kvs (tgt/prt) mock test - 05 - home – career and ... | | | page 3 hindi language directions...

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www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com | www.careerpower.in | www.ctetadda.com Page 1 KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 05 Time Allowed: 2 ½ Hours Maximum Marks: 150 ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funs Z’k INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. OMR mÙkj i= bl ijh{kk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i= fudky dj i`"B&1 ,oa i`"B&2 ij /;ku ls dsoy uhys ckWy is u ls fooj.k Hkjsa A 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue ball point pen only. 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k ?kaVs gS ,oa ijh{kk es a 150 iz’u gSA dks bZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA 2. The test is of 2½ house duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking 3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy uhys ckWy ikW baV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA 3. Use Blue Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. 4. ,l iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS A. ;g lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr] mÙkj i= ds i`"B-2 ij Nis ladsr ls feyrk gSA ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh ijh{kk la[;k vkSj mÙkj i= la[;k feyrs gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks ijh{kkFkhZ nwljh iz’u iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i= ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqa jr voxr djk,aA 4. The OCDE for this Booklet is A, Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the answer sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that you test booklet no. and answer sheet no. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the test booklet and the answer sheet. 5. bl iqfLrdk es a ik¡p Hkkx 1, 2, 3, 4 vkSj 5 gSa] ftuesa 150 oLrqfu"B iz’u gSa] tks iz R;sd 1 va d dk gS% 5. This test booklet has five part 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, consisting of 150 objective type questions, each carrying 1 mark: Hkkx-1 % vaxz sth ¼iz- 1 ls iz- 15½ Part – 1 : English (Q. 1 to Q. 15) Hkkx-2 % fganh ¼iz- 16 ls iz- 30½ Part – 2 : Hindi (Q. 16 to Q. 30) Hkkx-3 % djs ZaV vQs;lZ ¼iz- 31 ls iz- 70½ Part – 3 : Current Affairs (Q. 31 to Q. 70) Hkkx-4 % rdZ’kfä ifj{k.k ¼iz- 71 ls iz- 110½ Part – 4 : Reasoning (Q. 71 to Q. 110) Hkkx-5 % f’k{k.k vfHk{kerk ¼iz- 111 ls iz- 150½ Part – 5 : Teaching Aptitude (Q. 111 to Q. 150) ;fn vuqokn esa fdlh Hkh izdkj dh dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks rks vaxszsth okys ikB dks gh lgh ekuk tk;sxkA 6. In case of any ambiguity in translate, the English version will be deemed authentic. ,Q dk;Z ijh{kk iqfLrdk es a bl iz;ks tu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij djs aA 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test booklet for the same. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i= ij gh vafdr djs aA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djs aA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr ja td dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA 8. The answer are to be recorded on the OMR answer sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answer.

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    KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 05

    Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 150

    ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZk INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

    1. OMR mkj i= bl ijh{kk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk iqfLrdk

    [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mkj i= fudky dj i`"B&1 ,oa i`"B&2 ij /;ku ls dsoy uhys ckWy isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA

    1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue ball point pen only.

    2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2 ?kaVs gS ,oa ijh{kk esa 150 izu gSA dksbZ _.kkRed

    vadu ugha gSA

    2. The test is of 2 house duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking

    3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mkj i= ij fukku yxkus ds fy,

    dsoy uhys ckWy ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA

    3. Use Blue Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

    4. ,l iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS A. ;g lqfufpr dj ysa dh bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr]

    mkj i= ds i`"B-2 ij Nis ladsr ls feyrk gSA ;g Hkh lqfufpr dj ysa dh

    ijh{kk la[;k vkSj mkj i= la[;k feyrs gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks ijh{kkFkhZ

    nwljh izu iqfLrdk vkSj mkj i= ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqajr voxr

    djk,aA

    4. The OCDE for this Booklet is A, Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the answer sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that you test booklet no. and answer sheet no. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the test booklet and the answer sheet.

