands for

(1) Automatic Teller Machine (2) Any Time Money (3) All Time Money (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

150. Whose name was recently cleared for appointment as the new Attorney General of India? (1) Prashant Bhushan (2) Harish Salve (3) K Parasaran (4) Gopal Subramanium (5) KK Venugopal 151. Which of the following products of banking services is at maturity stage?

(1) Home loans (2) Debit cards (3) savings bank account (4) All of these (5) None of these

152. The "Pandharichi Wari" is the 700 years old culture of which state in which devotees of Lord Vitthala called Varkari trace the route to Pandharpur?

(1) Gujarat (2) Odisha (3) Maharashtra (4) West Bengal (5) Tamil Nadu 153. The activities of Unit Trust of India, inter alia, include

(1) Sale and purchase of units (2) Investment in securities (3) Short term and long term debt financing (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

154. India and which country recently signed a pact to connect both the countries by waterways? (1) Maldives (2) Sri Lanka (3) Myanmar (4) Bangladesh (5) Vietnam 155. For availing Home Banking Facility, a client should have followings

(1) Personal Computer (2) Modem (3) Telephone line (4) All of these (5) None of these

156. Which of the following companies completed the acquisition of Yahoo recently? (1) Oracle (2) Verizon (3) Google (4) Microsoft (5) Facebook 157. National Housing Bank was established under National Housing Bank Act, 1987 and started functioning from 9th July,

1988. On the recommendations made by a high level group headed by (1) Dr C Rangarajan (2) Dr Bimal Jalan (3) Mr. Narasimham (4) Mr. IG Patel (5) None of these

158. The govt launched Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana for elderly people recently. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the scheme?

(1) The scheme provides an assured effective return of equivalent to 8.30 per annum. (2) The scheme is exempted from Goods and Services Tax. (3) Loan up to 75 per cent of purchase price shall be allowed after 3 policy years. (4) On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years, the purchase price will be paid to the beneficiary. (5) None of these 159. RBI is empowered to prescribe Cash Reserve Ratio ranging between

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(1) 5% to 20% of net demand and time liabilities (2) 3% to 15% of net demand and time liabilities (3) 3% to 14% of net demand and time liabilities (4) anyone of the above (5) None of the above

160. Which state govt has announced free education for girls in govt schools and colleges from Nursery to Ph.D? (1) Haryana (2) Punjab (3) Gujarat (4) Rajasthan (5) Bihar

TEST – V: COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE 161. The computer stores its programme and data in its

(1) ALU (2) Control unit (3) HDD (4) Cache memory (5) All of these 162. What is an ellipse?

(1) It is a marked menu item or command button used to open a dialog box (2) It is a punctuation mark consists of three consecutive periods (...) (3) (1) and (2) (4) A curve (5) None of the above

163. A group of 8 bits is known as a (1) byte (2) kilobyte (3) binary digit (4) megabit (5) None of these

164. Soft page breaks (1) are induced by the user (2) are inserted by word automatically at the end of the page (3) can be deleted (4) are the one to show end of paragraph (5) None of the above

165. Pressing the function keys one enter a payment voucher (1) F4 (2) F2 (3) Fl (4) F5 (5) None of these

166. Which one of the following is not an Internal DOS command? (1) CLS (2) PROMPT (3) DEL (4) CHKDSKS (5) None of these

167. VIRUS stands for (1) Very Important Record User Searched (2) Verify Interchanged Result Until Source (3) Virtual Information Resource Under Seize (4) Very Important Resource Under Search (5) None of the above

168. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas? (1) Standard Toolbar (2) Menu Bar (3) Title Bar (4) Formula Bar (5) None of these

169. Maximum bandwidth supported by any channel is (1) 20 MB (2) 1 GB (3) 2 GB (4) 100 GB (in lab conditions) (5) None of the above

170. Ethernet, LAN, Token Ring and Toke Bus are types of (1) WAN (2) communication channels (3) LAN (4) physical medium (5) None of the above

171. Is the list of print jobs waiting to be sent to a particular printer? (1) Print list (2) Job queue (3) Print requests (4) Print queue (5) None of these

172. Name an advanced language with which you can create new reports and screens? (1) VATL (2) TDL (3) DLR (4) Any of these (5) None of these

173. In its default settings, Excel Margin tabs are set at (1) 2.5 inch for top and bottom margins (2) 1.9 inch for the left and right margins (3) 1.3 inch for header and footer (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

