mcq pattern

Taking Multiple Choice Exams Studying for a multiple choice exam requires a special method of preparation distinctly different from an essay exam. Multiple choice exams ask a student to recognize a correct answer among a set of options that include 3 or 4 wrong answers (called distracters ), rather than asking the student to produce a correct answer entirely from his/her own mind.

For many reasons, students commonly consider multiple choice exams easier than essay exams. Perhaps the most obvious reasons are that:

The correct answer is guaranteed to be among the possible responses. A student can score points with a lucky guess.

Many multiple choice exams tend to emphasize basic definitions or simple comparisons, rather than asking students to analyze new information or apply theories to new situations.

Because multiple choice exams usually contain many more questions than essay exams, each question has a lower point value and thus offers less risk.

Despite these factors, however, multiple choice exams can actually be very difficult and are in this course. Consider that:

Because multiple choice exams contain many questions, they force students to be familiar with a much broader range of material than essay exams do.

Multiple choice exams also usually expect students to have a greater familiarity with details such as specific dates, names, or vocabulary than most essay exams do. Students cannot easily "bluff" on a multiple choice exam.

Finally, because it is much more difficult for a teacher to write good multiple choice questions than to design essay questions, students often face higher risks due to unintended ambiguity. [This is NOT the case with Vogeler's tests!]

To prepare for a multiple choice exam, consider the following steps:

Begin studying earlyMultiple choice exams tend to focus on details, and you cannot retain many details effectively in short-term memory. If you learn a little bit each day and allow plenty of time for repeated reviews, you will build a much more reliable long-term memory.

Make sure that you identify and understand thoroughly everything that your instructor emphasized in class.Pay particular attention to fundamental terms and concepts that describe important events or features, or that tie related ideas and observations together. These are the items that most commonly appear on multiple choice exams.

As you study your class notes and your assigned readings, make lists and tables.Concentrate on understanding multi-step processes, and on ideas, events, or objects that

form natural sequences or groupings. Look for similarities and differences that might be used to distinguish correct choices from distracters on an exam.

If your textbook highlights new vocabulary or key definitions, be sure that you understand them. Sometimes new words and concepts are collected at the end of a chapter. Check to be sure that you have not left any out by mistake.

Do not simply memorize the book's definitions. Most instructors will rephrase things in their own words as they write exam questions, so you must be sure that you really know what the definitions mean.

Brainstorm possible questions with several other students who are also taking the course. Practice on sample questions, if you have access to a study guide or old exams.

Answering Multiple Choice QuestionsThere are many strategies for maximizing your success on multiple choice exams. The best way to improve your chances, of course, is to study carefully before the exam. There is no good substitute for knowing the right answer. Even a well-prepared student can make silly mistakes on a multiple choice exam, however, or can fall prey to distracters that look very similar to the correct answer.

Here are a few tips to help reduce these perils:

Before you begin taking the exam, enter all pieces of required information on your answer sheet

If you are so eager to start that you forget to enter your name and ID number, your results may never be scored. Remember: your instructor will not be able to identify you by handwriting or similar text clues.

Always cover up the possible responses with a piece of paper or with your hand while you read the stem, or body of the question.

Try to anticipate the correct response before you are distracted by seeing the options that your instructor has provided. Then, uncover the responses.

If you see the response that you anticipated, circle it and then check to be sure that none of the other responses is better.

If you do not see a response that you expected, then consider some of the following strategies to eliminate responses that are probably wrong.

None of these strategies is infallible. A smart instructor will avoid writing questions for which these strategies work, but you can always hope for a lapse of attention.

1. Responses that use absolute words, such as "always" or "never" are less likely to be correct than ones that use conditional words like "usually" or "probably."

2. "Funny" responses are usually wrong. 3. "All of the above" is often a correct response. If you can verify that more than one of the

other responses is probably correct, then choose "all of the above." 4. "None of the above" is usually an incorrect response, but this is less reliable than the "all

of the above" rule. Be very careful not to be trapped by double negatives. 5. Look for grammatical clues. If the stem ends with the indefinite article "an," for example,

then the correct response probably begins with a vowel. 6. The longest response is often the correct one, because the instructor tends to load it with

qualifying adjectives or phrases. 7. Look for verbal associations. A response that repeats key words that are in the stem is

likely to be correct. 8. If all else fails, choose response (b) or (c). Many instructors subconsciously feel that the

correct answer is "hidden" better if it is surrounded by distracters. Response (a) is usually least likely to be the correct one.