    5. bl iqfLrdk esa ikp Hkkx 1, 2, 3, 4 vkSj 5 gSa] ftuesa 150 oLrqfu"B izu

    gSa] tks izR;sd 1 vad dk gS%

    5. This test booklet has five part 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, consisting of 150 objective type questions, each carrying 1 mark:

    Hkkx-1 % vaxzsth iz- 1 ls iz- 15 Part 1 : English (Q. 1 to Q. 15)

    Hkkx-2 % fganh iz- 16 ls iz- 30 Part 2 : Hindi (Q. 16 to Q. 30)

    Hkkx-3 % djsZaV vQs;lZ iz- 31 ls iz- 70 Part 3 : Current Affairs (Q. 31 to Q. 70)

    Hkkx-4 % rdZkf ifj{k.k iz- 71 ls iz- 110 Part 4 : Reasoning (Q. 71 to Q. 110)

    Hkkx-5 % fk{k.k vfHk{kerk iz- 111 ls iz- 150 Part 5 : Teaching Aptitude (Q. 111 to Q. 150)

    ;fn vuqokn esa fdlh Hkh izdkj dh dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks rks vaxszsth okys ikB

    dks gh lgh ekuk tk;sxkA

    6. In case of any ambiguity in translate, the English version will be deemed authentic.

    ,Q dk;Z ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij djsaA 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test booklet for the same.

    lHkh mkj dsoy OMR mkj i= ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mkj /;kuiwoZd

    vafdr djsaA mkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA

    8. The answer are to be recorded on the OMR answer sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answer.

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    GENERAL ENGLISH

    Direction : In Question nos. 1 to 5, you have a brief passages with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

    PASSAGE The story is told of a certain carter whose wagon was stuck in the mud. Finding no means to get over his difficulty he prays to Hercules, the God of strength, to come to his rescue. Answering his prayer Hercules exhorted him to put his own shoulder to the wheel. The carter took the advice. He was soon able to pull the wagon out of the rut. There is no doubt that men and women are born to perform certain duties. In the honest and sincere performance of these taskslies the realization of the meaning of life. The world is a busy beehive. There is no place in it for drones. The duties assigned to us by Nature must be performed by us ourselves single-handedly or with the help of others. Those who are weak or cowardly look to others for help. This habit of looking to others for assistance is harmful because it weakens our capacity for work. It makes man too much dependent on others. It takes away all his initiatives from him and kills self-realization. All these are the things which count a lot in achieving success. Without them man is a moral and physical wreck. He commands no respect from fellow men. Apart from this, the habit of depending on others usually leads one to failure and disappointment. One feels bitter. One expects help and if it does not reach him in time he feels sad and miserable. Repeated disappointments make man cynical. But altogether different destiny awaits him who has learnt the lesson of self-realization. Before his strong determination and his will to conquer all dangers, obstacles and impediments simply disappear. Lives of great men who reached excellence in life stand out as noble examples of what self-realization can achieve. It is customary for most of us to pray to God for divine help in all our undertakings. In doing so, our aim is to propitiate God. But, we should never forget that Gods blessings are reserved only for those who are themselves up and doing. God is always on the side of the willing workers. God will help us if we are prepared to help ourselves. 1. What should be kept in mind when we pray to God for

    divine help ? a) We should pray with all seriousness and sincerity b) We must purify our mind before prayer c) We should surrender our ego and pride to d) God will help those who help themselves 2. What are the characteristics of the self- reliant man, as

    mentioned in the passage. a) He is kind and noble b) He is honest and reactive c) He is purposeful and expressive d) He is determined and strong-willed 3. The meaning of life is realized when one a) derives satisfaction in the divine company b) controls ones desires and wants c) carries out the assigned tasks with honesty and sincerity

    d) develops the habit of procrastination 4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the

    word exhorted as used in the passage. a) urged b) helped c) appreciated d) denounced

    5. Why, according to the passage, is the habit of looking to others for assistance is bad ?

    a) it makes us over-cautious and self- indulgent b) it snatches away our initiative and destroys self-reliance c) it makes us unkind and dishonest d) it does not adequately boost our collaborative spirit Directions : In Question nos. 6 to 10, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet. 6. A state of being married to only one person at a

    particular time a) polygamy b) monogamy c) polyandry d) patrimony

    7. The study of physical life or living matter a) physiology b) biology c) zoology d) psychology

    8. A book of names and addresses a) diary b) manual c) directory d) catalogue

    9. An associate in crime a) criminal b) friend c) accomplice d) accompaniment

    10. An inscription on a tomb a) espionage b) epilogue c) epitaph d) elegy

    Directions : In Question nos. 11 to 15, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet. 11. Owing to the choking atmosphere of city life, public

    parks and gardens have become .......... necessity of a modern city. a) recurring b) delectable c) praiseworthy d) indispensable