174. MS-DOS is usually supplied on a (1) hard disk (2) cartridge tape (3) CD ROM

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(4) floppy disk or diskettes (5) None of these 175. In reality, internet protocol recognizes only

(1) a postal mail address (2) a location of the host (3) an IP address (4) server (5) None of the above

176. A device that generates the periodic signals used to control the timing of all CPU operations. (1) COM (2) Collate (3) Chip (4) Clock (5) None of these

177. Traffic in a VPN is not (1) invisible from public networks (2) logically separated from other traffic (3) accessible from unauthorized public networks (4) restricted to a single protocol in IP Sec (5) None of the above 178. Word allows user to import graphics from

178. Word allows user to import graphics from (1) the library which comes bundled with Word (2) anywhere in the computer (3) various graphics format like gif, bmp, png, etc (4) only gif format

(5) None of the above 179. Files with VXD extension represent

(1) normal text files (2) application programmes (3) device drivers (4) executable files (5) None of the above

180. Multi-purpose window which opens nearly for everything is (1) main desktop (2) explorer window (3) browser window (4) error window (5) None of these

181. Devices that let the computer communicate with you ___ (1) input (2) output (3) type (4) print (5) None of these

182. Devices that allow you to put information into the computer (1) input (2) output (3) type (4) print (5) None of these

183. Eight bits of data ____ (1) otabit (2) word (3) type (4) print (5) None of these

184. The secret code that given you access to some programs _______ (1) clue (2) cue (3) password (4) help (5) None of these

185. The different styles of lettering in a word processing program _____ (1) font (2) calligraphy. (3) Writing (4) manuscript (5) None of these

186. Any letter, number or symbol found on the keyboard that you can type into the computer _______ (1) Output (2) character (3) type (4) print (5) None of these

187. A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action and tell the computer what to do next. (1) Scanner (2) questionnaire (3) prompt and dialog box (4) Information seeker (5) None of these

188. Choices are referred to as _____ (1) options (2) exit (3) boot (4) folder (5) None of these

189. Anything written on the screen (1) cursor (2) text (3) folder (4) boot (5) None of these

190. Lets you leave a screen or program ____ (1) boot (2) programs (3) exit (4) text (5) None of these

191. Instructions that tell the computer what to do. Another name for software (1) programs (2) CPU (3) options (4) folder (5) None of these

192. A program which helps create written documents and lets you go back and same corrections as necessary ___________ (1) Spreadsheet (2) personal writer (3) word printer

(4) word processor (5) None of these 193. A place that a user can create of files ____

(1) cursor (2) test (3) folder (4) boot (5) None of these

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194. Start or restart the computer ____ (1) exit (2) kick (3) boot (4) kick-start (5) None of these

195. A blinking indicator that shows you where you next action will happen ____ (1) CPU (2) cursor (3) tool bar (4) boot (5) None of these

196. Commands at the top of a screen such; FILE- EDIT-FONT-TOOLS to operate and change things within programs _______ (1) menu bar (2) tool bar (3) user friendly (4) word processor (5) None of these

197. CD-ROM stands for (1) Central Processing unit (2) CD- remote open mouse (3) CD resizer or minimize (4) CD- read only memory (5) None of these

198. To change written work already done (1) fine (2) edit (3) cut (4) close (5) None of these

199. When your computer stops working suddenly, it is referred to as a __________. (1) crash (2) die (3) death (4) penalty (5) None of these 200. A key that will erase information from the computer's memory and characters on the screen

(1) edit (2) delete key (3) dummy out (4) trust key (5) None of these

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KEY

1 (2) 2 (5) 3 (2) 4 (5) 5 (1) 6 (5) 7 (1) 8 (3) 9 (2) 10 (3)11 (4) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (3) 17 (1) 18 (3) 19 (3) 20 (1)21 (5) 22 (2) 23 (5) 24 (1) 25(5) 26 (2) 27 (1) 28 (3) 29 (2) 30 (5)31 (1) 32 (3) 33 (5) 34 (5) 35 (3) 36 (1) 37 (1) 38 (4) 39 (3) 40 (4)41 (2) 42 (5) 43 (1) 44 (5) 45 (2) 46 (3) 47 (5) 48 (3) 49 (4) 50 (3)51 (2) 52 (4) 53 (3) 54 (1) 55 (4) 56 (2) 57 (1) 58 (5) 59 (3) 60 (4)61 (2) 62 (1) 63 (4) 64 (3) 65 (5) 66 (1) 67 (5) 68 (4) 69 (2) 70 (3)71 (4) 72 (4) 73 (1) 74 (3) 75 (1) 76 (3) 77 (1) 78 (2) 79 (1) 80 (2)81 (5) 82 (1) 83 (4) 84 (4) 85 (2) 86 (3) 87 (2) 88 (5) 89 (4) 90 (5)91 (1) 92 (3) 93 (3) 94 (1) 95 (2) 96 (1) 97 (4) 98 (5) 99 (5) 100 (4)