If you cannot answer a question within a minute or less, skip it and plan to come back later. Transfer all responses to the answer sheet at the same time, once you have marked all questions on your exam. (If you try to do several things at once, you increase the probability of making a mistake. Saving the relatively mindless job of filling in bubbles until the last step reduces the probability of making silly errors.)

Be sure that you have filled the appropriate bubbles carefully IN PENCIL.

our instructor will probably never take a close look at your answer sheet, so if you fail to fill in bubbles completely or if you make stray marks, only the computer will notice, and you will be penalized. Erase any accidental marks completely.

Take the time to check your work before you hand in the answer sheet.

Unlike an essay exam, on which you may later appeal a grade on the grounds that the instructor misunderstood your response, a multiple choice exam offers you no opportunity for "partial credit." If you filled the wrong bubble, your answer is 100% wrong.

Strategies for answering difficult questions:

1. Eliminate options you know to be incorrectIf allowed, mark words or alternatives in questions that eliminate the option

2. Give each option of a question the "true-false test:"This may reduce your selection to the best answer

3. Question options that grammatically don't fit with the stem4. Question options that are totally unfamiliar to you5. Question options that contain negative or absolute words.

Try substituting a qualified term for the absolute one.

For example, frequently for always; or typical for every to see if you can eliminate an option

6. "All of the above:"If you know two of three options seem correct, "all of the above" is a strong possibility

7. Number answers:toss out the high and low and consider the middle range numbers

8. "Look alike options"probably one is correct; choose the best but eliminate choices that mean basically the same thing, and thus cancel each other out

9. Double negatives:Create the equivalent positive statement

10. Echo options:If two options are opposite each other, chances are one of them is correct

11. Favor options that contain qualifiersThe result is longer, more inclusive items that better fill the role of the answer

12. If two alternatives seem correct,compare them for differences, then refer to the stem to find your best answer

Guessing:

Always guess when there is no penaltyfor guessing or you can eliminate options

Don't guess if you are penalized for guessingand if you have no basis for your choice

Use hints from questions you knowto answer questions you do not.

Change your first answerswhen you are sure of the correction, or other cues in the test cue you to change.

Remember that you are looking for the best answer,not only a correct one, and not one which must be true all of the time, in all cases, and without exception.

General test preparationTo do well on tests you must first learn the material,and then review it before the test.These are techniques to better understand your material:

Learning

o Take good notes in your class lectures and textbooksSee the Guides on Taking notes in Lectures(and Taking notes from a textbook!)

o Review your notes soon after class/lectureo Review notes briefly before the next classo Schedule some time at the end of the week for a longer review

Reviewing

o Take good notesabout as your teacher tells you what will be on the test

o Organize your notes, texts, and assignmentsaccording to what will be on the test

o Estimate the hours you'll need to review materialso Draw up a schedule

that blocks units of time and materialo Test yourself on the materialo Finish your studying the day before the exam

MCQ'S BIOCHEMISTRY

1. How an atom behaves when it comes into contact with other atoms is determined by its

a. nucleus. b. size. c. protons. d. neutrons. e. electrons.

2. Cellulose is a _____ made of many _____.

a. polypeptide . . . monomers b. carbohydrate . . . fatty acids c. polymer . . . glucose molecules d. protein . . . amino acids e. lipid . . . triglycerides

3. In a hydrolysis reaction, _____, and in this process water is _____ .

a. a polymer breaks up to form monomers . . . consumed b. a monomer breaks up to form polymers . . . produced c. monomers are assembled to produce a polymer . . . consumed d. monomers are assembled to produce a polymer . . . produced e. a polymer breaks up to form monomers . . . produced

4. The four main categories of macromolecules in a cell are

a. proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids. b. monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccharides, and proteins. c. proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. d. nucleic acids, carbohydrates, monosaccharides, and proteins. e. RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates.

5. The characteristic that all lipids have in common is

a. they are all made of fatty acids and glycerol. b. they all contain nitrogen. c. none of them is very high in energy content. d. they are all acidic when mixed with water. e. none of them dissolves in water.

6. The overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is called the

a. double helix. b. primary structure. c. secondary structure. d. tertiary structure. e. quaternary structure.

7. Which of the following do polysaccharides and proteins have in common?

a. They are both made of amino acids. b. Their structures contain sugars. c. They are hydrophobic. d. They are large polymers. e. They each consist of four basic kinds of subunits.