    12. Human beings are ........... drawn towards the unknown and the unfamiliar. a) proactively b) vehemently c) meticulously d) instinctively

    13. We daily hear ............. tales of murder and robbery in running trains. a) gruesome b) profound c) dangerous d) preposterous

    14. Jagdish has a habit of bullying with .........., smaller and weaker boys in the class. a) comfort b) disbelief c) fortification d) impunity

    15. A sound body is the most ............. treasure a man can cherish. a) alarming b) durable c) splendid e) engineered

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    HINDI LANGUAGE

    Directions (16-20):

    16. a) b)

    c) d)

    17. a) b)

    c) d)

    18. a) b)

    c) d)

    19. a) b)

    c) d)

    20. a) b)

    c) d)

    Directions (21-30):

    , (a), (b), (c),(d) (e)

    ,

    (21) (22)

    (23) (24)

    (25) (26)

    (27) (28)

    (29)

    (30)

    21. a) b)

    c) d)

    22. a) b)

    c) d)

    23. a) b)

    c) d)

    24. a) b)

    c) d)

    25. a) b)

    c) d)

    26. a) b)

    c) d)

    27. a) b)

    c) d)

    28. a) b)

    c) d)

    29. a) b)

    c) d)

    30. a) b)

    c) d)

    CURRENT AFFAIRS

    31. Telecom Ministry is believed to have cleared how much

    4G spectrum trading deal between service providers Bharti Airtel and Aircel recently? a) Rs 22,000 crore b) Rs 3,500 crore c) Rs 10,500 crore d) Rs 16,000 crore

    32. The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee conferred the 51st Jnanpith Award on the renowned writer _________. a) Kiran Desai b) Chetan Bhagat c) Arundhati Roy d) Raghuveer Chaudhari

    33. The fourth edition of the India International Coir Fair (IICF) 2016 is scheduled between July 15 and 18 at the Codissia Trade Fair Complex in which of the following cities? a) Chennai b) Madurai c) Coimbatore d) New Delhi

    34. Bollywood superstars Shahrukh Khan and Akshay Kumar are among the worlds highest-paid celebrities of 2016, according to an annual list by Forbes.Which superstar has topped the list with an earning of $170 million? a) Lady Gaga b) Tom Cruise c) Brad Pitt d) Taylor Swift

    35. Cairn Energy has sought $ 5.6 billion in compensation from the Indian government for raising a retrospective tax demand of Rs. 29,047 crore on 10-year old internal

    reorganisation of its India unit. Cairn Energy is based in which of the following countries? a) France b) USA c) Germany d) UK

    36. In one of the most significant decisions in recent times, Indian Hockey Team named senior goalkeeper _________ as the captain of the national team for the Rio Olympics, removing long-time skipper Sardar Singh. a) Akashdeep Singh b) Harmanpreet Singh c) Nikkin Thimmaiah d) PR Sreejesh

    37. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is a) Solenostele b) Protostele c) Amphiphloic Siphonostele d) All of these

    38. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is a) Root like b) Stem like c) Both root and stem like d) Rhizoid like

    39. The Selaginella shows a) Large and small leaves arranged spirally b) All leaves large c) All leaves small d) All of these

    40. Which State police has launched four mobile apps for timely intervention into emergency situations. The four applications are Pratisaad Ask, Police Mitra, Vahanchoritakrar and Railway helpline? a) New Delhi b) West Bengal

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    c) Kerala d) Maharashtra 41. Which of the following Private sector Bank has acquired

    100 per cent stake in Tamil Nadu-based Grama Vidiyal Microfinance, a leading Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in the country, for an undisclosed sum? a) Bandhan Bank b) Kotak Mahindra Bank c) IDFC Bank d) ICICI Bank

    42. India and which country have signed a landmark deal for the construction of a 1,320 megawatt coal fired power plant, the biggest project under bilateral cooperation that would mark the transition from electricity export to generation level? a) Bhutan b) Bangladesh c) Myanmar d) Nepal