101 (4) 102 (2) 103 (5) 104 (1) 105 (4) 106 (3) 107 (1) 108 (2) 109 (5) 110 (3)111 (3) 112 (4) 113 (5) 114 (2) 115 (4) 116 (5) 117 (1) 118 (3) 119 (4) 120 (2)121.(4) 122.(3) 123.(4) 124.(2) 125.(3) 126.(4) 127.(4) 128.(1) 129.(4) 130.(4) 131.(1) 132.(1) 133.(2) 134.(4) 135.(4) 136.(5) 137.(4) 138.(4) 139.(2) 140.(1) 141.(4) 142.(4) 143.(4) 144.(4) 145.(3) 146.(4) 147.(1) 148.(5) 149.(1) 150.(5) 151.(3) 152.(3) 153.(5) 154.(4) 155.(4) 156.(2) 157.(1) 158.(5) 159.(2) 160.(2)161 (3) 162 (5) 163 (1) 164 (2) 165 (4) 166 (2) 167 (3) 168 (1) 169 (4) 170 (2)171 (2) 172 (3) 173 (1) 174 (1) 175 (3) 176 (1) 177 (3) 178 (3) 179 (3) 180 (3)181 (2) 182 (1) 183 (4) 184 (3) 185 (1) 186 (2) 187 (3) 188 (1) 189 (2) 190 (3)191 (1) 192 (4) 193 (3) 194 (1) 195 (2) 196 (4) 197 (4) 198 (2) 199 (3) 200 (2)

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SOLUTIONS (Q. Nos. 1-3)

1. B speak all five language. Hence, the option (2) is correct. 2. D only speak Spanish Hence all the above option (5) are correct. 3. Espeak Italian language. Hence the option (2) is correct. 4. D only speak Spanish. Hence, None of the above speak Spanish, option (5) is correct. 5. AD the pair of persons who speak neither English nor Italian. (Q.Nos. 6 and 7)

The number of handshakes and kisses add up to 55. Each member of Choudhary family said good-bye to each member of Thakur family. If we multiply the number of members of both families, the result should be 55. There are two possibilities. I. 55 = 11 5 (One family with 11 members and other one with 5). II. 55 = 55 1 (Which is not possible, since a family is not formed by only one person) We now analyze the handshakes following the same procedure. There are two possibilities I. 21 = 7 3 (7 men in one family and 3 in the other) II. 21 = 21 1 (Which is not possible, because none of these families has so many members, as seen above) Therefore, one family is formed by 7 men and 4 women and the other by 3 men and 2 women.

6. 7 + 3 = 10 7. 4 + 2 = 6 (Q.Nos. 8-12)

Word arrangement machine first arranges words having first letter vowel in alphabetical order, after that words having first letter consonant will be arranged in alphabetical order. Alternately the numbers are choosen such that -greatest, lowest, 2nd greatest, 2nd lowest and so on.

8. Step II after 89 she 38 wins 11 olympic 22 the 7 Step III after 89 olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7 Step IV after 89 olympic 7 she 38 wins 11 22 the Step V after 89 olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22

9. eat 22 ice cream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast. Hence, the option (2) is correct. 10. Input elephant 17 free open 41 27 danger 15

Step I elephant 41 17 free open 27 danger 15 Step II elephant 41 open 17 free 27 danger 15 Step III elephant 41 open 15 17 free 27 danger Step IV elephant 41 open 15 danger 17 free 27 Step V elephant41 open 15 danger 27 17 free Step VI elephant 41 open 15 danger 27 free 17

11. 15 will be at 4th from the left in step V for the given input in above question. 12. Danger will be 3rd to the right of '41' in step IV for the given input in question 10. 13. Clearly option (3) is correct because the statement follow conclusions II and III. 14. Clearly statement follows only II conclusion. Hence, the option (2) is correct. 15. Here, after looking all the statements we found that the term 'books' have one 100% notation in statement IV and this

term is common with statement I and II. So, two possible conclusions are 'Some slates are pencils' and 'Some slates are pens'. So, conclusion III follow. No conclusion can start with 'All', so others will be eliminated.