8. A glucose molecule is to starch as

a. a steroid is to a lipid. b. an amino acid is to a protein. c. a nucleic acid is to a polypeptide. d. a fat is to glycerol. e. an amino acid is to a nucleic acid.

9. Which of the following ranks the molecules in the correct order by size?

a. water . . . sucrose . . . glucose . . . protein b. protein . . . water . . . glucose . . . sucrose c. water . . . protein . . . sucrose . . . glucose d. protein . . . sucrose . . . glucose . . . water

e. glucose . . . water . . . sucrose . . . protein

10. Lipids differ from other large biological molecules in that they

a. are much larger. b. are not truly polymers. c. do not have specific shapes. d. do not contain carbon. e. contain nitrogen atoms.

Lipid

An example of a saturated fatty acid is (A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid (C) Linoleic acid (D) Erucic acid

If the fatty acid is esterified with an alcohol of high molecular weight instead of glycerol, the resulting compound is (A) Lipositol (B) Plasmalogen (C) Wax (D) Cephalin

The carbon chain of a saturated fatty acidA. has no double bonds. B. is the basis of the ATP molecule. C. forms hydrogen bonds with itself. D.has a repeating backbone of sugars and phosphates.

An unsaturated fat could be changed into a saturated fat if A. peptide bonds were broken. B. hydrogen atoms were added. C. glycerol molecules were added. D. fatty acid chains were shortened.

Fatty acids containing double bonds are found inA. proteins. B. saturated lipids. C. polysaccharides. D. unsaturated lipids.

Which of the following types of bonding occurs during complementary base pairing?A. ionic B. peptide C. covalent D. hydrogen

Nucleic acids are composed of A. glucose B. enzymes C. fatty acids D. nucleotides

Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide?A. Sugar. B. Glycerol. C. Phosphate. D. Nitrogen base

Which of the following is composed of nucleotides?A. Fat. B. RNA. C. Starch. D. Protein.

Which of the following represents the structure of a nucleotide?A. Salt – lipid – base. B. Glucose – glucose – glucose. C. Phosphate – sugar –nitrogenous base. D. Amino acid – amino acid – amino acid.

The bonding of a glucose molecule and a maltose molecule would result in aA. triglyceride.B. disaccharide.

C. phospholipid.D.polysaccharide.

The hydrolysis of which of the following substances will produce the greatest number of glucose molecules?A. Maltose.B. Sucrose.C. A disaccharide.D. A polysaccharide.

The main difference between cellulose and starch molecules isA. the type of linkage between glucose subunits.B. that only cellulose contains ribose building blocks.C. that only starch is made from glucose building blocks.D. the type of monosaccharide used to form these polymers.

How many double bonds are there between carbon atoms in a saturated fatty acid?A. 0B. 1C. 2D. more than 2

A characteristic of unsaturated fats is that theyA. denature as they cool.B. are made up of glucose and fructose.C. are made up of amino acids and glycerol.D. have double bonds in their carbon chains.

A lipid molecule is produced whenA. fatty acids bond to glycerol.B. amino acids bond to glycerol.C. monosaccharides bond to glycogen.D.dehydration occurs between fatty acids and glycogen.

Lipids are composed ofA. nucleotides.B. amino acids.C. monosaccharides.D. glycerol and fatty acids.

Which of the following is a function of some proteins?A. Emulsify fats.B. Make up genes.C. Make up cell walls.D. Speed up chemical reactions.

A glucose molecule containsA. six carbon atoms.B. two high-energy phosphates.C. three fatty acids and glycerol.D. a long chain of carbohydrate rings.

The building blocks or monomers that make up carbohydrates areA. nucleotides.B. amino acids.C. monosaccharides.D. fatty acids and glycerol

The unit molecule of a protein isA. glucose.B. glycerol.C. a fatty acid.D. an amino acid.

The breakdown of a disaccharide may produceA. glucose.B. glycerol.C. fatty acids.D. amino acids.

Which of the following is made up of a long chain of glucose molecules?A. DNA.B. Starch.C. Pepsin.D. Phospholipid.

All of the following are true about agar except it

A) liquefies at 100°C.

B) is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga.

C)Solidifies at approximately 40°C.

D) is metabolized by many bacteria.

E)facilitates obtaining pure cultures.