    43. Budget carrier GoAir has signed an initial pact with Airbus for buying 72 A320neo aircraft recently. Airbus is based in which country? a) France b) Japan c) Russia d) Italy

    44. Government is making all efforts to boost the Housing Finance Sector to ensure the goal of affordable Housing for all by which year? a) 2019 b) 2022 c) 2020 d) 2030

    45. Which of the following Indian organizations has called for restarting negotiations for India's Free Trade Agreements with UK and European Union (EU)? a) NABARD b) RBI c) SEBI d) FICCI

    46. The recent era is a) Cenozoic b) Mesozoic c) Proterozoic d) Archeozoic

    47. Fossils are found in a) Igneous rocks b) Quartz c) Soil d) Sedimentary rocks

    48. Reserve food material in fungi is a) Glycogen b) Starch c) Sucrose d) Maltose

    49. Which is rootless fern ? a) Pteris b) Dryopteris c) Salvinia d) Adiantum

    50. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has revised downward its global economic growth forecast for next year after the British people voted to leave the European Union. By how much percent will the world economy expand in 2017 as told by the Fund? a) 2.1 percent b) 1.3 percent c) 3.4 percent d) 5.8 percent

    51. Name the noted Indian hockey player who passed away at the age of 56 due to multiple organ failure. a) Mohammad Shahid b) Kishan Lal c) Lal Bokhari d) Charanjit Singh

    52. Gypsum, Saltpetre, Pyrite and Haematite all can be found in a) sedimentary rocks b) igneous rocks c) matamorphic rocks d) sedimentary and igneous rocks

    53. Platinum, diamond, iron, silver, gold, copper, manganese, lead and zinc are found in ....rock. a) sedimentary b) metamorphic

    c) igneous d) all of these 54. India is all set to host the BRICS Policy Planning Dialogue

    on 26th July 2016 at......... a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh b) Mumbai, Maharashtra c) Kolkata, West Bengal d) Patna, Bihar

    55. Which of the following state governments will celebrate the bicentenary of the 1817 Paika revolt next year, which many historians claim to be the first war of India's Independence? a) Kerala b) Maharashtra c) Tamil Nadu d) Odisha

    56. Which of the following Banks along with The Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) have signed the MoU to hammer out a detailed plan for promotion of rail ticketing activities including Internet ticketing and the unreserved ticketing system? a) State Bank of India b) IDBI Bank c) ICICI Bank d) Punjab National Bank

    57. By which of the following state governments, the Central Water Commission has rejected Odishas objection against the construction of barrages on the Mahanadi upper catchment? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh c) Telangana d) Chhattisgarh

    58. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, CCEA has approved construction of a new dry dock within which of the following Shipyards Limited at a cost of 1 thousand 7 hundred 99 crore rupees recently? a) Naval Dockyard b) Hindustan Shipyard Limited c) Cochin Shipyard Limited d) Goa Shipyard Limited

    59. Global rating agency Standard & Poors (S&P) removed ratings on senior bonds issued by the Bahrain branch of which Bank from the negative watch list and also affirmed the BBB- rating on the instrument? a) ICICI Bank b) HDFC Bank c) Axis Bank d) SBI

    60. Which of the following is a club moss ? a) Selaginella b) Equisetum c) Lycopodium d) None of these

    61. Raphe in Marsilea is present in a) Female gametophyte b) Sporocarp c) Sporophyte d) Male gametophyte

    62. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a a) Mesophyte b) Xerophyte c) Hydrophyte d) Epiphyte

    63. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of a) Cycas b) Pinus c) Ephedra d) Gnetum

    64. Pinus is a a) Tree b) Shrub c) Herb d) None of these

    65. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ? a) Similar substrate b) Glycolysis c) Pyruvic acid d) All of these

    66. Turpentine oil is obtained from a) Coal b) Petroleum

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    c) Cedarwood d) Pinus 67. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in

    their experiments of photosynthesis ? a) Chlamydomonas b) Chlorella c) Chara d) Volvox

    68. Which one of the following statement is false? a) The sea-floor is older than the land. b) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling molten matter. c) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by the agency of water.

    d) Stalactites and Stalagmites are deposits of lime found it caves.