16. Clearly, both conclusion not follow. Hence, option (3) is correct. 17. Statement follows only conclusion I. Hence, the option (1) is correct.

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18. Statement follows only conclusion II. Hence, the option (3) is correct. 19. From I Our answer is 'Yes' because from here, the minute hand will take 30 min to reach 6 and the hour hand will take

an entire hour. From II Our answer is 'No'. There are two possible times in this situation: approx 5:15 (the minute hand takes 15 min to reach 6 and the hour hand takes 45) and approx 3 : 45 (the min hand takes 45 min to reach 6 and the hour hand takes 2 hand 15 min, which is 135 min.)

20. From I If a month starts and ends with the same day of the week, it must have a complete number of weeks plus one more day. The only possible month is a 29 day February. From II In order to add up to 38, it can only be the highest possible number for the last Monday of a month (31) and the highest for the first Thursday of a month (7). Therefore, both last month and the current must have 31 days. The only two 31 day months in a row in the same calendar year are July and August. If both the months are from the same calendar year, August is our answer. But the statement does not say that both the months are from the same calendar year. Note that December and January are also the months in a row which have 31 days each.

21. From I and II together Every player takes an odd number of matches per play. After the first player goes, there will always be an odd number of matches left. After the second player goes, there will always be an even number of matches left. Therefore, the second player, i.e., Alka, is the winner.

22. From II The first crossing took place at point A. Consider A as a new starting point. Do the same for every crossing point. Since they drove at consistent speeds, the distances from A to B, B to C and C to A are the same. After point A, one car must have driven twice the distance as the other to reach B at the same time. Therefore, one goes twice as fast as the other.

23. From I and II together The team A could win 3 points only by winning one match and tying another. Since they only scored one goal, the results must be 1 -0 and 0-0. The team C tied one and lost the other match. The scores must have been 1-1 and 0-1. Their tied game must have been against the team B. So, team A beat team C (1-0) and team A tied with team B (0-0).

24.

Hence, Neha is the sister of boy. 25. All the rest are metal. Hence, Porcelain is correct answer ( Q.Nos.26-30)

Height Hijackers Expertise 5' 11" SAK Psychiatriist/ Negotiator …..(i) (tallest/shortest) IA ……(ii) (Shortest/tallest) SAS ……(iii) tallest/shortest (x) Pilot ……(iv-a) 6' Shakir ……(iv-b) (6' + ) MZI Planning ……(v) unknown Technician or Pilot ……(vi) Shortest technician ……(vii) 5' 9" , 5' 10" , 5' 11", 6' , 6' 1" , 6' 2 " are heights in ascending order SAS Psychiatriist …..(ix) from (i) and (ix) 5' 11" SAK Negtiator ………. (A) Now , using (viii), (iii) and (ix) 6'2" SAS Psychiatriist …..(B) Now , from (ii) and ( viii)

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5' 9" IA Technician ………….(C ) Again, from (vii) and ( C ) 5' 10" unknown Ppilot ……….(D) Now fron (v), (vi) and from confirmed results 6' shakir planning 6' 1" MZI Aviation expert All underlined are the only possibilities left

26. 5' 10" had the height of the unknown hijacker. Hence, option (2) is correct. 27. MistriZahur Ibrahim was expert in the field of Avaiation 28. Shakir had the expertise in planning. 29. ShaidAkhtarSayed was tallest among the hijackers. 30. 6' 1" was the height of MistriZahur Ibrahim. Hence, option (5) is correct. 31. I is advisable because this will facilitate the homeless to fight against cold wave. II is a is also advisable because it

will provide shelter to some more people. III is also advisable because extending timing of night shelter will give some more relief to the homeless.

32. I is not advisable because it will adversely affect the campaign. II is advisable because it will bolster support to the women constable. III is not advisable because cases of casualty will increase

33. I is impractical. II is ridiculous. Hence, neither I nor II follows. But III follows because it is the right way of action. 34. Only I and II follow. I is a advisable because it will be helpful in taking measures to make reform in the performance of

the team. II is also advisable because practice makes a man perfect. III is not advisable since it is a matter of World Cup and newcomers will take some time to adjust themselves.

35. I does not follow because it is not appropriate in a globalized, WTO-regulated world. II follows, however, III is an act of piracy and therefore needs to be condemned.