4. Below are three different culture media. Use them to answer the following questions.

Medium A Medium B Medium CTributyrin (a lipid) Glucose Na2HPO4PO4 Peptone KH2PO4KH2PO4 (NH4)2SO4 MgSO4MgSO4 KH2PO2 CaCl2(NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4 NaHCO3

2 CORRECT Which of these media, if any are chemically defined?

A)A

B)B

C)A and B

D)A and C

E)None of these

3 INCORRECT On which medium would an chemoorganotrophic heterotroph grow?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)A and B

E)None of these

4 CORRECT On which medium would an photolithotrophic autotroph grow?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)A and C

E)None of these

If you are designing an experiment involving a photolithotrophic autotroph; in addition to light, which of the following would be most essential to maintaining growth of the organism?

A)a continual supply of abundant oxygen

B)

a nutrient medium containing glucose

C)a source of CO2

D)

keeping the cultures at 37°C

E)adding chlorophyll to the culture medium

6CORRECTIf you are designing an experiment involving a chemolithotrophic autotroph; which of the following would be most essential to maintaining growth of the organism?

A)a nutrient medium containing glucose

B)a continual supply of abundant oxygen

C)

keeping the cultures at 37°C

D)a source of reduced inorganic compound such as NH4

E)adding agar to the culture medium

7CORRECTThe addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium into a complex medium?

A)Biotin (a vitamin)

B)K2HPO4

C)NH4NO3

D)Maltose

E)Yeast extract

8INCORRECTWhich of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture?

A)streak plating

B)dilution plating

C)enrichment culture

D)All the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture.

E)None of the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture.

9CORRECT Which of the following is a micronutrient?

A)Carbon

B)Manganese

C)Potassium

D)Magnesium

E)Nitrogen

10CORRECT Which of the following is a macronutrient?

A)Manganese

B)Magnesium

C)Molybdenum

D)Zinc

E)Cobalt

11CORRECT Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?

A)Chemotroph

B)Lithotroph

C)Autotroph

D)Heterotroph

E)Phototroph

12CORRECTWhich of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic or organic chemicals?

A)Chemotroph

B)Lithotroph

C)Autotroph

D)Heterotroph

E)Phototroph

13CORRECTAn organism is capable of oxidizing H2S and using the energy obtained from the reaction to reduce carbon dioxide. Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?

A)Photolithotrophic autotroph

B)

Chemoorganotrophic heterotroph

C)Photoorganotrophic heterotroph

D)Chemolithotrophic autotroph

E)Not enough information to determine which type

14CORRECTAn organism is capable of oxidizing fatty acids to obtain energy, hydrogen, electrons and carbon. Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?


B)





15CORRECTAn organism is capable of photosynthesis but use organic matter as their electron donor and carbon source. Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?


B Chemoorganotrophic heterotroph

)




16CORRECTAn organism uses radiant energy as their energy source and carbon dioxide as their carbon source. Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?


B)





17CORRECTAddition of blood to a culture medium only allows the hemolytic bacteria that grow on the plate to be picked out. This is an example of a

A)Differential media.

B)

Liquid media.

C)Chemically defined media.

D)Selective media.

E)

Complex media.

Microorganisms require about 10 elements in large quantities, used to construct proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids.

True

False

2. Selection of culture media for particular organisms will depend on its nutritional requirements.

True

False 3. Those organisms that obtain carbon from CO2 or other biosynthetic sources are called

heterotrophs

autotrophs 4. Those organisms that obtain carbon from preformed organic molecules from other organisms are called

heterotrophs

autotrophs 5. Those organisms that obtain their energy from oxidation of organic or inorganic compounds are called

phototrophs

chemotrophs 6. Those organisms that obtain their hydrogen (electron) sources from organic molecules are called

lithotropes

organotrophs 7. Nutrient uptake involves which of the following transport mechanisms?

diffusion

active transport

group translocation

endocytosis

all of the above 8. Siderophores are molecules able to complex with a specific nutrient and transport it to the cell. This nutrient is

calcium

potassium

iron 9. A culture medium in which all the components are known is called

complex

defined

differential 10. A culture medium that favors the growth of a specific organism is called

complex

defined

differential

selective 11. A culture medium that helps to distinguish between different groups of bacteria and may permit tentative identification of microorganisms is called

complex

defined

differential

selective 12. In both spread-plate and streak-plate isolation techniques, successful depends on spatial separation of bacterial species.

True

False