    69. The parent materials of soils are derived more frequently from a) igneous rocks b) metamorphic rocks c) sedimentary rocks d) biological action

    70. The formation of metamorphic rocks takes place a) always in the liquid state b) always in the solid state c) sometimes in the solid and sometimes in the liquid state d) always by chemical recombination process

    REASONING ABILITY

    Direction (77-76): Select the related letters/word / number from the given alternative. 71. 13 : 45 :: 17 : ?

    a) 41 b) 57 c) 31 d) 73

    72. 15 : 35 :: 63 : ? a) 110 b) 143 c) 99 d) 159

    73. 56 : 72 :: 110 : ? a) 132 b) 99 c) 121 d) 110

    74. CAMP : XZNK :: ? : HZOG a) SALT b) ALSO c) SOUR d) ARMY

    75. HOUSE : WALLS :: WALLS : ? a) CLAY b) SAND c) BRICKS d) CEMENT

    76. ABCD : MNOP :: CFIL : ? a) ORUX b) CRUX c) ORUY d) DROY

    Directions (77-86): find the odd word /number/letters from the given alternatives. 77. a) FGQR b) GJPS

    c) HIYZ d) NOUV 78. a) BDFG b) MNRS

    c) GHDP d) AEIO 79. a) B b) E

    c) I d) M 80. a) India b) Pakistan

    c) China d) Asia 81. a) GH b) EF

    c) ED d) MN 82. a) 3 & 5 b) 13 & 17

    c) 29 & 31 d) 41 & 43 83. a) 2, 3, 5, 8 b) 4, 5, 7, 10

    c) 7, 8, 9, 11 d) 10, 11, 13, 16 84. a) FCE b) JGI

    c) ROP d) ZWY 85. a) 1089 b) 529

    c) 961 d) 1681 86. a) FH b) JL

    c) PR d) UY Directions (87-89): select the missing number/letters from the given options.

    87. BDF, HJL, NPR, TVX, ? a) VWC b) ZBD c) VXZ d) XZB

    88. 3, 16, 45, 96, 175, 288, ? a) 441 b) 397 c) 387 d) 291

    89. 5, 23, 59, 119, 209, 335, ? a) 311 b) 435 c) 503 d) 610

    90. A man starts from his home, walks 4 km towards North, takes a left turn and walks for 10 km. He then takes a left turn and walks for 15 km before taking a left turn again and walking for 10 km. The man finally takes a left turn and walks 2 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction the man should walk to reach the home again? a) 6 km toward North b) 14 km towards East c) 12km towards South d) 9 km towards North

    91. In a certain language, CLIMB is written as PYVZO. How is FAKE written in same language? a) SNVS b) SMXR c) SNVR d) SNXR

    Directions (92-93): which of the following word will appear second last in the dictionary order? 92. a) Kettle b) Kinster

    c) Kirpke d) Ketucce 93. a) Great b) Gamble

    c) Grand d) Gulp 94. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the

    father of D, how D is related to A? a) Nephew b) Brother c) Sister d) Cant Say

    95. Directions: In the question two statements are given which are followed by four conclusions (A), (B), (C)and (D). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements. Statements: All Alice are in wonderland. No hat is Alice. Conclusions: I. Some wonderland are hats. II. All wonderland are hats. III. Some wonderland are Alice. IV. No wonderland are Alice. a) only (I) and (II) follows b) only (I), (II) and (III) follows c) only (II), (III) and (IV) follows

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    d) only (III) follows 96. Directions: In the question two statements are given

    which are followed by four conclusions (a), (b), (C)and (d). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements. Statements: All bikes are scooters. All cycles are scooters. Conclusions: I. All bikes are cycles. II. Some cycles are bikes. III. No cycle is bike. IV. All scooters are bikes a) only (I) and (III) follows b) either (I) or (II) follows c) only (II) and (IV) follows d) None follows

    Directions (97-100): Find the odd word/letter/numbers /figure from the given responses. 97. a) Reward : Punishment b) Object : Permit

    c) Sharp : Blunt d) Cold : Cool 98. a) ZVRN b)UQMJ

    c) SOKG d) TPLH 99. a) 52, 68 b) 63, 77

    c) 64, 80 d) 50, 66 100.a)Bangalore b)Guwahati

    c) Bhopal d) Ranchi 101.In the year 1988, Independence Day was celebrated on

    Wednesday, and then this day was celebrated in 1989 on which day? a)Monday b)Tuesday c)Thursday d)Friday

    102.In this question you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following symbols.