36. Only I is strong. II is not strong because we do not know whether the existing provisions are sufficient or not. 37. I is strong because intimacy of NRIs with Indian soil will be helpful for Indian economy. II is a weak argument because a

move can't be restricted only because the move is not giving benefit to all of a kind. 38. I is weak because it is not desirable. Moreover, is falsely assumes that Government authorities can't cope with the

demand of driving licenses. II is weak because it is not logical. It wrongly assumes that such a move will lead to a spurt in the number of vehicles.

39. I is strong because it will encourage non-violence and will make the environment conducive for peace. II is also strong because effort from only one side will not necessarily useful in desirable result. But the state can't be both more and less peaceful at the same time. Hence, either I or II follows.

40. Neither argument I nor II is strong for statement. Hence, option (4) is correct.

81. ? ≈ 1555 + 144 = 1700 82. ? ≈ 834 – 675 = 160 83. 3480.9998 100.99 ?= − ⇒ 59 = 101 - ? ∴? = 42

84. 1 1 1 1 3162 33 3 5 7 105+ + + = =

85. 3 2 1 012 (1.2) (1.02) (1.009)+ + + = 1728 + 1.44 + 1.02 + 1 ≈ 1731 86. The series is 66 – 1.5 = 64.5 64.5 – 3.7 = 60.8 60.8 – 5.9 = 54.9 54.9 – 7.11 = 47.79 47.79 – 9.13 = 38.66 38.66 – 11.15 = 27.51 27.51 – 13.17 = 14.34 Digit of before decimal and after decimal both are increased digit by2. 87. The series is

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2(4 2 ) 13 104+ × =

2(104 4 ) 11 1320+ × =

2(1320 6 ) 9 12204+ × =

2(12204 8 ) 7 85876+ × =

2(85876 10 ) 5 429880+ × =

88. The series is 7 3.5 24.5× = 7 4.6 32.2× = 7 5.7 39.9× = 7 6.8 47.6× = 7 7.9 55.3× =

7 8.10 56.7× = 89. The series is

15 1 15× = 15 1.2 18× = 18 2.2 39.6× = 39.6 3.4 134.64× = 134.64 5.6 753.984× = 753.984 9.0 6785.856× =

90. The series is 1 + 1 =2 2 + 3 = 5

5 + 5 = 10 10 + 7 = 17 17 + 11 = 28 28 + 13 = 41 41 + 17 = 58 58 + 19 = 77

91. Suppose the cost price of the article isRs. x. ⇒ 1754 – x = x – 1492 ⇒ 2x = 1754 + 1492 ⇒ 2x = 3246 ∴x = Rs. 1623 92. Suppose sum of money divided among A, B, C and D is Rs. 3x, Rs. 4x, Rs. 9x and Rs. 10x respectively. 9x – 4x = 2580 ⇒ 5x = 2580

∴ 2580x 5165

= =

Total amount of money of A and D together = 3x + 10x = 13x = 13 × 516 = Rs. 6708 93. There are 7 letter in the word OPERATE whereas E has come twice.

Number of permutation = 7!2!

7 6 5 4 3 2!2!

× × × × ×=

= 7 6 5 4 3× × × × = 2520 94. Suppose original number is (10x + y). and x + y = 16

and (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 18 ⇒ 10x + y – 10y – x = 18

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⇒ 9x – 9y = 18 ⇒ x – y = 2 Add Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii),

x+ y = 16

x y 22x 18− ==

∴ x = 9 and y = 7

Required Number = 10x + y = 90 + 7 = 97 95. Due to stoppages difference = 64 – 48 = 16km

Required time for stoppages = 16 6064

× = 15min

96. Suppose the numbers are x and y. Where, x > y According to question, 2 2x y 63− = ……(i) x – y = 3 ……(ii) Dividing by Eq. (ii) and (i),

2 2x y 63x y 3−

=−

x + y = 21 ……(iii) Adding Eqs. (ii) and (iii), x – y = 3

x y 212x 24+ ==

x = 12 ∴ Larger number = 12

97. Number of invalid votes = 1515200 2280100

× =

Number of valid votes = 15200 – 2280 = 12920 Number of valid votes getting by other candidate

(100 55)12920100−

= ×

4512920 5814100

= × =

98. SI 100 15300 100R 8.5% perannum

P T 45000 4× ×

= = =× ×

trCI P 1 1100

= + −

48.545000 1 1100

= + −

( )445000 1 0.085 1 = + −

[ ]45000 1.3858587 1= − 45000[0.3858587]= = 17364.64 = Rs. 17364

99.