    - , + = =, x = , - = a)6 2 3 8 4 +13 b)6 2 3 8 4 -13 c)6 2 3 8 4 13 d)62 3 8 4 +13

    103. Find the missing number form the given responses. 6 15 20 8 4 5 3 5 20 ___ ____ __ 102 130 ?

    a)45 b)240 c)405 d)120

    104.If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can BHARATI be coded? a)9657539 b)9567538 c)9657538 d)9567568

    105.If in a code language PARENT is written as BDFGJK and CHILDREN is written as MOXQUFGJ, how is REPRINT written in that code? a)FGBFXGD b)BGBFXJK c)FGBUXJK d)FGBFXJK

    106.In the following question a group of capital letters is given and its code equivalent is given as one of the answer choices. Select the correct code for NITER A N G E R T I M U P 5 1 0 9 6 2 7 3 8 4 a)71936 b)72196 c)17926 d)17296

    107.A word given in capital letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word. INTERVENTIONISM. a)MENTION b)TERRORISM c)INTERIM d)MISTER

    108.In a joint family there are father, mother, 3 married sons and one unmarried daughter. Of the sons, 2 have 2 daughters each, and one has a son. How many female members are there in a family? a)2 b)3 c)6 d)9

    Direction (109-110): Words which cannot be formed from a given Word : In these questions, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. 109. International

    a) Terminal b) Latter c) Oriental d) Rationale

    110.Depreciate a) Credit b) Pride c) Peace d) Reprieve

    TEACHING APTITUDE

    111. Teachers should conduct reviews before testing for all

    of the following reasons EXCEPT

    a)to refresh students on objectives taught early in the

    unit.

    b)to provide a final opportunity to practice important

    behaviors and skills.

    c)to teach students the answers to specific questions

    that will likely appear on the test.

    d)to provide students an opportunity to ask questions

    about concepts that are unclear.

    112. Which of the following is the most important

    preparation for formal achievement testing?

    a)Providing students with good instruction

    b)Teaching students testwise skills

    c)Providing students with chapter reviews contained in

    textbooks

    d)Using effective oral questioning techniques during

    reviews

    113. Discipline problems are most likely to occur during

    a)lecture and seatwork. b)questioning.

    c)transitions. d)wait time.

    114. Pedagogical cycles are initiated by teachers about what

    percent of the time?

    a)50 b)75

    c)85 d)95

    115. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education

    Level is :

    a) To prepare students to pass examination

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    b) To develop the capacity to take decisions

    c) To give new information

    d) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

    116. Which of the following statement is correct ?

    a) Reliability ensures validity

    b) Validity ensures reliability

    c) Reliability and validity are independent of each other

    d) Reliability does not depend on objectivity

    117. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?

    a) Ram got 45 marks out of 200

    b) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English

    c) Shyam got First Division in final examination

    d) All the above

    118. Research can be conducted by a person who :

    a) has studied research methodology

    b) holds a postgraduate degree

    c) possesses thinking and reasoning ability

    d) is a hard worker

    119. Which of the following testing scenarios would result in

    invalid test results?

    a)A teacher conducts a review session that covers many

    of the same questions that will appear on the actual

    test.

    b)Although Jake hasn't mastered the content

    knowledge, he uses good testwise strategies and

    performs well on the test.

    c)A teacher includes test questions that were covered

    in textbook content but weren't addressed during

    actual classroom instruction.

    d)All of these.

    120. Academic learning time is

    a)engaged time in which students show a high success

    rate.

    b)time in which students are actively involved in a

    subject.

    c)allocated time with academic subjects.

    d)time scheduled for an academic subject.

    121. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    a) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of

    the thesis

    b) Researcher must possess analytical ability

    c) Variability is the source of problem

    d) All the above

    122. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?

    a) Observation b) Historical

    c) Survey d) Philosophical

    123. Research can be classified as :

    a) Basic, Applied and Action Research

    b) Quantitative and Qualitative Research

    c) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental

    Research

    d) All the above

    124. Team teaching has the potential to develop :

    a) Competitive spirit

    b) Cooperation

    c) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each

    other

    d) Highlighting the gaps in each others teaching

    125. Which of the following is the most important

    characteristic of Open Book Examination system ?

    a) Students become serious.

    b) It improves attendance in the classroom.

    c) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.

    d) It compels students to think.