3 1 8 4 2 5 5, , , , , ,5 8 11 9 7 7 12

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3 10.600, 0.1255 8= =

8 40.727, 0.44411 9

= =

8 40.727, 0.44411 9

= =

2 50.285, 0.7147 7= =

5 0.41612

=

∴ Decreasing order

8 5 3 4 5 2 1, , , , , ,11 7 5 9 12 7 8

So third highest is 35

100. Required Difference

= 5 4of1248 of11506 5

−

= 1040 – 920 = 120 101. Taking all statements together Let the profit earned by company in 2001 = Rs. x and in 2002 = Rs. y ∴ Profit earned in 2003 = 14x, x + y = Rs. 20 crore ……..(i) From statement III,

⇒ 8014x y100

= ×

⇒ 4 1x y5 14

= ×

∴4x y7

= ………..(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we can get the required profit. 102. From statement I, Observer = Assistant + Rs. 12000 ……… (i) From statement II, Observer + Assistant = Rs. 32000 ……… (ii) From statement III, Manager + Observer = Rs. 57000

We can find the salary of an assistant from Eqs. (i) and (ii). 103. The question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III. 104. From statements I and III, we can get the share of B in the profit. 105. The question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III. 106. Turn-over of company in the year 2000 → Rs. 300 Lakh 2001 → Rs. 500 Lakh ∴ Increase = 500 – 300 = Rs. 200 Lakh

∴ Percentage increase

200 2100 66 %300 3

= × =

107. Turn-over of companies A and B together in year 1997 = 200 + 400 = Rs. 600 Lakh Turn – over of companies A and B together year 1998 = 400 + 300 = Rs. 600 Lakh Turn-over of companies A and B together in your 1998

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= 400 + 300 = Rs. 700Lakh Increase = 700 – 600 = Rs. 100 Lakh ∴Percentage increase

100 100600

= ×

= 216 %3

108. Average turn – over of company ‘A’ during the given years

250 200 400 450 300 5006

+ + + + +=

=Rs. 2100

6Lakh

Average turn-over of company ‘B’ during the given years

350 400 300 500 350 5506

+ + + + +=

2450Rs.6

= Lakh

∴ Required difference

2450 2100 3506 6 6

= − =

1Rs.58 lakh3

=

109. Total turn-over of company ‘A’ for all years =Rs. 2100 lakh Turn-over of company ‘A’ in the year 1998 = Rs. 400 Lakh

Required percentage = 400 100 19.0476 20%2100

× = =

110. Total turn-over of both companies in 1996 = 250 + 350 = Rs. 600 lakh Total turn-over of both companies in 1997 = 200 + 400 = Rs. 600 lakh ∴ Required ratio = 600 : 600 = 1 : 1 (Q.Nos. 111-115)

Number of students in different facilities Subject Year 2001 Year 2002 Arts 4200 4400 Commerce 7700 9600 Science 8400 8800 Agriculture 2450 2000 Engineering 6300 7600 Pharmacy 2100 3600 Medicine 3850 4000

111. The number of students decreased from 2450 to 2000 in Agriculture. 112. Number of students studying Pharmacy in 2001 = 2100 Number of students studying Pharmacy in 2002 = 3600 ∴ Required ratio = 2100 : 3600 = 7 : 12 113. Difference = 7600 – 6300 =1300 ∴ Required percentage increase =

1300 100 20.63%6300

× =

114. Total number of students in Arts and Commerce faculties in 2001 = 4200 + 7700 = 11900 Total number of students in Arts and Commerce faculties in 2002 = 4400 + 9600 = 14000 ∴ Required percentage

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= 11900 100 8514000

× =

115. Percentage increase in the faculty of

Arts 4400 4200 100 4.7614200−

→ × =

Commerce 9600 7700 100 24.6757700−

→ × =

Science 8800 8400 100 4.768400−

→ × =

Engineering 7600 6300 100 20.638400−

→ × =

Pharmacy 3600 2100 100 71.422100−

→ × =

Medicine 4000 3850 100 3.8963850−

→ × =

Hence, the percentage increase in Medicine was minimum. (Q.Nos.116-120)

Total Singing Dancing Painting Cooking Boys 1200 480 180 240 300 Girls 1600 960 225 15 400

116. Required ratio = 240 : 480 = 1 : 2

117. Required per cent = 400 100100 14%2800 7

× = =

118. Required per cent = 300 100 10.71%2800

× =

119. Number of children in dancing classes = 180 + 225 = 405 120. Number of girls taking painting classes = 15

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