    126. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages

    the use of maximum senses ?

    a) Problem-solving method b) Laboratory method

    c) Self-study method d) Team teaching method

    127. Which educational researcher analyzed effective

    classroom management, identifying such skills as

    withitness, overlapping, and avoidance of

    fragmentation?

    a)Jacob Kounin b)Arno Bellack

    c)Mary Budd Rowe d)Robert Slavin

    128. Who studied and analyzed the pedagogical cycle?

    a)Jacob Kounin b)Arno Bellack

    c)Jere Brophy d)John Goodlad

    129. Which of the following options are the main tasks of

    research in modern society ?

    (I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.

    (II) to discover new things.

    (III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.

    (IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the

    investigations/sources with objectivity.

    a) IV, II and I b) I, II and III

    c) I and III d) II, III and IV

    130. The research that applies the laws at the time of field

    study to draw more and more clear ideas about the

    problem is :

    a)Applied research b)Action research

    c)Experimental research d)None of these

    131. Which of the following statement is correct ?

    a) Communicator should have fine senses

    b) Communicator should have tolerance power

    c) Communicator should be soft spoken

    d) Communicator should have good personality

    132. An effective teacher is one who can :

    a) control the class

    b) give more information in less time

    c) motivate students to learn

    d) correct the assignments carefully

    133. One of the following is not a quality of researcher :

    a) Unison with that of which he is in search

    b) He must be of alert mind

    c) Keenness in enquiry

    d) His assertion to outstrip the evidence

    134.Education is a powerful instrument of :

    a)Social transformation

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    b)Personal transformation

    c)Cultural transformation

    d)All the above

    135. A teachers major contribution towards the maximum

    self-realization of the student is affected through :

    a)Constant fulfilment of the students needs

    b)Strict control of class-room activities

    c)Sensitivity to students needs, goals and purposes

    d)Strict reinforcement of academic standards

    136.Research problem is selected from the stand point of :

    a)Researchers interest b)Financial support

    c)Social relevance

    d)Availability of relevant literature

    137. Which one is called non-probability sampling ?

    a)Cluster sampling b)Quota sampling

    c)Systematic sampling

    d)Stratified random sampling

    138. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in :

    a)Survey method b)Historical studies

    c)Experimental studies d)Normative studies

    139. Field-work based research is classified as :

    a)Empirical b)Historical

    c)Experimental d)Biographical

    140. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should

    not possess one of the following qualities :

    a) Appropriateness b) Measurability

    c) Comparability d) Flexibility

    141. Books and records are the primary sources of data in :

    a) historical research b) participatory research

    c) clinical research d) laboratory research

    142. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate

    to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst male and

    female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006 ?

    a)Cluster sampling b)Systematic sampling

    c)Quota sampling

    d)Stratified random sampling

    143. Which of the following is a teaching aid ?

    a) Working Model of Wind Mill

    b) Tape Recorder

    c) 16 mm Film Projector d) All the above

    144. The main aim of teaching is :

    a) To develop only reasoning

    b) To develop only thinking

    c) Both (A) and (B)

    d) To give information

    145. The quality of teaching is reflected :

    a) By the attendance of students in the class

    b) By the pass percentage of students

    c) By the quality of questions asked by students

    d) By the duration of silence maintained in the class

    146. The present annual examination system :

    a) promotes rote learning

    b) does not promote good study habits

    c) does not encourage students to be regular in class

    d) All the above

    147. Which of the two given options is of the level of

    understanding ?

    (I) Define noun.

    (II) Define noun in your own words.

    a) Only I b) Only II

    c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

    148. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous

    population, the most suitable sampling method is :

    a)Cluster Sampling b)Stratified Sampling

    c)Convenient Sampling d)Lottery Method

    149. The process not needed in experimental research is :

    a)Observation

    b)Manipulation and replication

    c)Controlling d)Reference collection

    150. A research problem is not feasible only when :

    a)it is researchable

    b)it is new and adds something to knowledge

    c)it consists of independent and dependent variables

    d)it has utility and relevance

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